exam 2 Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

bathing

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dressing

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

toileting

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

transferring

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

continence

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

feeding

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

grooming

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

walking

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

handling finances

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

use telephone

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cook

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

laundry

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

manage medications

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clean the house

A

IADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

absrption

A
  • decreased acidity
  • delayed GI transit
  • increased Tmax
  • AUC does NOT change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

distribution

A
  • increase in fat
  • decreased albumin
  • lipophilic meds: increased T1/2
  • hydrophilic meds: decreased T1/2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

metabolism

A
  • decreased hepatic blood flow
  • decreased CYP3A4
  • no change in phase II metabolism
  • increased T1/2
  • increased risk of metabolite accumulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

elimination

A
  • decreased GFR
  • delayed elimination
  • increased exposure to toxic metabolites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

adverse drug reaction

A
  • a specific rxn usually related to the pharmacology of the drug
  • pruritis caused by morphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

adverse drug event

A
  • any injury due to drug therapy. includes ADRs

- prescribing, dispensing, administration, adherence problems and therapeutic failures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

adverse event

A
  • any adverse event not exclusive to medication therapy

- DVT following hip replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

adverse outcome

A
  • any poor health outcome that may be related to med or other factors
  • stroke due to poorly controlled HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

top 5 med classes leading to ED

A
  • hematologic
  • cardio
  • endocrine
  • CNS
  • anti-infective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

activation of M1 & M2 are importatnt for

A

learning and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
STARTcriteria
ACEI/ARB, bisphosphonates, anti-HTN, Ca +D
26
STOPP criteria
CNS and psychotropic drugs, GI, musculoskeletal, analgesic, duplicates
27
leading source on the safety of prescribing meds for older adults
BEERS criteris
28
functional age-related eye changes
presbyopia, decreased tear production, visual field constriction, decreased refractive power, decreased dark adaptation
29
structural age-related eye changes
rising intraocular pressure, rod cell loss, liquefaction of vitreous gel, decreased lens translucency
30
glaucoma treatment
- decrease aqueous | - beta blocker or PG analog
31
most common cause of low vision in the US
cataracts
32
conductive causes of hearing impairment
- obstructive of auditory canal - tympanic membrane impairment - middle ear abnormalities
33
sensorineural causes of hearing impairement
- age related - autoimmune disease - noise trauma - meds- AGs, loop diuretics, NSAIDs, salicylaes, macroldes, vanc
34
MMSE
assesses cognitive impairment - 27-30: normal - 21-26 mild - 11-20 moderate - 0-10 severe
35
low health literacy risk factors
lack of internet, older age, lack of health insurance,
36
signs of low health literacy
- poor eye contact when asked to read - being defensive in conversation - blaming lack of knowledge on sensory deficit
37
implications of low health literacty
- increased BP, poor glycemic control, low self- reported health, low patient satisfaction, higher rates of hospitalization, non-adherence
38
Geriatric syndrome definition
multifactorial common conditions in the geriatric population associated with morbidity and mortality
39
geriatric syndromes are problems that affect
- cognitive, sensory, motor, psychosocial | - resulting in a loss of function
40
measurements of function of IADLs
- ability to use the phone, shopping, food preparation, housekeeping, laundry, transportation, med management, ability to handle finances
41
measurements of function of ADLs
bathing, dressing, self-feeding, hygiene, continence, transferring
42
oropharyngeal dysphagia
difficulty initiating swallowing or coordinating movement of food or liquid from the mouth to the upper esophagus - most common form in older adults - causes- stroke, PD
43
esophageal dysphagia
- difficulty transporting food or liquid through the esophagus into the stomach - any med carries the risk of esophageal injury when administered improperly - causes- dry swallowing, drug induced
44
non-crushable meds
donepezil 23mg, duloxetine, omeprazole, potassium, dabigatran, mirabegron
45
involuntary weight loss
significant weight loss of 5% over
46
strongest factors for falls
abnormalities in gait and balance
47
high risk factors for falls
- time frame of 1 month post hospital discharge - suffered a fall w/in 12 months - diagnosed as frail - acute illness - exacerbation of chronic illness
48
frailty characteristics
unintentional weight loss, exhaustion/fatigue, lower energy expenditure, slow gait speed/ slow performance, weak grip strength/ sarcopenia - must have 3/5 to be considered frail
49
elements of informed consent
``` competence disclosure assurance of understanding volunteriness signed authorization ```
50
medicare eligiility
- those over 65 - under 65 with diabilities - ESRD
51
medicare part D eligibility
- medicare A or B - 65 - regardless of income or health
52
caregiver burden risk factors
female sex, low education , depression, cohabitation, financial stress, social isolation
53
types of elder abuse
financial exploitation, caregiver neglect, self-neglect, psychological/emotional, physical, sexual, abandonment
54
what are advance directives?
- written instructions about future medical care (end of life choices) - include living will and medical power of attorney
55
what is a durable power of attorney?
- a legal form that states who you want to make medical decisions - the person is authorized to speak for you ONLY if you are unable
56
what is a living will?
- a written legal document with your wishes about medical treatment - right to accept or refuse treatment - detailed end of life decisions
57
life-sustaining treatments
resuscitation, mechanical ventilation, tube feeding, dialysis
58
DNR
do not resuscitate
59
DNI
do not intubate
60
DNH
do not hospitalize
61
hospice care qualifications
- medicare part A benefit - terminally ill - must have
62
CII meds for hospice patients
may be faxed!
63
non-verbal signs of pain
facial expression, verbalizations, acting out, guarding, breathing, consolability, PAIN-AD
64
pain treatment
opiates first line
65
constipation management
- hydration, promote movement, fiber - preventative: stool softeners, bulk-forming agents - PRN- stimulants, MOM, osmotic laxatives
66
dyspnea management
- first line: opiates- decrease ventilatory drive (morphine or fentanyl) - BZD: releive anxiety - oxygen to correct hypoxia- for social functioning and discomfort
67
delirium management
- treat underlying cause | - meds: haloperidol, BXD