Exam 2 Flashcards

(205 cards)

1
Q

What are the three complement pathway modes of activation?

A

Classical
Alternative
Lectin

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2
Q

What is the common product that will lead into the terminal part of the complement pathway

A

C3b product

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3
Q

What activates the complement pathway in innate immunity?

A

C-reactive protein on a pathogen is bound by C1

C1 cleaves C4

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4
Q

Through the classical complement pathway, what is the initial activator in the adaptive immune response?

A

An antibody binds to the antigen. C1 binds to the antibody and cleaves C4

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5
Q

In the classical pathway, explain the process from initiation to formation of the C3b product of the complement pathway

A
Antibody binds C1 -> activates 
C1 -> C4 to C4a and C4b
C4b -> C2 to C2a and C2b 
C4b+C2b=C3 convertase 
C3 convertase -> C3a and C3b
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6
Q

Explain the terminal process of the complement pathways.

A

C3b+C2b+C4b= C5convertase (lectin and classical)
C3bBbC3b=C5convertase (alternative)

C5 convertase -> C5a and C5b
C5b+C6+C7+C8 ->associate with C9 in membrane
Form membrane attack complex

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7
Q

What is the activator of the Lectin pathway?

A

Mannan binding lectin (MBL)

MBL-associated serine protease-2 (MASP-2)

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8
Q

What is the activator of the alternative pathway?

A

C3 in contact with microbial cell wall

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9
Q

What is the initial complement component of the lectin pathway?

A

C4 and C2
To C4b and C2b

Form C3 convertase = C3b+C4b+C2b

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10
Q

What is the initial complement component of the alternative pathway?

A

C3, Factor B, Factor D, and properdin

Form C3 convertase = C3bBbC3b

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11
Q

What are the 4 consequences of complement activation?

A

Lysis
Opsonization
Activation of Inflammatory response
Clearance of immune complexes

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12
Q

How does the complement pathway cause cell lysis?

A

Formation of membrane attack complex -> pore into the cell

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13
Q

How does the complement pathways cause opsonization?

A

C3b binds to pathogen and to monocytes

Marks pathogen for phagocytosis

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14
Q

How does the complement pathway activate immune responses

A
C3a and C5a are chemoattractants
Cause 
- smooth muscle contraction 
-mast cell degranulation 
- local oedema
-neutrophil activation
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15
Q

How does the complement pathway aid in clearance of immune complexes?

A

C3b binds with antibody-antigen complexes ->phagocytosis by macrophage or neutrophils

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16
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Immunity mediated by antibodies secreted by antigen-activated Bcells and their plasma cells

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17
Q

What are the 3 main differences between primary and secondary humoral responses?

A
Primary- lag phase, which is shorter in secondary 
Secondary has a greater magnitude of antibody
Major antibody class is IgG in secondary response
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18
Q

What is the main structure of immunoglobulin?

A

Y-shaped molecule
4 chains connected by disulfide bonds
Hypervariable region (for specific binding of antigen)

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19
Q

Define epitope

A

Protein domain on antigen that is recognized by an antibody.
Antigens can be have multitalented (multiple) epitope that are repeated (all the same) or different

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20
Q

Define Paratope

A

Part of antibody that recognizes an antigen (antigen-binding site)
Aka hypervariable region = Small region of 15-20aa on Fab region of antibody

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21
Q

What 3 cells types have paratopes with specificity for a single antigenic epitope?

A

Antibody
Bcell receptors
Tcell receptors

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22
Q

What do Tcells require to recognize a pathogen?

A

Denatured peptide fragment to be presented on a MHC

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23
Q

What cells can you find MHC I on and what cells do they interact with?

A

Nucleated cells

Present antigen fragment to CD8+ Tcell

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24
Q

On what cells can you find MHC II and what is its function?

A

Only on APC (Bcell, macrophages, and dendritic cells)

Present antigen to CD4+ Tcell

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25
What is processing occurs in an endogenous infection in a Tcell adaptive immune response?
Endogenous antigen infects cell -> viral proteins are synthesized by cell in cytoplasm -> peptide fragments are bound by MHC I in ER -> MHC I takes fragment to surface -> CD8+ Tcell binds-> cytotoxic Tcell effect
26
In an exogenous infection, what is the process following macrophage phagocytosis?
Within vesicle degradation of bacteria ->bacterial peptides are bound by MHCII ->MHCII brings bacterial peptide to surface -> Th1 recognizes and binds to complex (Cd4+) -> activates macrophages
27
How are antigens bound by Bcell immunoglobulins processed?
Cell surface immunoglobulin bound to antigen is engulfed by Bcell -> Degradation of antigen in vesicle -> MHC II binds peptide fragment and brings it to the surface -> Th2 cell receptor binds to antigen and activates Bcells
28
What MHC molecule is found on antigen presenting cells?
MHC II
29
CD8+ Tcells are ____________ restricted
MHC I
30
CD4+ Tcells are _______________ restricted
MHC II
31
What cells bridge the innate and adaptive immune response
Dendritic cells Take antigen from site of infection through the lymph to the lymph node where it presents the antigen to Tcells and Bcells for specific immune response
32
What is antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?
A cell-mediated immune response where an effector cell actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antibodies (NK cells, Macrophages, Neutrophils, and Eosinophils)
33
An infection that is interstitial, in blood, or lymph activates what type of immune reaction?
Antibody Complement Phagocytosis CD4+ Th2 Humoral response
34
A pathogen on epithelial surfaces activates what immune response?
IgA Antimicrobial peptide CD4+ Th2 Humoral response
35
An intracellular, cytoplasmic infection causes what immune response?
Cytotoxic Tcell NK cells CD8+ cytotoxic Tcell
36
A intracellular Vesicular infection activates what immune response?
Macrophage CD4+ Th1 Cell mediated response
37
What is a virus made up of?
Nucleic acid (RNa or DNA) Protein capsule Sometimes -lipid envelope
38
Virology
Study of viruses and viral diseases
39
Virologist
Someone who studies viruses
40
Zoonotic disease
Disease that can be transferred from animal to human
41
Why do viruses require a host cell?
They are non living organisms, with no cell organelles | Cannot produce their own energy or proteins
42
All viruses are __________________, requiring a host cell to replicate
Intracellular obligate parasites Dormant outside of the host
43
The virus protein shell is called ___________
Capsid
44
The capsid is made of of many ______________________
Capsomeres
45
The capsid = nucleic acid together is called _______________
Nucelocaspid
46
Describe a viral lipid envelope
Covers the capsid Lipid bilayer derived from host cell Glycoproteins often appearing as spikes
47
What is pleomorphism?
Ability of some virus to alter their shape/size
48
What 4 forms of nucleic acid can viruses carry?
Double stranded DNA Single stranded DNA Double stranded RNA Single stranded RNA
49
What 4 impacts can a virus have on host
Cell death Fusion of cells Transformation to malignant cell No apparent change
50
How are viruses classified and what organization is responsible for virus classifications?
Nature of genome and its genetic diversity Replication strategies Morphology International committee on viral taxonomy
51
What are the modes of transmission
``` Direct contact Indirect contact Common vehicle Airborne Vector born Vertical Zoonotic ```
52
Direct- contact transmission
Contact of infected host/reservoir species with a susceptible individual
53
Indirect-contact transmission
Contaminated inanimate object
54
Common vehicle transmission
Fecal contamination of water or food
55
Airborne transmission
Aerosols, sneeze, cough, usually short lived
56
Vector bone transmission
Arthropod carrying disease | -mosquito or tick
57
Vertical transmission
Mother to embryo, fetus, or newborn
58
Zoonotic transmission
Animal/bird to human
59
How can viruses be diagnosed/detected?
``` Clinical signs of disease Histopathology Necropsy Cultivation and isolation in tissue culture Electron microscopy ELIZA PCR /RT-PCR Virus genome sequencing ```
60
What three ways can you treat a virus?
Antiviral drugs Immune system stimulation Antibody synthesis/ administration of natural antiserum
61
What is the mode of action of antiviral drugs?
Interfere with the ability of a virus to infiltrate a target cell or target different stages of replication/synthesis of viral components
62
What is the mode of action of immune system stimulation as a viral treatment?
Interferons - class of protein that has an antiviral effect and modulates immune system function
63
How can viruses be controlled or prevented?
Vaccination Proper hygiene and sanitation Eliminating arthropod vectors Quarantine/ culling
64
What are the three types of vaccines?
Live-attenuated virus Non-replicating virus Recombinant DNA virus
65
Live -attenuated viruses
Naturally occurring Serial passage in culture or host Cold-selected mutant
66
Non replicating virus vaccines
Inactivated whole virions | Viral proteins
67
Recombinant DNA vaccinations
Subunit expression of protein in eukaryotes | Gene deletion/mutation of virus genome
68
Pathologenicity
Ability of virus to cause disease in host
69
Pathogenesis
Mechanism of development of disease | Pathogenic or non-pathogenic
70
Virulence
Quantitative or relative measure of the degree of pathogenicity of infecting virus Intensity of disease
71
Avirulent
Not virulent (not harmful to hosT)
72
How is virulence measured?
Lethal dose 50 (LD50)
73
Define lethal dose 50
The dose of the virus required to case death in 50% of animals
74
What are the steps of viral infection?
``` Entry of virus Primary replication Spread Infection of target organs Virus-cell interaction Tissue and organ injury Shedding ```
75
Viremia
Spread of virus in blood stream
76
Disseminated infection
Spread beyond primary site of infection
77
Systemic infection
Many organs and tissues infected
78
What is the difference between primary and secondary viremia
Primary entry from subepithelial, lymphatic, or injection into blood stream. Secondary entry from replication in major organs and is re-entering the blood stream
79
How can viruses spread to the CNS
Peripheral nerves Receptor neurons in nasal olfactory epithelium Cross the Blood brain barrier
80
Neurotrophic virus
Viruses that can infect neural cells
81
Neuroinvasive cells
Enter CNS after peripheral nerves
82
What are neurovirulent viruses
Cause disease of nervous tissue, manifested by neurological symptoms
83
How can viruses cross the blood brain barrier?
Trafficking monocytes - virus enter monocytes, monocytes enters brain , virus leaves monocytes
84
Tropsim
The specificity/affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue
85
Pantropic virus
Replicate in more than one host/organ
86
What are the outcomes of viral injury?
``` Cell lysis Apoptosis Oncoviruses Persistent infection Immunosuppression ```
87
How can viruses can disease and injury in a cell?
``` Inhibit -host nucleic acid synthesis -host cell RNA transcription -host protein synthesis Produce -toxic viral proteins Interference with cellular membrane function ```
88
How can viruses cause persistent infection in the host?
Can be latent or dormant in host cell for long periods avoid immune system Chronic stimulation of immune system -> immunopathy
89
How can viruses cause immunosupression?
Destroy immune system cells Make body susceptible to other infections
90
Describe viral shedding in an acute infection
Intense shedding of virus over a short period of time
91
Describe viral shedding in a persistent infection
Shed at lower titers over months to years
92
Infectious disease prevention
Inhibiting the introduction or establishment of a disease into an area, herd, or individual
93
Disease eradication
Complete elimination of pathogen or disease agent from a geographic area
94
What is primary disease prevention?
Maintaining health of a population | Avoid occurrence-> eliminate pathogen/ eliminate increasing resistance
95
What is secondary disease prevention?
Halt the progress of disease at its early strange and prevents complications - early diagnosis, prompt treatment, control and quarantine - intervention at individual level and preventing disease spread
96
What is tertiary disease prevention ?
Rehabilitation and elimination of a long -term impairment (established parasite)
97
How can you prevent and control disease within a farm
Purchasing policy-closed herd Dirty and clean road Vehicles leaving farm- clean and log book People and workers- cleanliness and few visitors as possible Fodder and water- clean, no animal byproducts Equipment - clean and dedicated tools Housing and Management - density, all in all out, Vermin and bird control Animal health - individual health (quarantine and testing of unhealthy) Disposal of carcasses- burying, compost, and incineration
98
What is the best method of disposal of dead animals when an infectious disease is suspected
Incineration/ burning
99
What should you consider when burying carcasses of animals?
Away from farm Depth - not able to be uncovered by other animals/scavenging Water- not going to infect water lines or sources (Same concerns in composting)
100
Decontamination
Process or treatment that makes an item safe to handle
101
Sterilization
Process or treatment that eliminates all forms of microbial life, pathogens
102
Disinfection
Eliminates all or many pathogenic microorganisms except bacterial spores, inanimate object
103
Antisepsis
Application of liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms
104
Incubation period
Microbe is replicating but the host is not symptomatic yet
105
Infectious disease
Disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of a living agent in/on a host
106
Infestation
Invasion, but not multiplication in/on a host (eg fleas, ticks, sometimes parasites)
107
Contagious
Disease transmissible form one human/animal to another iva direct or airborne routes
108
Communicable disease
Disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, airborne, or indirect routes from an infected person, animal, plant, or a contaminated inanimate reservoir
109
Reservoir
Habitat in which an infectious disease agent lives, grows, and multiplies Maintains a pathogen over a long period of time
110
What are the three characteristics of a reservoir
Naturally infected Maintain pathogen over time Transmit pathogen to a susceptible host
111
How can pathogens survive in a reservoir for a long periods of time
Mutate to escape immunity Immune evasion Chronic infection with minimal symptoms (balanced pathogenicity)
112
Incubatory carriers
Animal that is able to transmit disease before symptoms appear
113
Convalescent carriers
Host that is clinically recovered but can still spread disease
114
Latent carriers
Host that harbors infection without clinical disease
115
Vertical transmission
From reservoir host to its offspring - congenital - perinatal
116
Horizontal transmission
From reservoir to a new host
117
Congenital transmission
Type of vertical transmission | Across the placenta, infect eggs
118
Perinatal transmission
Type of vertical transmission | Partition, via colostrum
119
Direct transmission
Reservoir to susceptible host
120
Indirect transmission
Any sort of intermediary between reservoir and host
121
Types of direct transmission
Direct-contact: skin-skin, mucous membranes, soil reservoir, bite/scratch Direct propulsion (droplet spread): wet, large, and short ranging aerosols Airborne
122
What are vehicles of transmission?
Inanimate object that serves to communicate disease Common vehicle- food, water, and contaminated IV drugs Fromites- object that can be contaminated and transmit disease
123
What are vectors?
Live organisms that transmit disease
124
What are the two types of vectors?
Mechanical- a pathogen does not multiply or undergo any life cycle on the arthropod Biological- pathogen undergoes changes or multiplies while on vector (required for transmission)
125
What is an emerging disease
PREVIOUSLY UNKNOWN disease that appears in a population | KNOWN disease that appears in a new population (species/area)
126
What is a re-emerging disease?
KNOWN disease that was previously on decline but is becoming more common
127
What are the determinants of pathogen emergence?
Pathogen- mutation or change (new pathogens originate from old pathogens) Reservoir- phylogenetic disease Transmission-reservoir size, pathogen prevalence, contact frequency Host-susceptibility
128
How can a pathogen adapt/change?
Increase antibiotic resistance Increased virulence Evasion of host immunity
129
What does phylogenetic distance mean for disease transmission?
Within species- viruses can travel easily Closely related species (eg ruminants)- transmission more difficult Distantly related species- transmission is difficult, but when it occurs the disease is often very different and more severe
130
What factors can increase the rate of transmission?
Increase reservoir abundance Increase pathogen prevalence Increase contact between reservoir and new host
131
Anthroponoses
Disease that is transmitted person to person
132
In what scenarios are people likely to be exposed to a zoonotic disease
``` Agriculture Animal product processing and manufacturing Forestry Recreation Clinics/ labs Epidemiology Emergency ```
133
What are the costs of a zoonotic disease on the population
Cost of human health- loss of productivity/ loss of life | Economic cost- treatment, import/export restrictions, lost trade and tourism
134
What social changes can affect zoonoses
Change in animal ownership (domestic and exotic), status, food animal production, global trade
135
Increased _______________of farm animals leads to changes can affect zoonotic diseases, due to increased reservoir size and higher contact frequency
Density
136
What is a veterinarians role in preventing zoonoses
Surveillance Prevention and control - decrease animal reservoirs and owner education Occupational safety
137
Tania sodium is a ________________disease
Parasitic
138
Giardia is a _________________ disease
Parasitic
139
What is the reservoir and intermediate host of taenia solium
Primary host:human | Intermediate host: pigs
140
What does Taenia solium cause in its pig host?
Porcine cysticercosis
141
What two disease outcomes occur when a human is infected with Taenia solium
Human Taeniasis - GI tapeworm | Neurocysteicercosis - larvae encyst in brain
142
How is taenia solium transmitted?
Consumption of food/water contaminated with human feces (untreated sewage
143
How can taenia solium be prevented?
Block transmission- hygiene Target vehicle- sewage management Target reservoir - treatment
144
What animals can be hosts to Giardia ?
Humans and animals
145
How is giardia transmitted?
Mainly through contaminated water Surface contaminated food Consuming cysts
146
How can Giardia be prevented?
Water treatment Sewage treatment Wash/peel fruits and veggies
147
What are the disease outcomes of giardia
Trophozite form produces cysts | Chronic diarrhea
148
Rabies is a _____________ disease
Viral
149
What is the species name and virus type of Rabies?
Rhabdoviridae Lyssavirus | RNA virus
150
What are the hosts of rabies
Basically all the mammals
151
True or false: all vectors are reservoirs, but not all reservoirs are vectors
False All reservoirs are vectors, but not all vectors are reservoirs
152
What are the reservoirs of rabies virus ?
Carnivores and bats
153
How is the rabies transmitted?
In the saliva of infected animals -> bite
154
What is the progression of the rabies virus?
Bite- neuroinvasive -> peripheral nervous system to CNS Dumb form and Furious form (Old Yeller)
155
What is the distribution of the rabies virus?
Worldwide, except some islands in Pacific Oceana
156
How is rabies prevented
Surveillance -human and animal Reduce animal reservoir - vaccination and control of populations Reduce human risk- post-exposure procedures, vaccinate those at risk, and education.
157
What is the distribution of hantavirus ?
Worldwide
158
What is the reservoir of hantavirus
Rodents (sylvatic)
159
How is hantavirus transmitted?
Shed in saliva, urine, and feces. Direct and indirect contact Usually inhalation of aerosol Secondary - bite
160
What are the clinical signs of hantavirus?
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome "new world" disease . Chills fever, myalgia, headache Hemorrhagic fever. "Old world" disease. Petechial hemorrhange and renal damage.
161
What are the risk factors associated with human-rodent contact?
Human rodent contact ->Increased rodent density and living in barns/buildings
162
How can hantavirus be prevented?
Decrease exposure to rodents
163
Anthrax is a ______________disease
Bacterial
164
Brucellosis is a _________________ disease
Bacterial
165
What is the scientific name for anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
166
How do different species come into contact with anthrax?
Herbivores- consume soil spores Carnivores - eat infected herbivores All species - inhalation of spores
167
What are the manifestations of human anthrax?
Cutaneous GI Pulmonary
168
What is the manifestation of anthrax in cattle??
Bleeding from all offices Swelling Sudden death
169
What are the postmortem signs of anthrax in cattle?
``` Blood not clotted Spores in blood microscopy Rapid bloating Lack of rigor mortis Blood from offices ```
170
How is brucellosis transmitted?
Ingestion, mucous membrane exposure, and percutaneous (through skin)
171
How is brucellosis controlled?
Eliminate animal reservoir Swine monitored Reduce public exposure -> pasteurization of milk
172
What are the two most common strains of brucellosis
Brucellosis melitensis | Brucellosis abortus
173
Why is brucellosis hard to diagnose?
Symptoms of undulating fever Abortions if pregnant Pleiomorphic symptoms
174
Name two vector borne diseases
Borreliosis and west nile virus
175
What is the vector for borreliosis
Ticks Hard tick (Ixodes)- lyme disease Soft tick- relapsing fever
176
What is the reservoir for Lyme disease
Rodents and some lizards
177
How can Borrelia be prevented?
Decrease contact Repellants Tick removal
178
What is the vector and reservoir of west nile virus
Mosquito-bird-mosquito
179
Humans and horses are ___________________ hosts of west nile virus.
Dead end hosts
180
What is the primary and secondary transmission of west nile virus?
Primary- mosquito bite | Secondary- bloodborne, lab exposure, and breast milk
181
What are the main broad categories of preventative care strategies?
``` Reservoir neutralization Reducing contact potential. (interruption of transmission) Protection of portal of entry Increasing host resistance Immune treatment ```
182
What are the three methods of reservoir neutralization?
Removing infected individuals Mass therapy Environmental manipulation
183
What is mass therapy?
Method of reservoir neutralization Treat all potentially infected animals without first testing Control Risk-development of resistant strains and side effects of therapy
184
How can environmental manipulation prevent disease?
Method of reservoir neutralization to break transmission between hosts Decrease vehicles and vectors
185
What are the three methods of vector control?
Source Reduction Biological Control Chemical control
186
Explain biological control of vector populations
Use of natural enemies to manage mosquito populations such as predatory fish that feed on mosquito larvae
187
Explain chemical control against vector populations
Larvicides: Insecticides that specifically targets the larval life stage of mosquitoes Adulticide: Insecticides against adult mosquitoes
188
What are common methods to reduce contact potential in preventative care strategies
Isolation Quarantine Population control programs
189
What is the difference between isolation and quarantine ?
Isolation: applies to animals that are KNOWN to be ill with a contagious disease Quarantine: Applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease, but not confirmed to have the disease. (For the longest incubation period of that disease)
190
How can portals of entry be protected from disease?
Clothing Repellant Nets on doors/windows Mosquito nets
191
How can host resistance be increased to prevent disease?
Chomoprophylaxis | Immunization
192
What is chemoprophylaxis?
Use of antimicrobial drugs - attempts to prevent infection, or reduce severity of disease - only is useful as long as the drug is in the system
193
What are the 4W's of immunization?
Where: where is the disease prevalent When: in season Who: those at risk Why: justifiable, the loss caused by disease must be greater than cost of immunization
194
What are the features of a safe vaccine
``` Safe to use Effective against diverse strains of same pathogen Few side effects Long lasting Low cost Stable and long shelf life Easy to administer Inexpensive Benefits outweighs the cost ```
195
What is herd immunity
Form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant/large portion of a population provides a measure of protection for the small number of individuals who have not developed immunity
196
Infected premises
Where a positive case is (clinical or lab confirmation )
197
Infected zone
Contains infected premises
198
Contact premises
With susceptible animals that may have been exposed to animals or products, fromite, or people
199
Zone infected+buffer
Contact premises
200
Infected zone
Immediately surrounds infected premises
201
Buffer zone
Zone immediate surrounds infected zone
202
Control area
Infected + buffer zone
203
Surveillance zone
Outside and along boarder of control area
204
Free area
Area not included in any control area
205
Vaccination zones
Emergency vaccination zone - containment vaccination (in control area) Protection vaccination zone - outside a control area (may also be a secondary zone designation)