Exam 2 Flashcards

(29 cards)

1
Q

what foot deformity is most common with patellofemoral pain?

A

forefoot varus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AKPS

A
  • anterior knee pain scale
  • outcome measure
  • 100 max points (no pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

patellofemoral pain often seen in:

A

runners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

patellar tendinopathy often seen in:

A

jumping athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

patellofemoral dislocation most common in:

A

adolescent age group during athletic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

symptoms associated with patellofemoral pain syndrome:

A
  • pain using stairs, running
  • no trauma
  • pain with prolonged sitting with knee flexed, relieved by extending knee
  • anterior knee ache relieved by rest from aggravating activities
  • anterior knee pain elicited during a squatting maneuver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

symptoms of neuropathy of infrapatellar branch of saphenous nerve:

A
  • could be injured during surgery, or from direct trauma
  • nerve sensitive to palpation, and neuropathic pain “burning, tingling”
  • allodynia
  • can result in severe symptoms
  • limited flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ottowa Knee Rules

A
  • age 55 or older
  • isolated tenderness of the patella (no bone tenderness of knee other than patella)
  • tenderness of head of fibula
  • inability to flex to 90 degrees
  • inability to bear weight both immediately and in the clinic for 4 steps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Red Flag for DVT

A
  • pain or tenderness
  • swelling, warmth, redness, discoloration
  • distention of surface veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Wells Score categorization

A
  • high if greater than 2
  • moderate if 1 or 2
  • low if less than 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

symptoms of septic arthritis

A
  • history of recent infections, recent surgery or joint infection, presence of prosthesis
  • symptoms: constant throbbing, aching pain in joint even at rest, swelling and warmth
  • may have systemic symptoms such as fever and chills, fatigue
  • knee and hip most commonly affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs of osteochondral defect

A
  • history of trauma involving rotation while knee is loading, landing from a jump
  • pain with weight bearing
  • locking
  • crepitus
  • pain and swelling after activity
  • eased after unloading joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

osteochondritis dissecans most often develops in:

A

children and adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

contact area between patella and trochlea gradually increases as:

A

knee flexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

for rehabbing articular cartilage injuries, OKC ROM for exercise should be:

A

90-45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

for articular cartilage injuries, CKC ROM for exercise progression:

A

initially: 0-30
as heals: 0-60
then 0-90

17
Q

osteoarthritis risk factors

A
  • increasing age
  • obesity
  • genetic predisposition
  • inappropriate loading
18
Q

rehab after partial menisectomy:

A
  • WBAT immediately and progress to FWB
  • restore full AROM ASAP, get quads firing immediately
  • progress activity slowly according to pain, and swelling
  • can return to full activity 2-4 weeks
19
Q

rehab after meniscus repair

A
  • WB restricted for 2-4 weeks
  • ROM 0-90; not hamstring activity if medial meniscus
  • start with iso quads immediately; progress after 4-6 weeks to knee ext PRE
  • usually start functional training at 3 months and return to full around 6 months
20
Q

If knee opens at 30 and 0 degrees during valgus stress test:

A
  • then other ligaments are involved such as the ACL or PCL

- need to be referred for imaging

21
Q

what percentage of ACL injuries are non-contact?

22
Q

recurrence (same side or opposite side) after ACL reconstruction?

23
Q

ACL graft strength timeline:

A
  • strongest when first go in
  • weaken over first 6-12 weeks
  • gets stronger as revascularize (16 weeks)
  • Maturation can take 12-18 months (still usually only 50% as strong as normal ACL)
24
Q

knee posterolateral ligaments:

A
  • LCL

- popliteus muscle-tendon ligament unit (includes popliteofibular ligament and posterolateral capsule)

25
At 0-70 degrees the quads create what kind of shear?
anterior shear
26
At flexion angles greater than 70 degrees the quads creat what kind of shear?
posterior shear
27
safest position for WB exercises after PCL injury?
0-70 degree since don't strain the PCL (has an anterior shear on knee)
28
when are the quads an active agonist for PCL?
open chain exercises
29
when are the hamstrings active antagonist for PCL?
open chain exercises