Exam 2 Flashcards

(170 cards)

1
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Congenital

Urethral opening or meatus is along underside shaft of penis, scrotum, or perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes hypospadias?

A

Abnormal fusion of urethral tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is epispadias?

A

Congenital

Opening of urethra is on dorsal or upper surface of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Tightening of prepuce or penile foreskin that prevents retraction over the glans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Constriction of foreskin that it cannot cover the glans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is balanitis?

A

Acquired

Chronic or acute inflammation of glans penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Acquired

Inflammation of glans penis and prepuce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are manifestations of balanoposthitis?

A

Erythema of glans and prepuce, itching, soreness, blisters, ulcers, painful urination, and foul-smelling discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is erectile dysfunction?

A

Persistent inability to achieve and maintain an erection

Failure of neural, vascular, and/or chemical pathways that produce an erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are neurologic causes of ED?

A

Parkinson disease, MS, heavy metal poisoning, stroke, cerebral trauma, spinal cord injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of ED?

A

Arteriosclerosis

Obesity, physical inactivity, high cholesterol, high BP, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the prevalence of penis cancer?

A

Uncircumcised males in developing countries, age, poor hygiene, smoking, HPV 16 & 18, UV radiation, immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Congenital disorder in which 1 or both testicles fail to move down into scrotal sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is primary cryptorchidism?

A

Testis fail to complete migration from parental embryologic origin to scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is secondary cryptorchidism?

A

Testis pulled into suprascrotal position as result of scarring
Usually after inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is hydrocele?

A

Collection of fluid in scrotum without obvious inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is hematocele?

A

Accumulation of blood in the space between parietal and visceral tunica vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is spermatocele?

A

Painless, sperm containing cyst that forms at end of epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is varicocele?

A

Varicosities of the pampiniform plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord and loss of blood supply to the ipsilateral testicle
Most common acute scrotal disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is intravaginal torsion?

A

Attachment of tunica vaginalis too high so spermatic cord rotates
More common than extravaginal torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are symptoms of intravaginal torsion?

A

Severe distress, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, large & tender testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is extravaginal torsion?

A

Almost exclusively in neonates, testicle not yet descended into scrotum, therefore more prone to torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are symptoms of acute epididymitis?
Pain, swelling, and inflammation of epididymis that lasts less than 6 weeks
26
What are symptoms of chronic epididymitis?
Pain, swelling, inflammation, discharge, dysuria, erythema that lasts more than 6 weeks
27
What causes epididymitis?
Infectious, noninfectious, and postinfectious microbial sources Bacterial agents, trauma, STI's
28
What is orchitis?
Acute inflammation of testis secondary to infection
29
What causes orchitis?
Viral mumps infection, other viruses & bacteria
30
What are symptoms of orchitis?
Enlarged testis, tenderness, scrotal skin erythema, scrotal edema, induration of testes
31
Testicular cancer
Most common cancer in males ages 15-35 | 5 year survival rate exceeds 95%
32
What are risk factors for testicular cancer?
Cryptorchidism, genetic factors, disorders of testicular development (Klinefelter syndrome)
33
What are manifestations of testicular cancer?
Slight enlargement of testicle, discomfort in abdomen or groin If metastasized-swelling of LE, back pain, neck mass, cough, hemoptysis, dizziness
34
What is acute bacterial prostatitis?
Acute infection of prostate gland that results in pelvic pain and urinary tract symptoms
35
What are the symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis
Rapid onset of dysuria, urinary frequency & urgency, hesitance, incomplete voiding, straining to urinate, weak stream
36
What is chronic bacterial prostatitis caused by?
E. coli or other gram-negative enterobacteriaceae | 5% acute bacterial prostatitis progress to chronic
37
What is inflammatory prostatitis?
Inflamed prostate with no bacteria in urinary system but present with pain in penis, testicles, and scrotum, painful ejaculation, low back pain, rectal pain, urinary symptoms, ED Often have inflammation of prostate with elevated leukocyte count
38
What is noninflammatory prostatitis?
No prostatic inflammation but similar symptoms to inflammatory prostatitis Can be caused by obstruction of bladder neck near external sphincter
39
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Prostate gland is enlarged but not cancerous
40
What are risk factors for BPH?
Age over 40, family history, obesity, cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, lack of physical exercise, and ED
41
What are manifestations of BPH?
Weak urinary stream, dribbling, increased urinary frequency, urinary urgency, nocturia, painful ejaculation/urination
42
How is BPH diagnosed?
Urinalysis, PSA blood test, biopsy, urodynamic tests
43
What is spermatogenesis?
Generation of spermatozoa or sperm beginning at age 13
44
What is a spermatozoon?
A mature sperm cell with a head and tail
45
What are actions of estrogens?
Growth and development, reproductive processes, general metabolic effects
46
At what age does menopause begin?
48 to 55 years
47
What is perimenopause?
Menstrual irregularity beginning 4 years before cessation of menstruation
48
What are manifestations of menopause?
Decreased levels of estrogen, decrease size in breasts, ovaries and uterus, vaginal pH decreases, pale and friable cervix and vagina, hot flashes, osteoporosis
49
Cervical cancer
Most easily cured of all female reproductive system cancers
50
What are risk factors for cervical cancer?
Early age first intercourse, multiple sexual partners, smoking, STI history, HPV
51
What are manifestations of cervical cancer?
Abnormal vaginal bleeding, spotting, and discharge, pelvic/back pain that may radiate down leg, hematuria
52
What is endometritis?
Inflammation of the endometrium
53
What are causes of endometritis?
Acute-abortion or delivery of newborn | Chronic-PID, IUD placement
54
What is endometriosis?
Functional endometrial tissue is found in ectopic sites outside the uterus
55
What are manifestations of endometriosis?
Pelvic pain, back pain, dyspareunia, infertility
56
What is adenomyosis?
Endometrial glands and stroma found within myometrium
57
What causes ovarian cysts?
Occlusion of the duct of the follicle, enlargement of corpus luteum
58
What is PCOS?
Endocrine disorder that is a frequent source of chronic anovulation
59
What are manifestations of PCOS?
Oligomenorrhea (irregular infrequent periods), hyperandrogenism (acne and excess body hair), elevated testosterone, polycystic-appearing ovaries
60
What tissue types produce ovarian tumors?
Serosal epithelium, germ cell, and/or gonadal stroma
61
What is vaginitis?
Inflammation of the vagina characterized by discharge and burning, itching, redness, and swelling of vaginal tissues
62
What causes vaginitis?
Candida albicans, Trichomonas vaginalis, and cabertial vaginosis
63
What is candidiasis?
Yeast infection, thrush, moniliasis
64
What are manifestations of candidiasis?
vulvovaginal pruritus, irritation, erythema, swelling, dysuria, dyspareunia, thick & white discharge
65
What are manifestations of chlamydia?
Women-mucopurulent cervical discharge | Men-urethritis, meatal erythema and tenderness, purulent discharge, urethral itching
66
What are manifestations of gonorrhea in men?
Urethral pain, creamy yellow/bloody discharge, rectal infection, may affect prostate, epididymis, and periurethral gland
67
What are manifestations of gonorrhea in women?
Endometritis, salpingitis, PID, pharyngitis, genital discharge, dysuria, dyspareunia, pelvic pain, unusual vaginal bleeding
68
What are the characteristics of primary syphilis?
Appearance of chancre at site of exposure and appear within 3 weeks but may incubate up to 3 months Infection is highly contagious at this stage
69
What are the characteristics of secondary syphilis?
Lasts from 1 week to 6 months, rash on palms/mucous membranes/meninges/stomach/soles, elevated red/brown lesions
70
What are the characteristics of tertiary syphilis?
Delayed response to untreated disease, can occur decades after initial infection Development of gummas, cardiovascular lesions, CNS lesions
71
What are the base pairs for DNA?
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine
72
What is the structure of DNA?
Double helix of complementary base pairing by stable hydrogen bonds
73
What is mRNA?
Template for protein synthesis
74
What is needed for mRNA synthesis?
Codon
75
What is a synonym?
Codons that specify the same amino acid
76
How is mRNA formed?
Transcription
77
What can Mendels laws predict?
Units of inheritance and pattern of single-gene transmission
78
What are homozygotes?
2 alleles of the same pair (AA or aa)
79
What are heterozygotes?
2 alleles of different pairs (Aa)
80
What is a recessive trait?
Trait expressed only as homozygous aa pairing
81
How are autosomal recessive disorders manifested?
When both members of gene pair are affected (homozygous)
82
What is PKU?
Rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by deficiency of liver enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
83
What are manifestations of PKU if untreated?
Mental disability, microcephaly, delayed speech, impaired neurological development
84
What is Tay-Sachs Disease?
Inherited autosomal recessive disorder with failure to break down GM2 gangliosides
85
What are the manifestations of Tay-Sachs?
Progressive weakness, muscle flaccidity, decreased responsiveness at 6-10 months followed by rapid deterioration of motor and mental function & seizures Death between 4-5 years
86
What is Turner syndrome?
Absence of all or part of X chromosome
87
What are the manifestations of Turner syndrome?
Short stature, lack of menstruation, small webbed neck, coarctation of aorta
88
What is Klinefelter syndrome?
Testicular dysgenesis accompanied by presence of 1 or more extra X chromosome
89
What are manifestations of Klinefelter syndrome?
Some show no phenotype | Enlarged breasts, sparse facial and body hair, small testes, inability to produce sperm
90
What is a teratogenic agent?
Chemical, physical, or biologic agent that produces abnormalities to developing fetus
91
What are manifestations from radiation exposure to fetus?
Microcephaly, skeletal malformation, mental disability
92
What is the common manifestation from thalidomide exposure?
Phocomelia (flipper like appendages)
93
What are the categories of drugs from least to most dangerous?
A, B, C, D, X
94
What are the manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
Growth delay, behavioral dysfunction, facial features, skull & brain malformation
95
What are the facial features of FAS?
Small palpable fissures, thin upper lip, flattened philtrum
96
When is an embryo most susceptible to teratogens?
15 to 60 days postconception
97
What hormones are released by the hypothalamus?
CRH, TRH, GHRH, GnRH, Somatostatin, Dopamine
98
What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary?
GH, ACTH, TSH, FSHLH
99
What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary?
ADH & Oxytocin
100
What is negative feedback?
Some feature of hormone action directly or indirectly inhibits further hormone secretion
101
What is hypothalamic-pituitary target cell feedback?
Hypothalamus produces RH that stimulates tropic hormone of anterior pituitary which stimulates target gland to secrete its hormone to produce a physiologic response
102
What is positive feedback?
A hormone stimulates continued secretion until appropriate levels are reached
103
What is acromegaly?
Excess GH in adulthood
104
What are manifestations of acromegaly?
Enlargement of small bones of hands/feet, broad bulbous nose, protruding lower jaw, slanting forehead, disturbed bite, deepening voice, organ enlargement
105
What are manifestations of hypothyroidism?
Decreased BMR, cold intolerance, weight gain, decreased sweating, bradycardia, hypoventilation, decreased appetite
106
What are manifestations of hyperthyroidism?
Increased BMR, heat intolerance, weight loss, thinning hair, tremor, tachycardia & palpitations, dyspnea, increased appetite
107
What is Graves Disease?
Autoimmune disorder characterized by abnormal stimulation of thyroid gland
108
What is a common manifestation of Graves Disease?
Ophthalmopathy
109
What are manifestations of a thyroid storm?
Very high fever, extreme cardiovascular effects, severe CNS effects
110
What are manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Increased levels of ACTH, enlarged clitoris, fused labia, urogenital sinus
111
What is primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)?
Destruction of adrenal gland
112
What is secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Disorder of HPA system
113
What is Cushing Syndrome?
Excess production of ACTH
114
What are the manifestations of Cushing Syndrome?
Protruding abdomen, buffalo hump, moon face, muscle weakness
115
What is the only hormone that lowers blood glucose?
Insulin
116
What is the function of glucagon?
Maintain blood glucose levels between meals, increases blood glucose
117
What is the function of somatostatin?
Decrease secretion of insulin and glucagon
118
What is prediabetes?
Elevated blood glucose but not to diagnostic criteria for diabetes
119
What is Type 1 DM?
Insufficient insulin function due to destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency More commonly in children
120
What is Type 2 DM?
State of insulin resistance and progressive decline in pancreatic beta-cell secretion of insulin ; accompanied by metabolic syndrome More commonly in adults
121
What is gestational DM?
Abnormalities of glucose regulation presenting during pregnancy
122
What are concomitants of metabolic syndrome?
Central obesity, acanthosis nigricans, elevated fasting glucose, low HDL, increase triglycerides, albuminuria, hyperuricemia, hypertension, atherosclerosis
123
What is tidal volume?
Volume of air inspired with each breath | Usually 500 mL in adults
124
What is inspiratory reserve volume? (IRV)
Maximum amount of air that can be inspired in excess of the normal TV
125
What is expiratory reserve volume? (EVT)
Maximum amount of air that can be exhaled in excess of normal VT
126
What is residual volume? (RV)
Approximately 1200 mL air remains in lungs after forced expiration Increases with age
127
What is pulmonary gas exchange?
Process of removing CO2 from blood and replenish oxygen supply Occurs between alveoli and blood of lungs
128
What is intrapleural pressure?
Pressure in the pleural cavity-->normal inflated lung pressure is negative
129
What happens during inspiration?
Elastic recoil of lungs increase causing intrapleural pressure to become more negative
130
What happens without intrapleural pressure?
Lung collapse
131
What is transpulmonary pressure?
Difference between alveolar and intrapleural pressures used to determine pulmonary compliance
132
What are the manifestations of influenza?
Fever, chills, rigor, muscle aches, malaise, viral pneumonia, sinusitis, bronchitis
133
What are the manifestations of pneumonia?
Malaise, shaking chills, fever, fine crackling breath sounds, watery/bloody/purulent sputum, deterioration of mental status
134
What are manifestations of primary TB?
Destruction of lung tissue, fever, weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, pleuritis, lymphadenitis
135
What are manifestations of primary progressive TB?
Low grade fever, fatigue, weight loss, dry cough , dyspnea, orthopnea, anemia, rales on lung auscultation
136
What are the characteristics of small cell lung cancer?
Small round to oval cells that are the size of a lymphocyte that grow in clusters that exhibit neither glandular or squamous organization Highly malignant and rarely resectable
137
What are the characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma?
Common in men with smoking history, originate in central bronchi as intraluminal growth, spreads centrally to major bronchi and hilar lymph nodes Hypercalcemia
138
What are the characteristics of adenocarcinoma?
Most common lung cancer, originate in bronchiolar or alveolar tissue, located peripherally, associated with lung scarring (TB, wounds, metallic foreign bodies)
139
What are the characteristics of large cell carcinoma?
Large polygonal cells, group of highly anaplastic neoplasms, invades subsegmental bronchi & larger airways
140
What are the manifestations of lung cancer?
Chronic cough, SOB, wheezing, hemoptysis, dull pain in mediastinum, atelectasis, dyspnea
141
What are manifestations of respiratory disorders in children?
Increased respiratory rate, grunting sound, nasal flaring, stridor sound, inspiratory retractions
142
What are the characteristics of respiratory distress syndrome? (RDS)
Most common in premature infants, pulmonary immaturity, surfactant deficiency, alveolar collapse
143
What are the manifestations of RDS?
Difficulty breathing, retractions, grunting w/ expiration, increase respiratory rate, patent ductus arteriosus
144
What are the characteristics of bronchopulmonary dysplasia? (BPD)
Chronic lung disease developed by long-term mechanical ventilation
145
What are the manifestations of BPD?
Chronic respiratory distress, persistent hypoxemia, reduced lung compliance, increased airway resistance, severe expiratory flow, pulmonary hypertension, tachycardia, barrel chest, rapid shallow breathing
146
What is hypoxemia?
Reduction in arterial blood O2 levels which is considered PaO2 less than 95 mm Hg
147
What are the manifestations of hypoxemia?
Metabolic acidosis, increase HR, peripheral vasoconstriction, confusion, restlessness, agitation, cyanosis, diaphoresis
148
What is hypercapnia?
Increase in CO2 content of arterial blood | Common in hypoventilation
149
What are the manifestations of hypercapnia?
Respiratory acidosis, increased bicarbonate retention, increased WOB symptoms (hypoxemia symptoms)
150
What are symptoms of work of breathing? (WOB)
SOB, diaphoresis, pursed-lip breathing, tachypnea/bradypnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, abdominal breathing, use of accessory muscles
151
What are the manifestations of asthma?
Episodic wheezing, chest tightness, slight increase in respiratory rate, cough, distant breath sounds, moist skin, decreased airflow, prolonged expiration
152
What is the characteristic of emphysema?
Loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles, with destruction of alveolar walls and capillary beds
153
What are the manifestations of COPD?
Fatigue, exercise intolerance, cough, SOB, sputum production, dyspnea, chronic respiratory infections, wheezing and crackles, "tripod" position
154
What are the manifestations of emphysema?
Lack of cyanosis, used of accessory muscles, pursed-lip breathing, airway collapse w/ expiration (barrel chest)
155
What are the manifestations of chronic bronchitis?
Cyanosis, fluid retention, right-sided heart failure
156
What is cystic fibrosis? (CF)
Autosomal recessive disorder of CFTR gene that affects respiratory, GI, and reproductive tracts
157
What are the manifestations of CF?
Accumulation of mucus, impaired mucociliary clearance, lung infections, malabsorption/malnutrition, steatorrhea, diarrhea, abdominal pain/discomfort, elevated NaCl in sweat
158
What is a pulmonary embolism?
A blood-borne substance lodges in a branch of pulmonary artery and obstructs blood flow Generally occur from a DVT
159
What are manifestations of PE?
Chest pain, dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, pleuritic pain, moderate hypoxemia, tachycardia, rapid weak pulse, low BP, cyanotic & diaphoretic skin
160
What is pulmonary hypertension?
Elevation of pressure within pulmonary circulation
161
What are the 5 groups of pulmonary arterial hypertension? (PAH)
I-pulmonary arterial or idiopathic hypertension II-pulmonary venous hypertension III-pulmonary hypertension associated with hypoxemia IV-pulmonary hypertension due to chronic thrombotic or embolic disease or both V-miscellaneous disorders that cause PAH
162
What is PAH?
Abnormal proliferation and contraction of vascular smooth muscle, coagulation abnormalities, and marked intimal fibrosis leading to obileration or obstruction of pulmonary arteries
163
What are the manifestations of PAH?
Persistent elevation in pulmonary artery pressure w/ normal left ventricular pressure, SOB, decrease exercise tolerance, peripheral edema, fatigue, angina, syncope
164
What is secondary pulmonary hypertension?
Develops secondary to other conditions such as chronic hypoxemia, COPD, ILD, or sleep-disordered breathing, chronic thromboembolic disorders, mitral/aortic valve disorder, left heart dysfunction
165
What is cor pulmonale?
Right heart failure resulting from primary lung disease or pulmonary hypertension
166
What are the manifestations of cor pulmonale?
Venous congestion, peripheral edema, SOB, worsening productive cough, cyanosis, plethora, drowsiness, altered consciousness
167
What are the manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Rapid onset of respiratory distress, increase respiratory rate, signs of respiratory failure, marked hypoxemia, multiple organ failure, bilateral infiltrates of lung tissue in absence of cardiac dysfunction
168
What are the causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Aspiration, drugs, toxins, septicemia, trauma/shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation
169
What is acute respiratory failure?
Hypoxemic respiratory due to failure of gas exchange function of the lung Hypercapnic/hypoxemic due to ventilatory failure
170
What are the manifestations of acute respiratory failure?
Arterial PO2 less than 50 mm Hg or arterial PCO2 more than 50 mm Hg, respiratory acidosis, increased respiratory drive, increased sympathetic tone, tachycardia, increased BP, arterial vasodilation, headache