Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “most important tool in dentistry”?

A

Communication

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2
Q

Is providing information enough to change pt behavior?

A

NO

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3
Q

What % of med litigation cases cited communication as the primary cause?

A

68% to 70%

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4
Q

What are the two main roadblocks to good listening?

A
  • office distractions

- bias

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5
Q

Always ask patients about previous _____

A

dental experiences

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6
Q

What are the three most common reasons people avoid the dentist?

A

1: Fear

2: cost
3: lack of providers

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7
Q

6 Predictors of Dental Anxiety (in order)

Alpacas Can Slurp A Giant Albino

A
  1. Attitude towards dentists
  2. Check-up Frequency
  3. Satisfaction with mouth
  4. Avg # filled surfaces
  5. Gender
  6. Annual Income
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8
Q

What are three good initial contact questions?

A
  1. How long since last dental visit?
  2. Past treatment? Talk about it.
  3. Do you have any concerns?
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9
Q

What are the 3 things to do to reduce anxiety in child pts?

A
  1. Tell
  2. Show
  3. Do
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10
Q

What are 4 cultural factors that can affect oral healthcare?

A
  1. Eating habits and diet preferences
  2. What healthy teeth and gums look like
  3. Perception of time
  4. Gender roles
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11
Q

Health literacy is the ability of the pt to process and use med info. What is it associated with?

A

Education and race/ethnicity.

NOT assoc w/ age or gender

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12
Q

What are Kleinman’s 8 Questions?

A
  1. What caused problem?
  2. Why/when did it start?
  3. What do you think it does it you?
  4. How severe is it? Long or short course?
  5. What tx should you get?
  6. What do you hope to get from tx?
  7. Problems sickness has caused you?
  8. What do you fear most about sickness?
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13
Q

What are the 6 types of cements?

Zinc GRP

A
  1. Zinc Phosphate
  2. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
  3. Zinc Polycarboxylate
  4. Glass Ionomer
  5. Resin-Modified Glass Ionomer
  6. Provisional Cements
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14
Q

Should a good cement be thick or thin?

A

Thin

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15
Q

Is a good cement radiolucent or radiopaque?

A

Radiopaque

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16
Q

What was the first cement?

A

Zinc Phosphate (Gold standard)

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17
Q

Advantages of zinc phosphate?

A
  • thin thickness
  • low solubility (resists breakdown in mouth)
  • low thermoconductivity
  • long shelf life
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18
Q

Disadvantages of zinc phosphate

A
  • initial low pH
  • no chemical adhesion/bond
  • no antibacterial prop
  • poor aesthetics
  • long setting time
  • exothermic
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19
Q

What is the setting time of zinc phosphate cements?

A

2.5-8 mins

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20
Q

What type of ZOE is used for temp crowns?

A

Type 1

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21
Q

What is benefit of ZOE? What materials does it not work with?

A
  • neutral pH (soothing to pulp)

- acrylic or composite (eugenol not compatible)

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22
Q

What was first cement system with adhesive agent that bonded to enamel and dentin?

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

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23
Q

What materials will polycarboxylate bond to?

A

Most alloys but NOT gold

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24
Q

What zinc cement is used as a temporary crown cement in the clinic?

A

Polycarboxylate

25
How long does ZOE last in the mouth?
6-12 mo
26
What is another name for an acid-base cement?
Glass ionomer
27
What is the thickness of glass ionomer cements?
thin
28
What two aspects of glass ionomer cements seem contradictory?
- Moisture resistant (okay if there is a little moisture present at placement - Fairly soluble (can start to degrade in the mouth)
29
Most important advantage of glass ionomer cements?
Fluoride release
30
Are glass ionomers radiolucent or radiopaque?
Radiopaque
31
What cement has multiple uses? What are 3?
Glass ionomer: - liner - luting agent - build-up material
32
How does the addition of resin to glass ionomer change it's properties?
- less soluble | - lower early strength and moisture sensitive during setting
33
How long is the normal working time for glass ionomer cements?
2-2.5 minutes
34
Important detail needed in temp cements?
-easily removed from prep without harming tooth structure
35
Why do you want eugenol in temp cements?
Antibacterial effect (but can have - effect on resins)
36
How is ZONE different from ZOE?
ZONEs have carboxylic acids instead of eugenol. Have greater retention (RelyX Temp NE)
37
4 things to consider when selecting temp cements?
1. How long? 2. How retentive? 3. What will permanent cement be? 4. Working in aesthetic zone?
38
What is the bridge between the study of disease and the treatment of illness?
Diagnosis
39
Why change the type of clinical examination?
-alters the amount of diagnostic information collected initially and the scope fo diagnostic decisions made by the clinician
40
If pt has multiple complaints, how do you list them?
-In order of priority stated by patient
41
Diagnostic casts are part of what kind of exam?
Comprehensive
42
T or F: in a periodic exam, the dentist must confirm accuracy of prior data from previous dentist.
True
43
What does SOAP stand for?
S-Subjective (what patient says) O-Objective (what you find) A-Analysis (diagnosis) P-Plan (recommended treatment)
44
What is the purpose of a screening diagnosis?
- answer specific question about the pt | - obtain limited info needed to answer question w/o accepting comprehensive dx
45
Difference between symptom and sign?
Symptom: bodily change perceptible to the pt Sign: body change perceptible to trained observer
46
What is the most common symptom of face, mouth and neck area?
pain
47
T or F: When assessing pt history, it should include the pt's physical limitations and cognitive status.
True
48
The risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease is incr in pts _______.
-who are currently smoking
49
T or F: Rheumatoid arthritis affects only joints, surrounding tissues, and connective tissue.
False: inflammation affects entire body, skin, muscles, GI, lungs, heart, eyes
50
What condition increases risk of developing gout?
Chronic Heart Failure
51
What med is associated with bruxism and TMD?
Antidepressants
52
A diabetic with good control of BG should have an A1c below _______.
7%
53
Shortness of breath along with swelling of lower extremities, stomach, veins, neck are signs of _____.
Heart Failure
54
Should pts on Warfarin stop or alter their dose before most dental procedures?
No. TR is < or = 3.5
55
What are the BP ranges? Normal, Elevated, HTN 1, HTN 2, Crisis?
``` Normal: <120/<80 Elevated 120-129/<80 HTN 1: 130-139/80-89 HTN 2: >140/>90 Crisis: >180/>120 ```
56
MS is an immune _________ disease of the CNS.
mediated
57
What is NOT a typical symptom of MS?
Hearing loss
58
Is depression a common symptom of MS or Parkinson's?
MS
59
Should pts with stroke history receive vasoconstrictors? If so how much?
Yes, but either Epi 1:1k or 1:2k and < or = 0.04 mg