Exam #2: Chp. 5-8 Flashcards

1
Q

Dermatology

A

Concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the integumentary system, which comprises the skin and accessory organs

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2
Q

Dermatologists treat….

A

-tumors
-damage
-infections
-and inflammations of the skin

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3
Q

Plastic surgeons

A

Perform both reconstructive and cosmetic procedures involving the skin

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4
Q

The integumentaty system includes:

A

-the skin
-hair
-nails

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5
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?

A

The skin (integument)

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6
Q

What does the skin do?

A

-protection
-temperature regulation
-sensation
-waste disposal

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7
Q

Functions: protection

A

-the skin is a two way barrier keeping pathogens out and vital substances in

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8
Q

Temp. Regulation

A

-evaporation of sweat and blood vessel dilation cools the body
-blood vessel constriction keeps the body warm
-fatty subcutaneous layer serves as insulation

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9
Q

Sensation

A

-contains sensory receptors that send info. About touch, pressure, temperature, and pain to the brain

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10
Q

Waste disposal

A

Small amounts (ex. Excess salt) are excreted in sweat

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11
Q

Aden/o

A

Gland

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12
Q

Adip/o, lip/o

A

Fat

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13
Q

Skin

A

Cutane/o
Derm/o
Dermat/o

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14
Q

Hidr/o

A

Sweat

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15
Q

Kerat/o

A

Keratin, hard, hornlike

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16
Q

Melan/o

A

Melanin, black

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17
Q

Nail

A

Onych/o
Ungu/o

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18
Q

Py/o

A

Pus

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19
Q

Seb/o

A

Sebum, oil

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20
Q

Trich/o

A

Hair

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21
Q

Bi/o

A

Life

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22
Q

Carcin/o

A

Cancer

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23
Q

Chem/o

A

Chemical

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24
Q

Cry/o

A

Cold

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25
Q

Erythr/o

A

Red

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26
Q

Ichthy/o

A

Scaly

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27
Q

Leuk/o

A

White

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28
Q

Myc/o

A

Fungus

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29
Q

Necr/o

A

Death

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30
Q

Pedicul/o

A

Lice

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31
Q

Scler/o

A

Hardening

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32
Q

Vesic/o

A

Bladder, sac

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33
Q

Xanth/o

A

Yellow

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34
Q

Xer/o

A

Dry

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35
Q

Adenitis

A

Inflammation of gland

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36
Q

Adenoma

A

Tumor in gland

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37
Q

Adenomegaly

A

Enlarged gland

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38
Q

Adipocyte

A

Fat cell

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39
Q

Adipose

A

Pertaining to fat

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40
Q

Adipoma

A

Tumor made of fat

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41
Q

Subcutaneous

A

Pertaining to below skin

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42
Q

Percutaneous

A

Pertaining to through the skin

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43
Q

Xeroderma

A

Dry Skin condition

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44
Q

Erythroderma

A

Red skin condition

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45
Q

Leukoderma

A

White skin condition

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46
Q

Epidermal

A

Pertaining to over the skin

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47
Q

Hypodermic

A

Pertaining to under the skin

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48
Q

Transdermal

A

Pertaining to across the skin

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49
Q

Dermatoscerosis

A

Hardening skin condition

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50
Q

Hidradentitis

A

Sweat gland inflammation

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51
Q

Hyperhydrosis

A

Abnormal condition of excessive sweating

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52
Q

Keratoderma

A

Hornlike skin condition

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53
Q

Keratosis

A

Hornlike abnormal condition

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54
Q

Keratogenic

A

Producing keratin

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55
Q

Lipoid

A

Resembling fat

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56
Q

Lipectomy

A

Surgical removal of fat

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57
Q

Melanocyte

A

Black cell

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58
Q

Melanoma

A

Black tumor

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59
Q

Melanotic

A

Pertaining to being black

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60
Q

Onychitis

A

Inflammation of nail

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61
Q

Onychomalacia

A

Abnormal softening of nail

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62
Q

Hyperonychia

A

Condition of excessive nail (growth)

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63
Q

Pyogenic

A

Producing pus

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64
Q

Pyorrhea

A

Discharge of pus

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65
Q

Seborrhea

A

Discharge of oil

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66
Q

Trichophagia

A

Hair eating (chewing/biting)

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67
Q

Ungual

A

Pertaining to nail

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68
Q

Subungual

A

Pertaining to under nail

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69
Q

Abrasion

A

Skin injury that scrapes away surface of skin

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70
Q

Abscess

A

Collection of pus in skin

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71
Q

Alopecia

A

Loss of hair, especially on head

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72
Q

Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

A

Skin cancer in basal layer of epidermis, very common cancer that rarely metastisizes

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73
Q

Biopsy (BX)

A

Surgical procedure to remove piece of tissue by needle, knife, punch, or brush to examine under microscope

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74
Q

Boil

A

Bacterial infection of hair follicle

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75
Q

1st degree burn

A

Mild burn damaging only epidermis, results in erythema but no blisters, generally no scarring

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76
Q

2nd degree burn

A

Burn damage extending through epidermis and into dermis, causes blisters, scarring may occur

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77
Q

3rd degree burn

A

Burn damage to full thickness of skin and into underlying tissue, infection and fluid loss are major concerns, usually requires skin grafts, scarring will occur

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78
Q

Cauterization

A

Intentional destruction of tissue by caustic chemical, electric current, laser, or freezer

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79
Q

Cellulitis

A

Inflammation of connective tissue cells of skin

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80
Q

Chemabrasion

A

Removal of superficial layers of skin using chemicals (chemical peel)

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81
Q

Contusion

A

Blunt trauma to skin resulting in brusing but no break in skin

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82
Q

Cryosurgery

A

Extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue

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83
Q

Culture and sensitivity (C&S)

A

Lab test that grows a colony of bacteria removed from infected area in order to identify the specific type of bacteria and its sensitivity to a variety of antibiotics

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84
Q

Cyst

A

Fluid filled sac under skin

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85
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of foreign material and dead damaged tissue from wound

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86
Q

Decubitis ulcer (decub)

A

Open sore caused by pressure over bony prominence obstructing blood flow, cna appear jn bedridden patients who lie in one position too long, can be difficult to heal, commonly called bedsore or pressure sore

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87
Q

Dermabraision

A

Scraping skin with rotating wire brushes or sandpaper, used to remove acne scars

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88
Q

Dermatome

A

Instrument that cuts out small sections or thin slices of skin to be used for graft

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89
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Black and blue skin bruise caused by blood collecting under skin after trauma

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90
Q

Erythema

A

Redness of skin

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91
Q

Fissure

A

Crackling break in skin

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92
Q

Gangrene

A

Tissue necrosis caused by loss of blood supply

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93
Q

Herpes simplex

A

Infection of (HSV) causing painful blisters around lips and nose, commonly caused fever blisters

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94
Q

Herpes zoster (shingles)

A

Viral infection of nerve root, causes appearance of painful blisters along nerve path

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95
Q

Impetigo

A

Inflammatory skin disease with pustules that rupture and become crusted

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96
Q

Laceration

A

Jagged edge skin wound caused by tear of skin, doesn’t mean a skin cut

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97
Q

Laser surgery

A

Removal of skin lesions and birthmarks using laser beam

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98
Q

Lesion

A

Indicates presence of some type of tissue abnormality, wound, or injury

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99
Q

Macule (freckle, birthmark)

A

Flat, discolored spot on skin surfaces

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100
Q

Malignant melanoma (MM)

A

Aggressive form of skin cancer that originates jn a melanocyte, prone to metastasis

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101
Q

Necrosis

A

Area of tissue death

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102
Q

Nevus

A

Pigmented congenital skin blemish, birthmark, or mole

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103
Q

Nodule

A

Solid raised clump of cells

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104
Q

Onychia

A

Inflamed nail bed

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105
Q

Papule

A

Small solid raised lesion on surface of skin

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106
Q

Petechiae

A

Flat pinpoint purplish spots from bleeding under the skin

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107
Q

Pruritis

A

Severe itching

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108
Q

Psoriasis

A

Xhronic inflammatory oxidation consisting of crusty papules forming patches with circular borders

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109
Q

Purpura

A

Purplish red brushes usually lecturing in people with fragile skin

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110
Q

Pustule

A

Raised spot on the skin containing pus

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111
Q

Skin graft

A

Transfer of skinfrom normal area ot cover another site, used to treat burn victims and after some surgical procedures

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112
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A

Skin cancer that begins in epidermis but may grow into deeper tissue, doesn’t generally metasitize to other areas

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113
Q

Tinea

A

Fungal skin disease resulting in itching, scaling lesions

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114
Q

Ulcer

A

Open sore or lesion in skin kr mucous membranes

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115
Q

Urticaria (hives)

A

Skin eruption of pale reddish wheals with severe itching, usually associated with food allergy, stress, or drug reactions

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116
Q

Varicella (chickenpox)

A

Highly contagious viral infection with skin rash

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117
Q

Vesicle

A

Small fluid filled raised spot on skin

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118
Q

Wheal

A

Smal round raised area on skin that may be accompanied by itching, usually seen in allergic reactions

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119
Q

I&D

A

Incision and drainage

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120
Q

ID

A

Intradermal

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121
Q

SG

A

Skin graft

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122
Q

STSG

A

Split thickness skin graft

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123
Q

Ung

A

Ointment

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124
Q

Subc, subq

A

Subcutaneous

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125
Q

CHAPTER 6

A
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126
Q

Orthopedics

A

Medical specialty of the musculoskeletal system

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127
Q

Orthopedists

A

Use medical, surgical, and physical means to improve function of bones. Joints, and muscles

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128
Q

Orthopedists treat…

A

…birth defects, trauma, infection, tumor, inflammatory conditions, and muscular problems

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129
Q

The musculoskeletal system consists of…

A

…bones muscles and joints

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130
Q

Bones are joined by….

A

…ligaments to form the skeleton

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131
Q

What is the framework of the body?

A

The skeleton

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132
Q

Joints

A

-Where two bones meet
-joints provide flexibility for movement
-muscles are attached tk bones by tendons and contract to move bones at joints

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133
Q

Arthr/o

A

Joint

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134
Q

Burs/o

A

Bursa

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135
Q

Carp/o

A

Carpus

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136
Q

Chondr/o

A

Cartilage

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137
Q

Clavicul/o

A

Clavicle (collar bone)

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138
Q

Coccyg/o

A

Coccyx (tail bone)

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139
Q

Cost/o

A

Rib

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140
Q

Crani/o

A

Skull

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141
Q

Femor/o

A

Femur (thigh bone)

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142
Q

Fibul/o

A

Fibula

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143
Q

Humer/o

A

Humerus

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144
Q

Ili/o

A

Illium

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145
Q

Ischi/o

A

Ischium

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146
Q

Kyph/o

A

Hump

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147
Q

Lord/o

A

Bent backwards

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148
Q

Mandibul/o

A

Mandible

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149
Q

Maxill/o

A

Maxilla

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150
Q

Metacarp/o

A

Metacarpus

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151
Q

Metatars/o

A

Metatarsus

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152
Q

Muscul/o, my/o

A

Muscle

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153
Q

Myel/o

A

Bone marrow

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154
Q

Oste/o

A

Bone

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155
Q

Patell/o

A

Patella

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156
Q

Phalang/o

A

Phalanges

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157
Q

Pub/o

A

Pubis

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158
Q

Radi/o

A

Radius

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159
Q

Sacr/o

A

Sacrum

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160
Q

Scapul/o

A

Scapula (shoulder blade)

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161
Q

Scoli/o

A

Crooked, bent

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162
Q

Spondyl/o

A

Vertebra

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163
Q

Stern/o

A

Sternum

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164
Q

Tars/o

A

Tarsus

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165
Q

Ten/o, tendin/o

A

Tendon

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166
Q

Tibi/o

A

Tibia

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167
Q

Uln/o

A

Ulna

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168
Q

Vertebr/o

A

Vertebra

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169
Q

Electr/o

A

Ectricity

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170
Q

Fibr/o

A

Fibrous

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171
Q

Orth/o

A

Straight

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172
Q

Path/o

A

Disease

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173
Q

Fibrous joint

A

-United by fibrous tissue
-allow almost no movement
-ex. Suture of the skull

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174
Q

Cartilaginous joint

A

-connected by Cartilage
-allow only small amount of shifting
-ex. Pubis symphysis

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175
Q

Synovial joints

A

-encased in joint capsule
-allow range of motion
-ex. Knee or shoulder

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176
Q

Long bones

A

Longer than they are wide

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177
Q

Short bones

A

Roughly cube shaped

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178
Q

Flat bones

A

Plate shaped

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179
Q

Irregular bones

A

Unusual or complex shapes

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180
Q

What is bone?

A

-hard calcified connective tissue
-supports body, helps it move, and protects organs

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181
Q

Compact or cortical bone tissue

A

-dense hard exterior surface of bones

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182
Q

Spongy or cancellous bone tissue

A

Found inside bones and has many small spaces containing red bone marrow

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183
Q

Red bone marrow

A

Found in spongy bone and produces blood cells

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184
Q

Yellow bone marrow

A

Located in shaft of the bone and is made of adipose tissue

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185
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

Moves bones and is voluntary

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186
Q

Smooth muscle

A

Produces movement in organs and is involuntary

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187
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

produces movement in the heart and is involuntary

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188
Q

Iliac

A

Pertaining to Ilium

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189
Q

Subiliac

A

Pertaining to under the ilium

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190
Q

Intercostal

A

Pertaining to between ribs

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191
Q

Carpal

A

Pertaining to wrist

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192
Q

Jntervertebral

A

Pertaining to between vertebra

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193
Q

Fibular

A

Pertaining to fibula

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194
Q

Arthroscopy

A

Process of visually examining a joint

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195
Q

Arthrodesis

A

Surgical fusing of a joint

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196
Q

Arthrogram

A

Record of joint

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197
Q

Supramaxillary

A

Pertaining to above maxilla

198
Q

Bursitis

A

Bursa inflammation

199
Q

Chondromalacia

A

Abnormal softening of Cartilage

200
Q

Chondroma

A

Cartilage tumor

201
Q

Spondylosis

A

Abnormal condition of a vertebra

202
Q

Tenorrhaphy

A

To suture a tendon

203
Q

Tendinosis

A

Abnormal condition of a tendon

204
Q

Bone graft

A

Surgical procedure using pieces of bone to replace lost bone or fuse two bones together

205
Q

Bone scan

A

Nuclear medicine scan using Radioactive dye to visualize bone. Useful for finding stress fractures and bone cancer

206
Q

Bunion

A

Inflammation and enlargement of bursa of first metatarsophalangeal joint (base of big toe)

207
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

A

Repetitive motion disorder caused by pressure on tendons and nerves as they pass through the carpal tunnel of wrist

208
Q

Closed fracture (simple fracture)

A

Broken bone with no open skin wound

209
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone break where the bones shatter in small pieces

210
Q

Compound fracture (open fracture)

A

Broken bone with open skin wound

211
Q

Compression fracture

A

Bone break causing loss of height of a vertebral body, may result from trauma but in older person may because by weakened bone (osteoporosis)

212
Q

Contracture

A

Abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or connective tissue making it difficult to stretch muscle

213
Q

Creatine kinase (CK)

A

Muscle enzyme found in skeletal and cardiac muscle, elevated blood levels are associated with heart attack, muscular dystrophy, and othe skeletal muscle pathologies

214
Q

Deep tendon reflex (DTR)

A

Involuntary muscle contraction in response to striking muscle tendon with a reflex hammer, test to determine if muscles respond properly

215
Q

Dislocation

A

Bones in joint are displaced form normal alignment and ends of the bones are no longer in contact with each other

216
Q

Dual energy absorptiometry (DXA)

A

Test using low dose xray beams to measure bone density, used to diagnose osteoporosis

217
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

Chronic condition with widespread arching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue

218
Q

Fixation

A

Procedure to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals, external fixation includes casts, splints, and pins inserted through skin, internal fixation includes pins, plates, rods, screws, and wires put in place during surgery called open reduction

219
Q

Fracture (fx)

A

Broken bone

220
Q

Ganglion cyst

A

Formation of cyst in the sheath covering a tendon, frequently seen on hand, wrist, or ankle

221
Q

Gout

A

Type of arthritis consisting of pain and swelling at joint between big toe and forefoot caused by body depositing crystals of uric acid (metabolic waste product) in soft tissues more common in men

222
Q

Greenstone fracture

A

Fracture with incomplete break, kne side of the bone breaks and the other side only bends, commonly seen in children because their bones are still pliable

223
Q

Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP) (herniated disk or ruptured disk)

A

Protrusion of intervertebral disk between two vertebrae putting pressure on spinal nerves, may required surgery

224
Q

Impacted fracture

A

One bone fragment is pushed into another

225
Q

Kyphosis (hunchback) (humpback)

A

Abnormal jncrease in normal outward curvature of thoracic spine

226
Q

Lordosis (swayback)

A

Abnormal increase in normal forward curvature of the lumbar spine

227
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

Diagnostic imaging technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce an image; especially useful for viewing soft tissues such as spinal cord and intervertebral disks

228
Q

Muscle atrophy (muscle wasting)

A

Loss of muscle due to disease (muscle or nervous system), or lack of use

229
Q

Muscular dystrophy (MD)

A

One of a group of Inherited disease involving progressive muscle Degeneration, weakness, atrophy

230
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)

A

Large group of drugs that provide mild pain relief and anti-inflammatory benefits for conditions such as arthritis

231
Q

Oblique fracture

A

Bone break where fractureine runs along angle to shaft of the bone

232
Q

Orthosis

A

Externally applied brace or splint to prevent or correct deformities

233
Q

Orthotist

A

Person skilled in making and adjusting orthoses

234
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)

A

Arthritis caused by loss of Cartilage cushion covering bones in a joint, most common jn weight bearing joints, results in bone rubbing against bone

235
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Condition that develops due to decrease in bone mass results in thinning and weakening of the bone. May lead to pathological fractures, most commonly seen in older women

236
Q

Osteogenic sarcoma

A

Most common type of bone cancer. Usually begins jn osteocytes found at the ends of bones. Most frequently occurs in ages 10-25

237
Q

Pathological fracture

A

Broken bone caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma

238
Q

Percutaneous diskectomy

A

Thin catheter tube is inserted into intervertebral disk through skin to suck out pieces of herniated or ruptured disk. May involve a laser used to vaporize disk

239
Q

Prosthesis

A

Any artificial device used as a substitute for a body part that is either missing from birth or lost as the result of an accident or disease for example an artificial leg a prosthetist is person trained in making prostitutes

240
Q

Radiography

A

Diagnostic imaging procedure using x-rays to see internal structures of the body especially useful for visualizing bones and joints

241
Q

Reduction

A

Correcting a fracture or dislocation by realigning bone closed reduction moves bones externally open reduction manipulates bones erase surgical incision open reduction is usually performed before internal fixation of bone fragments

242
Q

Repetitive motion disorder

A

Group of chronic disorders with tendon muscle joint and nerve damage caused by prolonged periods of pressure vibration or repetitive movements

243
Q

Almatoid arthritis (RA)

A

Arthritis with swelling stiffness pain and the generational cartilage in joints caused by chronic soft tissue inflammation may result in crippling deformities and autoimmune disease

244
Q

Rotator cuff injury

A

Rotate a cuff is the elastic capsule around the shoulder joint reinforced by tendons of several shoulder muscles because shoulder is so loose and flexible it is at high risk for rotator cuff tearing may be caused by older use or trauma

245
Q

Scoliosis

A

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

246
Q

Spasm

A

Sudden involuntary strong muscle contraction

247
Q

Spina bifida

A

Birth defect when a vertebra fails to fully form around the spinal cord ranges from mild to severe if the spinal cord is damaged paralysis results

248
Q

Spinal fracture

A

Bone break in which the fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone caused by twisting injury often slower to heal than other types of fractures

249
Q

Sprain

A

Ligament injury from overstretching but without joint dislocation or bone fracture

250
Q

Strain

A

Damage to the muscle or tendon’s from over use or over stretching

251
Q

Stress fracture

A

A slight bonebreak caused by repetitive low impact forces such as running rather than single force will impact

252
Q

Torticollis (crick in the neck) (wrynneck)

A

Neck spasm severe enough to pull head to one side

253
Q

total hip arthroplasty (THA), total hip replacement (THR)

A

Surgical reconstruction of the hip with an artificial hip joint

254
Q

Total knee arthroplasty (TKA), Totla knee replacement (TKR)

A

Surgical reconstruction of a knee joint with an artificial knee joint

255
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Bonebreak with the fractured line straight across the shaft of the bone

256
Q

AE

A

Above elbow

257
Q

AK

A

Above knee

258
Q

BDT

A

Bone density testing

259
Q

BE

A

Below Elbow

260
Q

BK

A

Below knee

261
Q

BMD

A

Bone mineral density

262
Q

C1, c2, etc

A

First cervical vertebra, second cervical vertebra, etc

263
Q

Ca

A

Calcium

264
Q

CK

A

Creatine kinase

265
Q

CTS

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

266
Q

DJD

A

Degenerative joint disease

267
Q

DXA

A

Dual energy x ray absorptiometry

268
Q

EMG

A

Electromyogram

269
Q

IM

A

Intramuscular

270
Q

HNP

A

Herniated nucleus pulposus

271
Q

JRA

A

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

272
Q

L1, l2, etc

A

First lumbar vertebra, etc

273
Q

LE

A

Lower extremity

274
Q

LLE

A

Left lower extremity

275
Q

LUE

A

Left upper extremity

276
Q

OA

A

Osteoarthritis

277
Q

ORF

A

Open reduction internal fixation

278
Q

Orth, ortho

A

Orthopedics

279
Q

RLE

A

Right lower extremity

280
Q

RUE

A

Right upper extremity

281
Q

T1, t2, etc

A

First thoracic vertebra, etc

282
Q

UE

A

Upper extremity

283
Q

CHAPTER 7

A
284
Q

Cardiology

A

-Study of the cardiovascular system
- Involve the diagnosis and treatment of cardiovascular diseases and conditions

285
Q

Cardiologists treat…

A

… Coronary artery disease, congenital heart defects, myocardial on function

286
Q

Cardiovascular technologists…

A

… Perform or assist with diagnostic and therapeutic procedures

287
Q

The cardiovascular system consists of:

A

-heart
-blood vessels

288
Q

The heart

A

Cardiac muscle tissue that pushes blood through the vessels

289
Q

Three types of blood vessels

A
  • Arteries carry blood away from the heart
  • capillaries are the point of exchange with tissues
    -veins carried blood back to the heart
290
Q

Angio

A

Vessel

291
Q

Aorto

A

Aorta

292
Q

Areterio

A

Artery

293
Q

Arteriolo

A

Ateriole

294
Q

Athero

A

Fatty substance, plaque

295
Q

Cardio, corono

A

Heart

296
Q

Embolo

A

Plug

297
Q

Ischo

A

To hold back

298
Q

Phlebo

A

Vein

299
Q

Sphygmo

A

Pulse

300
Q

Sthetho

A

Chest

301
Q

Thrombo

A

Clot

302
Q

Valvo, valvulo

A

Valve

303
Q

Varico

A

Dilated vein

304
Q

Vaso, vasculo

A

Blood vessel

305
Q

Veno

A

Vein

306
Q

Ventriculo

A

Ventricle

307
Q

Venulo

A

Venule

308
Q

Cutaneo

A

Skin

309
Q

Sono

A

Sound

310
Q

Pulmono

A

Lung

311
Q

Organs commonly treated in cardiology

A

-Arteries carry blood away from the heart and toward a capillary bed
- the arterial wall contains a thick layer of smooth muscle and can contract or relax
-The lumen is the channel inside the vessel that carries the blood
- most arteries carry oxygenatedd but the arteries from the heart to the lungs carried deoxygenated blood

312
Q

Cont.

A

-Capillary’s connect arteries to veins
-groups of capillaries form capillary beds
-the capillary bed is the place where blood gives up oxygen and nutrients takes on a waste
- capillary walls are very dense of facilitate this change

313
Q

Cont.

A

-Veins carry blood away from the capillary bed and toward the heart
-vein walls have a thin layer of smooth muscle
-venous valves prevent the backflow and pooling of blood
-most veins carry the oxygenated blood but the veins from the lungs to the heart carry oxygenated blood

314
Q

Cont.

A
  • The heart is composed of myocardium that contracts to push blood through vessels
    -a thin layer of smooth endocardium lines the heart and reduces friction
    -the septum divides the heart into right and left sides
    *the right side pumps blood to the lungs
  • the left side pumps blood to the body
315
Q

The heart is divided into upper and lower chambers

A

-The atria are upper chambers that receive blood
- the ventricles are lower chambers is that popular

316
Q

4 valves control flow of blood in the heart

A

-2 valves are located between the upper and lower chambers
- 2 valves are located between the lower chambers and the arteries

317
Q

Angiogram

A

Record of a vessel

318
Q

Angioma

A

Vessel tumor

319
Q

Angio spasm

A

Involuntary muscle spasm in a vessel

320
Q

Aortic

A

Pertaining to the Aorta

321
Q

Arteriorrhexis

A

Ruptured artery

322
Q

Arterial

A

Pertaining to an artery

323
Q

Arteriole

A

Small artery

324
Q

Arteriolar

A

Pertaining to an arteriole

325
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

hardening of plaque

326
Q

Atherectomy

A

Is surgical removal of plaque

327
Q

Interarterial

A

Pertaining to between the atria

328
Q

Artrioventricular

A

Is pertaining to the atrium and ventrical

329
Q

Cardiodynia

A

Heart pain

330
Q

Pericardial

A

Pretending to around the heart

331
Q

Coronary

A

Pertaining to the heart

332
Q

Embolism

A

Is state of having an embolus

333
Q

Ischemia

A

Condition of blood being held back

334
Q

Phlebogram

A

Record Of a vein

335
Q

Phlebography

A

Process of recording a vein

336
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

Hardening of an artery

337
Q

Sthethoscope

A

Instrument for viewing and listening to the chest

338
Q

Thrombolysis

A

Destroy a clot

339
Q

Thrombotic

A

Pertaining to a clot

340
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

Inflammation of vein with clots

341
Q

Valvule

A

Small valve

342
Q

Valvulitis

A

Inflammation of a vein

343
Q

Varicose

A

Pertaining to varicosity

344
Q

Vasospasm

A

Involuntary muscle contraction of a blood vessel

345
Q

Cardiovascular

A

Pertaining to the heart and blood vessels

346
Q

Intravenous

A

Pertaining to within a vein

347
Q

Intraventricular

A

Pertaining to between ventricles

348
Q

Venular

A

Pertaining to a venule

349
Q

Aneurysm

A

Localized widening of an artery due to a weakness in the arterial wall, may develop in an artery but common sites are the abdominal aorta and the cerebral arteries

350
Q

Angina pectoris

A

Is severe chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia

351
Q

Antilipidemic

A

Medication that reduces amount of cholesterol and lipids in thebloodstream

352
Q

Anti platelet agents

A

Medication that inhibits ability of platelets to clump together as part of a blood

353
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Irregular heartbeat

354
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening to sounds within body such as heart or lungs by using sthethoscope

355
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening to sounds within body such as heart or lungs by using sthethoscope

356
Q

Bacterial Endocarditis

A

Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart ( the endoCardium) caused by bacteria May result in visible accumulation of bacterial called vegetation

357
Q

Beta blocker drugs

A

Medication used to treat hypertension and angina pectoris by lowering heart rate

358
Q

Blood pressure (BP)

A

-Measurement of the pressure exerted by blood against walls of blood vessel
-reported as 2 numbers such as 120 / 80 top number is systolic pressure in which represents pressure in blood vessels while heart is contracting, bottom number is diastolic pressure which represents pressure in blood vessels while heart is relaxing
-systolic pressure is always higher than diastolic pressure

359
Q

Brady cardia

A

I’ve normally slow heart rate below 60 beats per minute (bpm)

360
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

Complete stoppage of all her activity both electrical signals and muscle contractions

361
Q

Cardiac catheterization (heart cath)

A

-Passage of a thin tube called a catheter through the veins or arteries leading into the heart
-used to detect heart abnormalities ,to collect cardiac blood samples ,and to determine pressure within the heart

362
Q

Cardiac biomarkers

A

-Complex proteins released by heart muscles when it is damaged
- taken by blood sample to determine amount of heart disease or damage
- most common cardiac biomarkers are a creatine kinase (CK) and troponin

363
Q

Cardio pulmonary resuscitation (cpr)

A

Combination of the external compression to the sternum and rescue breathing to maintain blood flow and air movement in-and-out of the lungs during cardiac and respiratory arrest

364
Q

Congenital septal defect (csd)

A

-Birth defect in the wall separating the 2 chambers of the heart allowing blood to pass between the 2 chambers
-there can be an atrial septal defect (asd) or ventricular septal defect (vsd)

365
Q

Congestive heart failure (CHF)

A

Condition that develops when the heart muscle is not able to pump blood forcefully enough reducing blood flow to the body and resulting in weakness, dyspnea and edema

366
Q

coronary artery bypass graft (cabg)

A

Open heart surgery in which a blood vessel often a leg vein is grafted to route blood around an occluded coronary artery

367
Q

coronary artery disease (CAD), arteriosclerosis heart disease (ashd)

A

Chronic heart disease caused by arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis of coronary arteries

368
Q

deep vain thrombosis (dvt)

A

Formation of blood clots in deep veins, usually occurs in legs, pieces of clots may break away forming emboli

369
Q

Defibrillation (cardioversion)

A

Using an instrument called the defibrillator to give an electrical shock to the heart for the purpose of converting an arrhythmia back to a normal heartbeat

370
Q

Doppler ultrasonography

A

Imaging technique using ultrasound to create a moving image utilized to evaluate blood flow through blood vessels, movement of heart valves, and movement of the heart muscle during a contraction

371
Q

Electrocardiography

A

Diagnostic procedure that records electrical activity of the heart, used to diagnose damage to heart tissue from coronary artery disease or myocardial infarction

372
Q

Endarterectomy

A

Surgical removal of the inner lining of an artery in order to remove plaque

373
Q

Fibrillation

A

Abnormal quivering or contractions of heart fibers, occurrence within fibers of ventricle of heart may result in cardiac arrest and death, emergency equipment to defibrilate or convert heart to normal beat is necessary

374
Q

Heart murmur

A

Abnormal heart sound such as soft blowing sound or harsh click, may be soft and heard only with sthethoscope or so loud it can be heard several feet away

375
Q

Heart transplant

A

Replacement of a diseased or malfunctioning heart with a donor heart

376
Q

heart false prolapse

A

Cusps or flaps of the heart valve are too loose and fail to shut tightly allowing blood to flow backward called regurgitation through the valve when the heart chamber’s contracts most commonly occurs in the Mitral valve but may affect any heart valve

377
Q

Heart valves stenosis

A

Cusps or flaps of the heart valve are too stiff and unable to open fully making it difficult for blood to flow through, condition may affect any of the heart valves but most often affects the mittal valve

378
Q

Holter monitor

A

Portable EKG monitor worn by a patient for a period of few hours to a few days to assess heart and pulse activity as the person goes through activities of daily living, used to assess a patient who experiences chest pain and unusual heart activity during exercise and normal activities

379
Q

Hyperyension (htn)

A

Blood pressure above the normal range usually systolic above 130 or diastolic above 80

380
Q

Hypotension

A

Blood pressure lower than 90 / 60, can occur in shock ,infection ,cancer ,anemia or as death approaches

381
Q

Implantable cardioverter defibrillator ICD

A

Electrical device implanted in the chest cavity with electrodes to the heart , applies a shock to the heart to stop potentially life threatening arrhythmias such as fibrillation

382
Q

Infarct

A

Area of tissue necrosis that develops from ischemia

383
Q

Intravascular thrombolitic therapy (clot busters)

A

Treatment for clots occluding a blood vessel, drugs such as streptokinase (SK) or tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) are injected into blood vessels to chemically dissolve clots

384
Q

Myocardial infarction MI (heart attack)

A

Infarct of the heart muscle caused by ocllusion of one or more of the coronary arteries, symptoms include angina pectores, and shortness of breath

385
Q

Myocardial ischemia

A

Loss of blood supply to heart muscle tissue of the myocardium due to ocllusion of a coronary artery , may cause and angina pectoris or mycardial infarction

386
Q

Occlusion

A

Blockage of blood vessel or other hollow structure and may be caused by a thrombus plaque or an embolus

387
Q

Pacemaker

A

Electrical device that artificially stimulates contraction of the heart muscle , treatment for BradycardiA

388
Q

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty PTCA

A

Method for treating coronary artery narrowing , a balloon catheter is inserted into a coronary artery and inflated to dilate a narrow blood vessel

389
Q

Peripheral vascular disease PVD

A

Disease of the blood vessels away from the central region of the body, most typically and the legs , symptoms include pain ,numbness, and impaired circulation

390
Q

Sphygmomanometer, Blood pressure cuff

A

Instrument for measuring blood pressure

391
Q

Stent

A

Stainless steel 2 placed within a Blood vessel or duct to widen the lumen, May be placed in a coronary artery to treat myocardial ischemia due to athersclerosis

392
Q

Tachycardia

A

Abnormally fast heart rate greater than a 100 beats per minute

393
Q

Transesophageal echocardiography TEE

A

Specialized echocardiography procedure in which the patient swallows an ultrasound head in order to better visualize internal cardiac structures especially cardiac valves

394
Q

Stress test

A

Patient is placed on a treadmill or bicycle and then subjected to steadily increasing levels of work , EKG and oxygen levels are taken while the patient exercises , the test is stopped if abnormalities occur on the EKG , if person is unable to tolerate exercise then a chemical stress test is performed , during this test a drug is given that dilates blood vessels and increases heart rate and blood pressure while person lies still

395
Q

Varicose veins

A

Swollen and distended veins most commonly in legs

396
Q

Venipuncture

A

Puncture into vein to withdraw blood or inject medication or fluids

397
Q

ACG

A

Angiocardiography

398
Q

AF, a-fib

A

Atrial fibrillation

399
Q

AS

A

Arteriosclerosis

400
Q

ASCDV

A

Arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease

401
Q

ASD

A

Atrial septal defect

402
Q

ASHD

A

Aterioscelrotic heart disease

403
Q

AV, A-V

A

Atrioventricular

404
Q

CCU

A

Coronary care unit

405
Q

CP

A

Chest pain

406
Q

CSD

A

Congenital Septal defect

407
Q

LVH

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

408
Q

MmHg

A

Mm of mercury

409
Q

MVP

A

Mitral valve prolapse

410
Q

NSR

A

Normal sinus rhythm

411
Q

P

A

Pulse

412
Q

PVC

A

Premature ventricular contraction

413
Q

SA, S-A

A

Sinoatrial

414
Q

VSD

A

Ventricular septal defect

415
Q

VT, V-Tach

A

Ventricular tachycardia

416
Q

CHAPTER 8

A
417
Q

Hematology

A

-study of blood
-diagnosis and treatment of Disorders of the blood and blood forming tissues

418
Q

Hematologists…

A

…- Treat bleeding disorders, cancers of the blood forming tissues, and anemia -they interpret blood test and understand transfusion science

419
Q

Components of blood

A

55% of blood is watery plasma
-glucose, amino acids, and hormones are transported by plasma
-electrolytes are also in plasma
45% of blood is formed elements
-3 types are erythrocytes, luekocytes, and platelets
-formed elements are created through hematopoiesis

420
Q

Erythrocytes (RBCs)

A

They contain hemoglobin
-hemoglobin is an oxygen transporting protein
-it gives erythrocytes the red color
fatigue occurs with the lack of hemoglobin
- lack of hemoglobin means too little oxygen to tissues
- extreme cases can lead to coma or death

421
Q

Leukocytes (WBCs)

A

-They are an important defense against disease
-there are 5 types
* neutraphils
*basophils
*eosinophils
*monocytes
*lymphocytes

422
Q

Platelets (thrombocytes)

A

-They are fragments of larger cells
-they facilitate the blood clotting process (hemostasis)

423
Q

Baso

A

Base

424
Q

Coagulo

A

Clotting

425
Q

Eosino

A

Rosy red

426
Q

Erythro

A

Red

427
Q

Hemo, hemato

A

Blood

428
Q

Leuko

A

White

429
Q

Lympho

A

Lymph

430
Q

Neutro

A

Neutral

431
Q

Thrombo

A

Clot

432
Q

Glyco

A

Sugar

433
Q

Embolo

A

Plug

434
Q

Myelo

A

Bone marrow

435
Q

Phlebo

A

Vein

436
Q

Erythrocyte

A

Red cell

437
Q

Thrombocyte

A

Clotting cell

438
Q

Leukocytosis

A

Abnormal condition (too many) in white cells

439
Q

Anemia

A

Condition of being without blood

440
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

Blood condition with excessive sugar

441
Q

Hemocyte

A

Blood cell

442
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Blood protein

443
Q

Hematology

A

Study of blood

444
Q

Hematoma

A

Blood mass

445
Q

Hematocytopenia

A

Too few blood cells

446
Q

Pancytopenia

A

Too few of all cells

447
Q

Neutropenia

A

Too few neutral cells

448
Q

Basophil

A

Attracted to basic (stain)

449
Q

Thrombopoiesis

A

Formation of clotting cells

450
Q

Thrombolysis

A

To Destroy a clot

451
Q

Anemia

A

Group of blood disorders involving either a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes or the amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues

452
Q

Anticoagulant

A

Any substance that prevents cloth formation

453
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Severe form of anemia caused by loss of functioning red bone marrow resulting in a decrease in the number of all blood cells and may require a bone marrow transplant

454
Q

Autotransfusion

A

Collecting and storing one’s own blood to use to replace blood loss during surgery

455
Q

Blood analyzer

A

Machine that automatically performs multiple blood chemistry tests such as complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and blood clotting tests

456
Q

Is blood culture and sensitivity (C&S)

A

Blood specimen is incubated to check for bacterial growth and if bacteria are present they are identified and best antibiotic treatment is determined

457
Q

Blood transfusion

A

Transfer of blood from one person to another

458
Q

Bone marrow aspiration

A

Removal of a small sample of bone marrow by needle for examination for diseases such as leukemia or aplastic anemia

459
Q

Bone marrow transplant BMT

A

Patient receives redbone marrow donation after his or her own bone marrow is destroyed by radiation or chemo therapy

460
Q

Coagulate

A

Formation of a blood clot

461
Q

Complete blood count cbc

A

Comprehensive blood test that includes red blood cell count, white blood cell count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, white blood cell differential, and platelet count

462
Q

Embolus (floating clot)

A

Usually a piece of authoromous that breaks away and floats through the bloodstream until it lodges in a smaller blood vessel and blocks blood flow

463
Q

ERYTHROCYTE seDImentation rate (ESR, sED rate)

A

Blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of a blood to form sediment in the bottom of a test tube and indicates presence of inflammatory disease

464
Q

Hematocrit (HCT, crit)

A

Blood test that measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood

465
Q

Hematoma (bruise)

A

Collection of blood Under the Skin as a result of blood escaping and sensitivity from a damaged blood vessel

466
Q

Hemoglobin (hgb, hb)

A

Blood test that measures the amount of hemoglobin present in a given volume of blood

467
Q

Hemophilia

A

Inherited lack of a vital clotting factor resulting in an almost complete inability to stop bleeding

468
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

Anemia resulting when there is not enough iron to build hemoglobin from the red blood cells

469
Q

Leukemia

A

Cancer of Leukocyte forming red bone marrow, the patient has a large number of abnormal and immature Leukocytes circulating in the blood

470
Q

Pernicious anemia (PA)

A

Anemia resulting on the digestive system absorbs an insufficient amount of vitamin B12 , vitamin B12 is necessary for erythrocyte production

471
Q

Phlebotomy (venipuncture)

A

Removal of a blood specimen from a vein for laboratory tests

472
Q

Platelet count

A

Blood test that determines the number of platelets in a given volume of blood

473
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

Condition characterized by too many erythrocytes, the blood becomes too thick to easily flow through the blood vessels

474
Q

Prothrombine time (pro time, pt)

A

Blood test that measures how long it takes for a clot to form after prothrombin (a blood clothing protein) is activated

475
Q

Red blood cell count rbc

A

Blood test that determines the number of erythrocytes in a volume of blood , a decrease may indicate anemia and increase may indicate polycythemia Vera

476
Q

Septicemia (blood poisoning)

A

Presence of bacteria or their toxins in the bloodstream

477
Q

Serum

A

Blood that has formed elements and clotting factors removed

478
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Inherited blood disorder in which RBC’s take on abnormal curved or sickle shapes, cells are fragile and easily damaged resulting in anemia occurring almost exclusively in African descent

479
Q

Thalassemia

A

Inherited blood disorder in which the body is unable to correctly make hemoglobin resulting in anemia

480
Q

Thrombolytic therapy

A

Administering medications that dissolve a blood clot and restore normal circulation

481
Q

White blood cell count WBC

A

Blood test that determines a number of leukocytes in a volume of blood, an increase may indicate infection or leukemia and a decrease may be caused by some diseases, radiation therapy, or chemotherapy

482
Q

White blood cell differential (diff)

A

Blood test that determines the number of each type of leukocyte

483
Q

Basos

A

Basophils

484
Q

Eosins, eos

A

Eosinophils

485
Q

Monos

A

Monocytes

486
Q

Lymphs

A

Lymphocytes

487
Q

PMN, polys

A

Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

488
Q

Rh+

A

Rh positive

489
Q

Rh-

A

Rh negative

490
Q

Segs

A

Segmented neutrophils