Exam 2 Del Greco

Question 1

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column?
A)  Sacral
B)  Lumbar
C)  Thoracic
D)  Coccyx

Answer 1

C) Thoracic

Question 2

The bones of the forearm are called the:
A)  radius and ulna.
B)  tibia and radius.
C)  humerus and ulna.
D)  radius and humerus.

Answer 2

A) radius and ulna

Question 3

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called:
A)  carpals.
B)  metacarpals.
C)  phalanges.
D)  metatarsals

Answer 3

C) phalanges

Question 4

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
A)  tibia.
B)  patella.
C)  femur.
D)  calcaneus

Answer 4

B) patella

Question 5

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
A)  osmosis.
B)  breathing.
C)  diffusion.
D)  ventilation.

Answer 5

C) diffusion

Question 6

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) a reduction in tidal volume. 
B) respirations of 18 breaths/min.
C) bilaterally clear breath sounds.
D) rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.

Answer 6

A) a reduction in tidal volume

Question 7

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:
A)  epicardium.
B)  myocardium.
C)  pericardium.
D)  endocardium.

Answer 7

B) myocardium

Question 8

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
A) pulmonary veins. 
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) inferior venae cavae.
D) superior venae cavae.

Answer 8

A) pulmonary veins

Question 9

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
A)  liver.
B)  spleen.
C)  kidney.
D)  pancreas.

Answer 9

B) spleen

Question 10

What is the function of platelets?
A) Initial formation of a blood clot 
B) Transport of oxygen and nutrients
C) Defense against invading organisms
D) Transport of cellular waste materials

Answer 10

A) Initial formation of a blood clot

Question 11

The largest portion of the brain is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is commonly referred to as the “gray 
matter.”
A)  cerebrum
B)  cerebellum
C)  brain stem
D) diencephalon

Answer 11

A) cerebrum

Question 12

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
A)  kidneys.
B)  pancreas.
C)  stomach.
D)  gallbladder

Answer 12

D) gallbladder

Question 13

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause:
A) vascular dilation and bradycardia.
B) vascular constriction and bradycardia.
C) vascular dilation and tachycardia.
D) vascular constriction and tachycardia.

Answer 13

D) vascular constriction and tachycardia

Question 14

A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between:
A) 60 and 120 mm Hg. 
B) 70 and 140 mm Hg. 
C) 80 and 120 mm Hg.
D) 90 and 140 mm Hg.

Answer 14

D) 90 and 140 mm Hg

Question 15

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
A) Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
B) Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
C) Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
D) Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

Answer 15

A) Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Question 16

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A)  ventricles
B)  cranial valleys
C)  sutures
D)  fontanelles

Answer 16

D) fontanelles

Question 17

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________.
A) normal B) too fast C) too slow D) too shallow

Answer 17

A) Normal

Question 18

Atherosclerosis is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) constriction of the blood vessels 
B) the blockage of a coronary artery
C) the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
D) dilation of the arteries

Answer 18

B) the blockage of a coronary artery

Question 19

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
A)  12–20 breaths/min
B)  15–30 breaths/min
C)  25–50 breaths/min
D)  40–60 breaths/min

Answer 19

A) 12–20 breaths/min

Question 20

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
B) increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
C) decreased residual volume.
D) increased surface area available for air exchange.

Answer 20

D) increased surface area available for air exchange.

Question 21

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
A) flexing your body at the knees.
B) the use of more than two EMTs.
C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
D) the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

Answer 21

C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

Question 22

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious
in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner
notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST
appropriate action?
A) Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence.
B) Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.
C) Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients.
D) Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

Answer 22

D) Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

Question 23

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
A) back is bent forward at the hips.
B) hands are held close to the legs.
C) shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.
D) force is exerted straight down the spine.

Answer 23

A) back is bent forward at the hips

Question 24

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
A) flex at the waist instead of the hips.
B) avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
C) use a direct carry whenever possible.
D) keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Answer 24

D) keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Question 25

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
A) unnecessarily wasting time. 
B) injury to you or your patient
C) causing patient anxiety or fear.
D) confusion among team members.

Answer 25

B) injury to you or your patient

Question 26

It is essential that you \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
A)  throw out
B)  decontaminate
C)  incinerate
D)  properly store

Answer 26

B) decontaminate

Question 27

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C) A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Answer 27

D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Question 28

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
A) remove all bystanders. 
B) request another ambulance. 
C) move the patient to safety.
D) ensure that you are safe.

Answer 28

D) ensure that you are safe.

Question 29

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius 
muscle is pinched, is said to be:
A) conscious and alert. 
B) completely unresponsive. 
C) responsive to verbal stimuli.
D) responsive to painful stimuli

Answer 29

D) responsive to painful stimuli

Question 30

After performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who
has a pulse, you should:
A) place him or her in the recovery position.
B) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.
C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.
D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

Answer 30

D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

Question 31

When a patient’s respirations are shallow:
A) chest rise will be easily noticeable.
B) tidal volume is markedly reduced.
C) oxygenation occurs more efficiently.
D) carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

Answer 31

B) tidal volume is markedly reduced.

Question 32

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
A) Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.
B) Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.
C) Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.
D) Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

Answer 32

B) Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

Question 33

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
A) pink, warm, and dry. 
B) pale, cool, and moist. 
C) pink, warm, and moist.
D) flushed, cool, and dry.

Answer 33

A) pink, warm, and dry.

Question 34

As time progresses following a significant injury:
A) the patient’s blood pressure elevates significantly.
B) the patient’s injuries will most likely be irreparable.
C) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.
D) the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Answer 34

D) the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Question 35

Which of the following patient responses would establish the “E” in the SAMPLE history?
A) “I was in the hospital a week ago.”
B) “I am not having any difficulty breathing.”
C) “The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago.”
D) “I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

Answer 35

D) “I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

Question 36

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
A)  radiating.
B)  referred.
C)  palliating.
D)  provoking

Answer 36

A) radiating

Question 37

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
A) detect and treat all non–life-threatening injuries.
B) assess only the parts of the body that are injured.
C) definitively rule out significant internal injuries.
D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

Answer 37

D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

Question 38

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
A)  blood pressure.
B)  systolic pressure.
C)  diastolic pressure.
D)  pulse pressure.

Answer 38

B) systolic pressure

Question 39

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the 
patient to:
A) wiggle his or her toes on command.
B) feel you touching the extremity. 
C) note any changes in temperature.
D) identify different types of stimuli.

Answer 39

A) wiggle his or her toes on command.

Question 40

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:
A) in a supine position.
B) in a prone position.
C) in a recumbent position.
D) sitting up at a 45° angle.

Answer 40

D) sitting up at a 45° angle.