EXAM 2- immunity Flashcards

1
Q

6 roles of innate immunity

A

enhances chemotaxis
enhances phagocytosis
mediates inflammation
destroys pathogens
increases cell lysis
increases vascular permeability

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2
Q

igM

A

forms antibodies to ABO - involved in primary response to pathogen

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3
Q

igA

A

lines mucous membranes

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4
Q

igD

A

differentiates B lymphocytes

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5
Q

igG

A

secondary pathogen response - cross placenta

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6
Q

primary vs secondary response to pathogen

A

primary: igG and igM raise
secondary: igG raises drastically

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7
Q

3 organs of immune

A

BM makes lymphocytes
lymph nodes filter material
spleen filters antigens

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8
Q

immune cascade

A
  1. macrophade englufs virus and displays antigens on surface
  2. T helper cells notice and bind releasing cytokines (IL1)
  3. this signals tcytoxic cells and Thelper cells to proliferate
  4. Thelper cells release cytokines (IL2)
  5. B cells proliferate into plasma cells and B memory cells
  6. plasma cells produce antibodies and the antibody attach to antigen on virus to mark it for destruction
    ALSO
  7. Tcyto and NK cells attack cell with antigen
    7,. macrophages destory pathogens
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9
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity
- what type of response
- what is binding/releasing
- is there a skin test?
- name 5 disorders

A

-humoral
-IgE binds to mast cells and release histamine
-yes, wheal and flare
-allergies, asthma, uticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis

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10
Q

anaphylaxis
- type of rxn
-type of response
- first signs
-4 s/s of shock
-treatment - what is on metoprolol?

A

humoral
hypersensitivity 1
edema at site and itching
-hypotension, dilated pupils, rapid and weak pulse, dyspnea
- epi but glucagon is on BB

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11
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity
- what type of response
- what is binding/releasing
- is there a skin test?
- name 3 disorders
- tx

A

humoral

igM and igG binds to antigen on cell surface and complement is activated

no skin test

transfusion rxn, good pasture, graves

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12
Q

what to do if someone is having dypnea, weak rapid pulse, hypotension

A

epi or glucagon

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13
Q

what to do if someone has a fever, sweating, tachycardic, bloody urine

A

transfusion rxn so stop transfusion

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14
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity
- what type of response
- what is binding/releasing
- is there a skin test?
- name 3 disorders
- tx

A

humoral

igM and igG binds to free antigens

complement activated

no skin test

SLE, RA, glomerulonephritis (AI)

immunospuressants, plasmapheresis

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15
Q

type 4 hypersensitivity
- what type of response
- what is binding/releasing
- is there a skin test?
- name 3 disorders
- tx

A

cell mediated

t cells attack antigens

TB skin test

contact dermatitis like poison ivy

corticosteroids (bc of inflammation)

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16
Q

what is plasmapheresis
when is it used
3 SE and how to prevent them

A

replaces plasma with saline, LR, albumin
used for AI when meds dont work

albumin replacement can deplete immunoglobulin stores for weeks

hypotension- give slowly and vasalvagal

citrate toxicity

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17
Q

what to do if someone has hypocalcemia, dizziness, HA, parasthesia

A

citrate toxicity, stop plasmapheresis?

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18
Q

what do all hypersens. rxs need

A

sensitivity to antigen that results in a primary and secondary response

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19
Q

examples of humoral (3) and cell mediated infections(4)

A

h: anaphylaxis, transfusion rxn, bacterial infection

CM: TB, fungal infection, contact derm

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20
Q

4 ways to manage chronic allergies

A

med bracelet
stress reduction
limit exposure
epi

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21
Q

6 classes of meds plus example for allergies

A
  1. antihistamines - loratidine
  2. decongestants - phenylephrine
  3. corticosteroids- prednisone
  4. leukotriene antagonist- montelukast
  5. mast cell stabilizer - cromlyn
  6. antipruitic - diphen.
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22
Q

what does loratidine do

A

controls edema and itching but NOT bronchoconstriction

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23
Q

when to use cromlyn

A

NOT emergencies, reg basis

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24
Q

what effect does phenylephrine have

A

dries up runny nose

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25
if someone has AI or taking antihistamines, what should they avoid
skin tests
26
epi causes
vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
27
how does immunotherapy work
IM or sub q - builds up igG which blocks igE from binding and releasing histamine - so blocks histamine release
28
4 drugs that are immunosupressants
cyclosporine methotrexate hydroxychloroquine adalimumab
29
2 reasons to get immunotherapy
when drugs not working or allergy cannot be avoided
30
what is immunodef.
opposite of autoimmunity
31
4 interventions for immunodef patients
asepsis neutropenic (no flowers) remove cause reverse isolation
32
4 primary immunodef. disorders
b cell def, t cells def x linked rec disorder phagocytic defect
33
6 factors for secondary immunodef
age stress meds!!! therapies malnutrition
34
2 roles of immunosupressants
control symptoms delay progression
35
what type of rxn is latex
type 1 and 4
36
when to use standard precuations 5
blood mucous secretions non intact skin body fluid
37
when to use transmission precuations
highly transmissable
38
4 interventions for HAI
hand washing gloves chlorohex appropriate PPE use
39
airborne vs contact vs droplet
a: chicken pox, measles, TB gloves, gown, goggles, N95 mask d: influenza, bacterial meningitis gloves, gown, goggles, reg mask
40
name 11 foods for latex food syndrome
apples avacado banana celery carrot chestnut kiwi melon papaya potato tomato
41
pathophys of HIV
HIV is an RNA virus - it enters CD4 cell reverse transcripterase is released RNA becomes DNA protease cleaves DNA HIV virions created that have a rapid CD4 destruction
42
3 characteristics of an acute HIV infection
1-3 weeks - HIGH viral load - VERY infectious -flu like symptoms
43
MOA of ART
delays progression by inhibiting viral RNA replication aka decreasing RNA viral levels
44
3 SE of antiretrovirals
fat redistribution, wasting insulin resistance high LDLs
45
when is preP used
to reduce risk for uninfected people getting sick
46
what to do if someone got a negative HIV test
come back in 3 weeks
47
ART drugs interactions
PPI and antacids
48
3 opportunistic diseases
penumococcal hepB influenza
49
what does it mean when viral load is undetectable
prevents sexual transmission virus not gone
50
when do opportunistic diseases occur
Cd4 <500
51
fluticasone class use education ***not on test
corticosteroid used for allergies should be used before runny nose occurs
52
cromyln class proper use **not on test
mast cell stabilizer used on reg schedule and not for emergencies
53
phenylephrine class MOA AE **not on test
sympathomomimetic, decongestant vasoconstriction rebound congestion
54
loratidine class use ed 2
2nd gen antihistamine controls edema and itching in allergies take b4 symptoms or right when they appear does NOT cause drowsiness
55
diphenhydramine class SE
2st gen antihistamine antipruitic - itching diminished effect with repeated use
56
ibuprofen class and MOA 4 AE do not take when
NSAID REVERSIBLE cox inhibition Gi ulcer, increased BP, bleeding, renal NOT for athritis - not an antiplatlet
57
cyclosporine class moa use AE
immunosupressant inhibits calcineurin prevents graft rejection INC risk for infection
58
celecoxib class use AE nursing
NSAID cox 2 inhibitor protects against colon cancer PROMOTION OF MI/STROKE check for sulfa allergy
59
adalimumab class report 2 cautions
biologic DMARD report fever above 100 not if active infection NO live vaccines
60
methotrexate class moa nursing 3 education
non biologic dmard dec b and t cell activity wear gloves no preg, no vaccines, no straight razor
61
hydroxychloroquine class moa AE
non biologic dmard inhibits toll like receptors retinopathy
62
prednisone moa chronic use AE 3
supresses lymphocytes skin thinning, inc infection, HYPERGLYCEMIA
63
acetylsalicyclic acid moa contraindications AE +s/s (5) education
inhibits cox 1 and 2 DONt give with active bleeding reyes syndrome - irritability, dec LOC, confusion, weakness, seizures no alcohol
64
HLA is responsible for
rejection of genetically unlike tissues. It consists of a series of linked genes that occur together on the sixth chromosome in humans.
65
anergy
an immunodeficient condition characterized by lack of or diminished reaction to an antigen or a group of antigens, is common.
66
4 assessments for allergies
comprehensive patient history, physical examination, diagnostic workup, and skin testing for allergens