Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology > Exam 2: Neoplasms > Flashcards

Exam 2: Neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

Define neoplasia:

A

uncoordinated/unregulated growth due to lack of regulatory mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the #1 cancer in the world?

A

skin cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the #1 cancer COD for men and women?

A

lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

76% of cancer cases are diagnosed after the age of:

A

55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the cancer 5 year survival rate?

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cancer is the ______ COD in the USA

A

second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who are cancer rates higher in?

A

males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cancer incidence & mortality rates are highest in:

A

blacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The survival rate for cancer is dependent on?

A 
○ Poverty
○ Access to care
○ Poor health when diagnosed
○ Comorbidities
○ Differences in cell/tumor biology
○ Type of cancer
○ Staging at diagnosis 
○ Treatment available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is invasive growth?

A

When cancer cells are able to grow into different/adjacent tissues (Normal cells cannot do this (bladder cells can’t extend into the pelvic wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs during cell proliferation?

A

○ Tissues acquire new cells through mitosis

○ Increase in the number of cells as a result of cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs during cell differentiation?

A

○ Proliferating cells are transformed to specialized cells. They have a specific function (ex: hepatic cells, muscle cells, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is cell apoptosis?

A

○ Normal programmed cell death that is used to eliminate old, damaged, excess cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is neoplasm?

A

An increase in neoplastic cells due to uncontrolled proliferation w/ invasion into surround tissues (they avoid the apoptosis process and continue to grow, divide, and live)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common cancer sites for males and cancer related death are:

A
  • prostate
  • lung
  • colorectal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The most common cancer sites for women and cancer related death are:

A
  • breast
  • lung
  • colorectal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

These cells are referred to as reserve cells and remain incompletely differentiated throughout their lifetime (dormant until an appropriate stimuli causes them to proliferate)

A

stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 2 important features of stem cells?

A

○ Self-renewal

○ Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is meant by stem cell self renewal?

A

stem cell can undergo various mitotic division while remaining undifferentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is meant by stem cell potency?

A

the varying ability of stem cells to differentiate into specialized cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stem cells can treat cancer and are typically used in what conditions:

A
  • spinal cord injuries to help the neurons regenerate
  • diabetes
  • parkinson’s
  • muscular dystrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe some characteristics of cancer cells:

A
  • they have lost the need for growth factors
  • they can divide with no limit (crowding out normal cells)
  • they can continue to divide with DNA damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The action of a drug is exerted in a:

A

specific phase of the cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What stage of the cell cycle does Methotrexate interfere?

A

with DNA synthesis (G1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The cell cycle nonspecific phase:

A

○ Exert drug effect on all phases of the cell cycle

○ Can act in the Resting State, DNA synthesis, or during mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During combination chemo, combination of the cell cycle is:

A

Specific & Nonspecific (ex: ABVD used to treat Hodgkin’s Lymphomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Benign tumors can grow:

A

by expansion w/o invading other tissue and is encapsulated (well differentiated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Malignant tumors can grow:

A

by invasion and infiltrates surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which tumors have the ability to expand by metastasis?

A

malignant tumors
▪ they access the blood, lymph, etc. to spread to other parts of the body
▪ they retain the characteristics of the original cell site (lung cells will have same cell characteristics as ovarian cells when they spread)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

These cells are well differentiated cells and represent normal cells of that organ

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

These cells are poorly differentiated (less time to grow):

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the rate of growth for benign tumors?

A

▪ Progressive/slow

▪ Can regress and stop growing altogether

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the rate of growth for malignant tumors?

A

▪ Depends on the level of differentiating

▪ The more undifferentiated the cells are, the quicker it grows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the mode of growth for benign cells?

A

▪ Don’t invade.
▪ Grow by expansion
▪ Usually encapsulated or contained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the mode of growth for malignant cells?

A

▪ Invade other tissues, lymph & blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

chronic irritation or injury that causes a change in the type of adult cells in that tissue (ex: smoker’s squamous cell epithelium results in changes in the types of cells of the esophagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Barret’s esophagus is at an increased r/f:

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

alteration in the adult cell size, shape, organization, and number of cells (cervical cancer - PAP smears)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 6 hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. self-sufficiency in growth signals
  2. insensitivity to anti-growth signals
  3. evading apoptosis
  4. limitless replication potential
  5. sustained angiogenesis
  6. tissue evasion and metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

During the in situ stage of cancer, what is occurring?

A

This is early stage cancer where the neoplasm is confined to the original site and hasn’t spread to surrounding tissue/organs (malignant cells haven’t crossed basement membrane )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What treatment options are available during the in situ stage of cancer?

A
  • surgical removal (with very low chance of reoccurring)

* cervical in situ cancer = 100% survival rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

process by which carcinogens cause normal cells to become cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Carcinogens can be:

A
  • chemical
  • physical
  • biological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Colon cancer can be caused by diets high in:

A

fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Diets high in nitrates results in:

A

high incidence of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the phases of carcinogens?

A
  • initiation
  • promotion
  • transformation
  • progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What occurs during the initiation stage of carcinogenesis?

A

▪ Carcinogen is introduced to the tissues

▪ Produces change in the genome of the normal cell

48
Q

What occurs during the promotion stage of carcinogenesis?

A

▪ Induction of unregulated/accelerated growth in cells that have already been
initiated by growth factors or chemicals
▪ Reversible if you remove the carcinogens

49
Q

What occurs during the transformation stage of carcinogenesis?

A

▪ Cell changes to a non-normal cell
▪ Escapes normal control mechanisms
▪ Increase in growth
▪ Changes in the cell membrane/surface

50
Q

What occurs during the progression stage of carcinogenesis?

A

▪ Cells acquire malignant phenotypes
▪ Can promote cell proliferation
▪ i.e. can lead to metastasis

51
Q

What is angiogenesis?

A

Where a tumor is causing new vessels to be produced to allow tumor to grow (making of new blood vessels)

52
Q

In Control of Cell Replication, cancer cells:

A

have to ability to grow indefinitely (mitosis)

53
Q

What gene is activated in DNA damaged genes to initiate apoptosis?

A

TP53 gene

54
Q

What is proto-oncogenes?

A

○ Normal genes that become cancerous if they are MUTATED (they encode for growth factors)

55
Q

How can proto-oncogenes cancer genes be mutated?

A

▪ Chromosomal Translocations

▪ Gene Amplifications

56
Q

What occurs during chromosomal translocations and what are some examples?

A

□ Genes move from one chromosome to another

  • Burkitt Lymphoma
  • Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
57
Q

What occurs during gene amplifications and what are some examples?

A

Multiple copies of genes enhance gene expression which can increase cell
proliferation
- ex: breast cancer

58
Q

What is the patho of cancer?

A
  • Genetic damages causes cells to mutate
  • Cell’s revert from a differentiated state to an undifferentiated state
  • Proliferation of cells is continuous (Proliferation = time it takes for the tumor to double in size)
59
Q

What particular genes are involved in breast cancer?

A

BRACA 1 and BRACA 2

60
Q

What hormone may contribute to the development of breast, ovary and endometrium cancer?

A

estrogen

61
Q

Testosterone may cause what type of cancer?

A
  • prostate

- testicular

62
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is associated with which condition?

A

AIDS and is considered a marker for undiagnosed HIV

63
Q

Who is cancer more common in and why?

A

elderly due to decreased immune system

64
Q

What does immunotherapy do?

A

heightens the persons immune response (can be given with chemo)

65
Q

What are the anatomic classifications of cancer?

A
  • carcinomas
  • sarcomas
  • adenocarcinomas
66
Q

The carcinomas classification:

A

Originate in epithelial or mucosal tissues

Ex: Basal Cell Carcinoma (skin cancer

67
Q

The sarcomas classification:

A

Originate in bone, muscle, or nerve

Ex: Osteogenic sarcoma (bone cancer

68
Q

The adenocarcinomas classification:

A

▪ Adeno = Glands

Ex: Lymphoma, melanoma, etc.

69
Q

What is required to determine the histologic class of cancer?

A

a microscopic exam

70
Q

What is examined during a microscopic exam?

A
  • the level of differentiation
  • rate of mitosis
  • number of normal cells
71
Q

This grade has mild dysplasia and differs very little from normal cells:

A

grade 1

72
Q

This grade has immature cells (rapid, unregulated growth) and the cell origin is difficult to determine:

A

grade 4

73
Q

25% of the time, lung cancer is __________

A

ASYMPTOMATIC

74
Q

What are the s/sx of lung cancer?

A 
○ Difficulty breathing
○ Wheezing breath sounds
○ Hoarseness
○ Chest pain, back pain, shoulder radiating pain
     ▪ "Cancer" Pain usually 
     occurs in the later stages of 
     cancer
75
Q

What are some early warning signs of cancer?

A
  • Unusual bleeding/discharge
  • Un-healing lesions
  • Change in bowel habits
  • Nagging cough / hoarseness
  • Lumps
  • Changes in moles/lesions
  • Dysphagia
76
Q

What is the purpose of staging cancer?

A

helps determine how far it’s spread (how large the tumor is), the prognosis and treatment plan

77
Q

In this stage (the very earliest stage) cancer is completely curable if removed

A

Carcinoma In Situ

78
Q

What does the TMN method stand for?

A

tumor, lymph nodes, metastases

79
Q

The “T” in TMN is staging of the:

A
  • the size of the tumor (in cm)

- 0-3 (3 is the worst meaning the tumor is so large, it has spread out of the organ tissues)

80
Q

The “N” in TMN is staging of the:

A

▪ Regional lymph node involvement (cancer normally metastasizes into the nearest lymph nodes within the same region/compartment)

81
Q

Breast cancer can spread to:

A

axillary lymphs

82
Q

What is the rating for “N” in TMN?

A

▪ N = 0 (0 lymph nodes involved)
▪ N 1 = few nodes are involved
▪ N 2 = systemic (multiple nodes are involved)

83
Q

What is the ranking for “M” in TMN?

A

▪ Absent or present
▪ M 0 = no metastasis
▪ M 1 = metastasis to one organs
▪ M 2 = metastases are everywhere (different organs are effected)

84
Q

A low grade cancer cell indicates:

A

slow, progressive, less aggressive

85
Q

A high grade cancer cell indicates:

A

rapid growth, poorly differentiated

86
Q

Why do nurses need to know stage and grade of cancer cells?

A

▪ To know their pain per pt subjective data
▪ Stage and Grade affects the Rx plan (VERY RIGID and SPECIFIC and INDIVIDUALIZED per pt)
▪ Need to have psychological implementations to comfort them

87
Q

What are the risk factors for cancer?

A
  • Heredity
  • Hormonal Factors
  • Immunologic factors
  • Environmental/Chemical
    Carcinogens
    > Oncogenic Viruses (HPV =
    cervical cancer)
    > Smoking and secondhand
    smoke
    > Lifestyle factors
    > UV radiation
    > Occupational carcinogens
88
Q

What dietary factors are implicated in cancer?

A

▪ Foods fried in used oil (multiple times)
▪ Nitrates in smoked/cured meats
▪ Fatty red meats
▪ Low fiber intake
▪ High fat diets (associated with colon cancer)

89
Q

Tobacco contains both:

A
  • pro-carcinogens (interfere w/ cell regulatory controls)
  • promoters (change
    the genetic expression)
90
Q

What cancers are associated with smoking?

A
  • Lung
  • Laryngeal
  • Head/neck cancer
  • Pancreas
  • Uterine
  • Cervical
  • Bladder
  • smoking is related to 30% of all cancer deaths/87% of lung cancer deaths
91
Q

What are the s/sx of most solid tumors?

A
  • anemia
  • anorexia & cachexia (muscle wasting)
  • fatigue and sleep disorders
  • compression/obstruction of tissues/organs
  • pain (not an early symptom, normally associated with late stages of cancer)
  • psychosocial integrity & QOL
92
Q

In anemia of cancer patients, what is occurring?

A

○ Decreased RBC level
○ Tumors is drawing up normal amount of blood and making the body anemic
○ Bone marrow suppression

93
Q

How is cancer diagnosed?

A
  • Biopsy, XR, CT, endoscopies

- Tumor markers

94
Q

What are tumor markers?

A

Sampled via blood test that targets antigens expressed on the surface of tumor cells (or substances released from normal cells when tumor cells are present)

95
Q

When are tumor markers used?

A

▪ Screening
▪ Establishing prognosis
▪ Monitor/evaluating treatment plan effectiveness
▪ Detecting recurrent disease

96
Q

What is carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)?

A

▪ Source of embryonic tissue of the gut and pancreas that is used in suspected Colorectal, Pancreas, Stomach cancers

97
Q

What is the marker for ovarian cancer and produced by ovarian cells?

A

CA-125

98
Q

What is PSA?

A

▪ Prostate Specific Antigen (Produced by epithelial cells of prostate) and is a marker for prostate cancer and should be UNDETECTABLE

99
Q

What are some treatment options for cancer?

A
  • surgery
  • radiation
  • chemo
100
Q

This is the oldest RX for cancer and can be used to diagnosis, stage, remove tumors or palliative

A

surgery

101
Q

what is the first choice treatment for solid tumors?

A

surgery

102
Q

What occurs during raditaion?

A

rapidly proliferating and poorly differentiated cells are killed off by radiation (doesn’t affect normal tissues)

103
Q

What is the side effects of radiation?

A
  • PRIMARY = fatigue
  • bone marrow suppression causing anemia (this also decreases neutrophils causing neutropenia which places pt at risk for infection)
  • xerostomia (dry mouth)
  • hair loss
  • skin burns (do not use lotion on these area. can cause severe damage to the skin when combine w/radiation)
104
Q

What is one thing you should NOT do when caring for a patient who gets radiation?

A

wash off radiation lines

105
Q

Which cancer treatment method is most effective against rapid proliferating cells?

A

chemo (specific/nonspecific/combo therapy)

106
Q

What are some s/sx of chemo?

A
  • anorexia, N/V, alopecia

- bone marrow suppression

107
Q

Why does hair fall out during chemo?

A

chemo targets rapidly dividing cells, therefore the hair is prevented from growing (hair is rapidly dividing)

108
Q

Bone marrow suppression makes the pt more susceptible to:

A
  • infection
  • anemia
  • hemorrhage
109
Q

What are the 4 major classes of cancer drugs?

A

○ Cytotoxic agents (kill cells directly)
○ Hormones & Hormone antagonists (breast & prostate cancers)
○ Biological response modifiers
○ Targeted drugs (bind to specific molecules)

110
Q

Chemo only applies to:

A

cytotoxic agents

111
Q

These drugs kill cancerous cells or reduce the number of cells

A

Chemotherapeutic Drugs

112
Q

What is combination therapy?

A

2-3 different drugs resulting in a more effective treatment option

113
Q

What are the protocols of Chemotherapeutic Drugs?

A

○ Predesigned schedule of treatment plans

○ Very strict and individualized schedule of treatments

114
Q

What are stomatitis?

A

sores in the mouth

115
Q

What is a sentinel node?

A

initial lymph node the tumor has spread to

Pathophysiology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions