Exam 2 Orange Packet Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

What are the ten categories of antibiotics?

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Flouroquinolones
Glycopeptides
Lipopeptides
Carbapenems

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2
Q

What are three adverse reactions of all antibiotics?

A

Allergy (hypersensitivity)
Superinfection
Organ toxicity

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3
Q

What antibiotic do we use for almost all upper respiratory infections?

A

Penicillins!

95% of upper respiratory infections are caused by strep

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4
Q

What two step are you going to take when administering antibiotics?

A

Always send a culture before starting!

Start with a broad spectrum antibiotic like tetracyclines or cephalosporins until culture is back to show a specific.

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5
Q

If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what other antibiotic should you monitor closely for allergy as well?

A

Cephalosporins

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6
Q

When a patient is on penicillin, what are you assessing? (3)

A

Liver enzymes
Urine output - lower dose if u/o is low
BUN Creatinine

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7
Q

How long should you take antibiotics?

A

Until the prescription is finished. Do not stop taking early just because you are feeling better.

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8
Q

Should you take antibiotics with food?

A

No, you should preferable take on an empty stomach. Food decreases absorption.

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9
Q

What are side effects of ALL antibiotics? (6)

A

N/V/D - take on empty stomach
Ineffective birth control
Photosensitivity
Allergic reaction
Superinfection
Assess kidney and liver function

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10
Q

Aminoglycosides are inactivated by what other antibiotic?

A

Penicillins

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11
Q

What should I avoid when taking Penicillin?

A

Fruit juices/acidic beverages
Alcohol

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12
Q

What nursing intervention is a higher priority for the client who is taking a cephalosporin?
A. Wait until culture results are received before initiating antibiotic.
B. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of a superinfection.
C. Administer IV cephalosporins over 2 hours to prevent phlebitis.
D. Instruct the client to take the drug for 5 days only.

A

B. Superinfection is a common side effect of antibiotics.

You always start a broad spectrum antibiotic while waiting on the culture results.

Check a drug guide to determine IV push time. Usually 30-45 minutes for Cephalosporins.

Typical course of antibiotics is 7-10 days.

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13
Q

What are antibiotic substitutes for a patient allergic to Penicillin?

A

Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Sulfonamides

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14
Q

Which antibiotic is it important to IV push VERY slowly to avoid phlebitis?

A

Macrolides - monitor liver!!

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15
Q

What are the two ‘tank’ antibiotics?

A

Vancomycin
Gentomycin

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16
Q

What two toxicities are you monitoring for when administering Vancomycin and Gentamycin?

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity

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17
Q

Vancomycin and Gentamycin have very narrow therapeutic ranges, what is important to monitor to avoid toxicity?

A

Peaks and Troughs

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18
Q

Which antibiotic can cause Red Man Syndrome?

A

Vancomycin

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19
Q

What should you avoid if you are taking Tetracyclines? (3)

A

Dairy/Milk products
Iron Supplements
Antacids

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20
Q

What is a side effect in children that are taking Tetracyclines?

A

Teeth discoloration (brown teeth, typically under the age of 8)

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21
Q

Which antibiotic cannot be absorbed through the GI tract?

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamycin)

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22
Q

The ‘tank’ antibiotics cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, what are you going to monitor?

A

Hearing
Balance
Urine Output

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23
Q

What is in the name of all Flouroquinolones?

A

~floxacin

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24
Q

Which of the antibiotics is ‘the bomb’?

A

Daptomycin - Lipopeptides

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25
What can you NOT mix Daptomycin IVs with?
Dextrose IV solutions
26
What adverse effects are caused by lipopeptides (Daptomycin)?
Chest pain Potassium changes Bleeding Pleural Effusions Blood sugar changes
27
Which antibiotic can cause BP changes, dizziness, numbness, and burning with urination.
Lipopeptides (Dapto)
28
Which antibiotic is 90% effective against E.Coli, thus used for UTIs?
Sulfonamides
29
What are some adverse reactions of Sulfonamides? (2)
Blood dyscrasias (~enia, ~emia, ~cyto) Crystalluria - increase fluids!
30
What is a combo sulfa drug that increases the desired drug response and makes it so that bacterial resistance develops much more slowly?
Bactrim - do not give with severe liver or renal disease
31
Which teaching is a higher priority for the client who is taking the sulfonamide TMP-SMX (Bactrim)? A. Encourage an increase in fluid intake. B. Report signs of ototoxicity. C. Individuals taking this drug are not affected by sun exposure. D. Take with dairy products or antacids to protect stomach.
A. Fluids should be increased to at least 2000 mL/d Ototoxicity is not a common adverse reaction to sulfonamides Photosensitivity is common for all antibiotics Dairy product and antacids decrease absorption
32
Which antibiotics have a sulfa cross-sensitivity?
Sulfonamides - always check to make sure drugs are not sulfa-derivatives!
33
What do all Carbapenems have in their name?
~penems
34
What are some contraindications for Carbapenems? (4)
Seizure disorders Meningitis Pregnancy/Lactation Children
35
You are watching for colitis, C. Diff when on which antibiotic?
Carbapenems
36
What medication is given to someone that has been EXPOSED to TB?
INH (isoniazid)
37
What medication is given to someone DIAGNOSED with TB?
INH/Rifampin combination
38
INH can cause peripheral neuropathy, what can you give them to help prevent it?
Vitamin B6
39
What are some side effects of antitubercular drugs? (5)
Drowsiness Tremors Rash Blurred Vision Photosensitivity
40
What are some adverse reactions to antitubercular drugs? (5)
Psychotic behavior Peripheral neuropathy - Vit B6 Hepatotoxicity - monitor liver enzymes Seizures Blood dyscrasias
41
What are the two types of Antifungal (antimycotic) drugs that we are focusing on?
Polyenes Imidazoles
42
What are the two different types of fungal infections?
Systemic Superficial
43
What is the drug of choice for severe systemic fungal infections?
Amphotericin B (Polyene) - given IV only
44
What are some common side effects to the antifungal medication polyenes? (4)
N/V/D Flush Fever Chills
45
What are some common adverse effects of polyenes? (2)
Nephrotoxicity Electrolyte imbalance
46
What are you going to monitor while your patient is taking polyenes? (4)
Urine output Electrolytes BUN Creatinine Magnesium
47
What is nystatin?
It is an antifungal polyene that is topical or oral. It is used for superficial infections like thrush (swish and swallow) It is poorly absorbed, excreted in feces.
48
Which antifungal is used for candidiasis (superficial and systemic)?
Imidazole Antifungals (can be given PO) ~azole Ketoconazole, Fluconazole
49
Which teaching is a priority for the client who is taking fluconazole (Diflucan)? A. Take concurrent vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy. B. Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. C. Advise that hypoglycemia may occur with concurrent oral hypoglycemics. D. Warn that gingival hyperplasia may occur with prolonged use.
C. Hypoglycemia may occur with patients taking fluconazole and sulfonylurea. Vitamin B6 may prevent neuropathy in patients taking INH. INH should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals Gingival hyperplasia may occur as an adverse reaction of acyclovir (Herpes antiviral)
50
Which antifungal is used as an antibiotic, as they interfere with the bacterial cell membrane function?
Peptides - bacitracin
51
What can Metronidazole (Flagyl) treat?
H. Pylori IBS Trichomoniasis Bacterial Vaginosis Perioperative Prophylaxis
52
What is a common side effect of flagyl?
Discolored urine
53
What is the main antimalarial drug?
Chloroquine HCL
54
What are the three methods used to eradicate malaria?
Prophylaxis (prevention) Treatment of acute attack Prevention of relapse
55
Where is Chloroquine HCL metabolized?
Liver - monitor enzymes
56
What are some adverse effects of Chloroquine? (4)
Ototoxicity GI upset Renal impairment Toxicity and death in children
57
What are antihelmintic drugs used to treat?
Parasitic worms - tapeworms, roundworms, flukes
58
What are the two side effects of antihelmintic drugs?
GI upset Neuro problems like drowsiness or tiredness Adverse effects are rare due to short durations of use.
59
What is the most appropriate nursing implication for a client who is taking Antimalarial drugs? A. Collect stool sample. B. Assess the client's hearing. C. Advise the client to take showers, not baths. D. Encourage females to have a pap test every 6 months.
B. Antimalarials can cause ototoxicity. Monitoring for stools and showers are appropriate for antihelmintics. Pap tests are recommended for genital herpes.
60
What are signs and symptoms of a viral infection?
Headache Low grade fever N/V/D Muscle pain Fatigue Cough
61
Which vaccine is recommended annually?
Influenza vaccine - 60-90% effective
62
What is a contraindication of the flu vaccine?
Allergy to eggs
63
What is the timeframe that you must take an influenza antiviral for it to be effective?
Within 48 hours of symptoms
64
Zanamir (Relenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are which type of medications?
Influenza antivirals
65
What drug is used as a passive form of immunity to a virus by blocking the penetration of the virus into the host cell?
Gamma Globulin (Immune Globulin)
66
How is Gamastan (human immune globulin) administered?
IM
67
How long will Gamma Globulin protect?
2-3 weeks
68
How is Gamimune N (immune globulin) given?
IV - immediate
69
What is acyclovir used to treat?
Herpes virus
70
What can Herpes/Cytomegalovirus antivirals be used to treat?
Herpes simplex virus Shingles Chicken Pox RSV - Ribavirin - aerosol
71
What are some common side effects of acyclovir (Zovirax)? (5)
GI disturbances Headache Dizziness Hematuria (blood in urine) Elevated BUN Creatinine
72
What are some common adverse effects of acyclovir?
Decrease in hemoglobin, WBC, and platelets Thrombophlebitis Hepatotoxicity
73
What is viral load?
The measurement of how much HIV in in the blood. Determines how well treatment is working. Decrease in VL should be within 16-24 weeks.
74
What is the current treatment recommendation for HIV?
Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) - three drugs from several categories. 2 NRTI's 1NNRTI 2 NRTI's or 2 protease inhibitors
75
What can non-adherence of HAART therapy lead to?
Resistant viral strains