Exam #2 Practice Flashcards
(124 cards)
1
Q
Which Neural path consists of two motor neurons?
a. autonomic
b. somatic motor
c. somatic sensory
d. cerebral only
A
a. autonomic
2
Q
Sympathetic preganglionic fibers synapse in
A
a sympathetic trunk and prevertebral ganglia
3
Q
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers leave the sympathetic trunk ganglia by the way of the
A
gray rami
4
Q
80% of the total craniosacral outflow is carried by
A
Vagus nerve (X)
5
Q
Parasympathetic fibers associated with cranial nerve VII synapse in which terminal ganglia before continuing to their visceral effectors?
A
submandibular and pterygopaltine
6
Q
parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons in
A
sympathetic trunk ganglia
7
Q
Which is true of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
A
most presynaptic fibers are very short
8
Q
All postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the ________ ganglion go to the structures of the head
A
superior cervical
9
Q
Nerve fibers of the sympathetic division originate in the
A
thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord
10
Q
Which autonomic ganglion is associated with the superior mesenteric artery?
A
superior mesenteric
11
Q
The cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the
A
spinal cord
12
Q
Which of the following are parasympathetic nerves?
A
pelvic splanchnic nerves
13
Q
preganglionic fibers to the ciliary ganglion are associated with cranial nerve
A
3
14
Q
The white rami contain
A
preganglionic sympathetic neurons
15
Q
_________ are long; __________ are short
A
Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers ; parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
16
Q
Which of the following is a drug classified as a non-specific beta blocker that reduces heart rate and force of contraction
A
propranolol
17
Q
Adrenergic neurons release
A
norepinephrine
18
Q
Which of the following is true of adrenergic fibers?
A
they are stimulated during the fight or flight response
19
Q
the adrenergic receptors for norepinephrine and epinephrine are
A
alpha and beta
20
Q
what is the balance between sympathetic activity called
A
autonomic tone
21
Q
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
A
fight or flight division
22
Q
What part of the nervous system is the main control and integrative center of the autonomic nervous system?
A
hypothalamus
23
Q
Which part of the autonomic reflex pathway differs from the somatic reflex pathway?
A
Motor Pathway
24
Q
Information about the temperature of the air around you would be sent to the brain by
A
exteroreceptors
25
which of the following is an example of rapid adaptation
loss of ability to smell the baking cake after a few minutes
26
Muscle spindles and tendon organs are example of
proprioceptors
27
the degree of muscle stretch is detected by
muscle spindles
28
somatic pain that arises from stimulation of skin receptors is classified as _______ pain
superficial somatic
29
Prorioceptors are located in the
muscles and tendons
30
Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors are located
deep in the dermis and in deeper tissues of the body
31
The organ that has the broadest area of referred pain is the
kidney
32
The type of pain felt from a puncture of a needle is called
fast pain
33
Novocaine provides short-term relief of pain by blocking conduction of the nerve impulses at the level of the
axons of the first order neurons
34
What is the function of the Pacinian corpuscle?
pressure
35
What is the function of the root hair plexus?
touch
36
Sensory nerve fibers in the posterior column decussate at the level of the
medulla oblongata
37
third order neurons of somatic sensory pathway project
from the thalamus to the cerebral Cortex
38
Damage to the lateral spinothalamic tract could result in a lack of sensation of
pain and temperature
39
The part of the body represented by the largest area of the somatosensory cortex is the
lips
40
Sensations of tickle and itch are conveyed from one side of the body to the opposite side of the cerebral hemisphere along the
anterior spinothalamic tract
41
Which tracts carry information about actual performance of muscles of the trunk and lower limbs to the cerebellum?
spinocerebella tracts
42
Which of the following is true concerning voluntary motor impulses?
they reach their effectors by way of the pyramidal pathways
43
the major control region for initiation of voluntary movements of the body is the
primary motor area
44
The corticobulbar tracts convey nerve impulses that control movements of the
head and neck
45
the final common path to the skeletal muscles from both the pyramidal and extrapyramidal pathway is the
lower motor neurons
46
What part of the brain receives information about planned activity, compares this with actual movements, and supplies corrective signals to other parts of the brain?
Cerebellum
47
Circadian rhythm's, refers to
a 24 hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness
48
The reinforcement of memory due to the frequent retrieval of a piece of information is called
memory consolidation
49
Cerebral palsy is caused by
damage to the motor area of the brain during fetal life, birth, or infancy
50
Alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles of the upper extremities, resulting in an uncontrollable shaking of the hands is a characteristic of
Parkinson disease
51
The olfactory receptors are examples of
chemoreceptors
52
which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
pungent
53
Sensory stimulation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is conducted by the
glossopharyngeal nerve
54
Circumvallate papillae are located on the
posterior region of the tongue
55
Bipolar neurons associated with sensory receptors are found in the
retina
56
which of the following is part of the vascular tunic of the eye?
choroid
57
When entering a dark room on a sunny day, it takes some time to be able to see because
it takes time for the retina to rebuild its rhodopsin
58
The anterior cavity contains
aqueous humor
59
The point of greatest visual acuity is the
central fovea
60
Intraocular pressure is primarily due to the
aqueous humor
61
as they extend from the retina to the brain, nerve fibers
from the nasal half of each retina cross to reach the opposite visual cortex
62
Which cranial nerve carries visual impulses to the brain?
II
63
Aqueous humor drains from the anterior chamber into the
canal of Schlemm
64
As a result of an injury, a person cannot see at all with the left eye, but has no trouble seeing with the right eye. the injury has probably severed the
right optic nerve
65
The blindspot is the area where
the optic nerve exits the eye
66
A sty is caused by
infection of the sebaceous ciliary glands
67
Which of the following conditions is not related to lends pathology?
glaucoma
68
In humans, both eyes focus on only one set of objects. this is called
binocular vision
69
the fibrous tunic is composed of the
sclera and cornea
70
the white of the eye, which gives shape to the eyeball, makes it more rigid, and protects its inner part is the
sclera
71
Most of the refraction of light entering the eye occurs at the
cornea
72
During accommodation for near vision
the lens increases in curvature
73
constriction of the pupil is brought about by contraction of the
circular muscle of the iris
74
Photopigment in the rods and cones is imbedded in the
membrane folds of the outer segment of these cells
75
the most common type of color blindness is
red-green color blindness
76
in daylight, rods contribute little to vision because
the rhodopsin is bleached as fast as it is regenerated
77
When light hits the rods
Na+ channels close and less inhibitory neurotransmitter is released
78
the external auditory meatus passes through the
temporal bone
79
which of the following helps maintain proper air pressure in the middle ear?
Eustachian tube
80
endolymph is found within the
cochlear duct
81
Which of the following generates a receptor potential in hair cells
bending of stereo cilia
82
the round window connects to the
scala tympani
83
Nerve fibers that synapse with hair cells in the organ of Corti unite to form part of the _______ nerve
vestibulocochlear
84
Which of the following represents the correct pathway leading to the perception of sound
tympanic membrane, ossicles, perilymph, endolymph, hair cells
85
Which of the following is associated with equilibrium
otolithic membrane
86
otoliths are
crystals
87
Each crust in the semicircular ducts is covered by a gelatinous material called the
cupula
88
Sound waves are translated into nerve impulses in the
cochlea
89
A reflex reaction to loud sounds prevents damage to the inner ear. this reaction is due to contraction of
tensor tympani + stapedious muscles
90
The oval window connects to the
stapes
91
Pitch is
the frequency of a sound vibration
92
perilymph fills the
bony labyrinth
93
The neural receptors for the sense of hearing are located in the
inner ear
94
high intensity (loud) sounds can cause deafness because they are most damaging to the
hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti
95
Meniere's syndrome is cause by
increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the membranous labyrinth
96
Which of the following would be a normal hematocrit in an adult male?
47%
97
Functions of blood
transport of dissolved gasses, distribution of nutrients, restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels
98
Plasma proteins which act as antibodies and attack foreign proteins are classified as
gamma globulins
99
An adult human contains about
4-6 liters of blood
100
Blood makes up_______ of the total body mass
less than 10%
101
The most abundant molecule present in Blood plasma is
water
102
The primary site of hemopoiesis in adult humans is in the
red bone marrow
103
The specific process by which red blood cells are formed is called
erythropoiesis
104
Chemotherapy tends to destroy normal marrow cells as well as cancerous cells. which of the following might be used to stimulate hemopoiesis in a cancer patient?
A.
histamine
B.
albumins
C.
intrinsic factor
D.
erythropoietin
erythropoietin
105
the stem cell that differentiates to form all types of blood cells is the
pluripotent stem cell
106
Aged red blood cells are destroyed mainly by macrophages in the
spleen
107
Which of the following statements is true?
Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme
108
A high reticulocyte count might indicate
increased production of red blood cells
109
Which blood cell type is elevated in a parasitic infection
eosinophils
110
which of the following is an argunular leukocyte that leaves the blood and becomes a wandering macrophage?
monocyte
111
Which blood cells are identified microscopically by tape of their ______ or absence of _______ in the cytoplasm
nuclei, granules
112
Neutrophils and macrophages are active in
phagocytosis
113
Which formed elements of the blood are produced from fragmentation of megakaryocytic?
thrombocytes
114
Which of the following best describe platelets?
platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements
115
When a blood vessel is damaged, clot formation includes that conversion of fibrinogen into _____ by action of the enzyme ______
fibrin, thrombin
116
vascular spasms and platelet plug formation are steps in
hemostasis
117
During clotting, prothrombin is activated to form
thrombin
118
Which of the following begins the common pathway in clotting?
formation of prothrombinase
119
Fibrinolysis refers to
dissolution of a clot
120
Clotting may occur in an undamaged blood vessel. when that clot breaks loose and circulates through the bloodstream it is called
an embolus
121
Which type of of blood is the universal donor?
O
122
In the condition "hemolytic disease of the newborn"
the baby's blood cells hemolyze because anti Rh antibodies produced by the mother cross the placenta
123
The presence of an abnormal hemoglobin molecule results in the inability of RBCs to maintain their shape when oxygen levels in the blood decrease. this is known as
sickle cell disease
124
An inherited inability to produce clotting factor VIII or IX results in the condition known as
hemophilia
