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Exam 2 Practice Flashcards

(108 cards)

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1
Q

When evaluating a dog or cat for coughing, what can make the tracheal wall look erroneously thickened?

A

Gas in the esophagus

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2
Q

Tracheal collapse is seen most commonly in which dog group?

A

Toy breeds

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3
Q

What condition will obliterate or cause diaphragmatic surface not to be visible radiographically?

A

Pyothorax

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4
Q

What are radiographic features associated with pleural effusion?

A

Retraction of the pleural surface of the lung away from pleural surface of the thoracic wall
Pulmonary blood vessels do not continue to the thoracic wall
Appearance of dorsal displacement of trachea on lateral view in cases of severe effusions
Lung is small and has increased opacity

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5
Q

What radiographic signs typically occur with peritoneal pericardial diaphragmatic hernias (PPDH)?

A

Enlargement of cardiac silhouette
Pericardial mesothelial remnant sign
Missing liver silhouette in the abdomen

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6
Q

Which vertebrae have an irregular ventral margin caused by the attachment site of the diaphragm?

A

L3 and L4

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7
Q

Radiographic visualization of the cardiac silhouette in patients with pleural effusion is obscured in this view, but NOT in this view

A

The cardiac silhouette is usually obscured in dorsoventral but not ventrodorsal radiographs

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8
Q

What is the most likely differential for a left-sided, focal, well-margined, caudodorsal alveolar lung pattern without airbronchograms?

A

Primary lung neoplasia

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9
Q

What is the most unlikely differential for a patchy caudodorsal interstitial to alveolar lung pattern in a patient without radiographic evidence of cardiac abnormalities?

A 
A. Exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage 
B. Bronchopneumonia 
C. Electrocution 
D. Immune mediated pulmonary vasculitis 
E. Seizures
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10
Q

Using the clock face analogy, in the dorsoventral and ventrodorsal radiograph of a dog, a soft tissue opaque bulge in the heart shadow at the 12:00 to 1:00 o’ clock position indicates involvement of the:

A

Aortic arch

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11
Q

A large dog has a nodule in the caudal part of the left cranial lung lobe. In the right lateral radiograph, the nodule is likely to be _________ visible than on a left lateral view

A

More clearly visible

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12
Q

T/F: On the dorsoventral view of the thorax of a dog, the pulmonary arteries are positioned lateral relative to the pulmonary veins

A

True

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13
Q

T/F: Pulmonary valvular stenosis would result in a right cranial lobar pulmonary vein larger in size than the right cranial lobar pulmonary artery.

A

False

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14
Q

The MOST COMMON cause of pulmonary arterial enlargement is

A

Heartworm Disease

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15
Q

Using the clock face analogy, in the dorsoventral and ventral dorsal view, a soft tissue opaque bulge in the heart shadow at the 9:30 to 11:30 position indicates involvement of the

A

Right Atrium

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16
Q

What radiographic lesion is NOT typically detected with mitral valve insufficiency?

A

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Ascites
C. Distended pulmonary veins
D. Left atrial enlargement

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17
Q

In dogs, which radiographic sign is NOT routinely associated with enlargement of the left atrium and auricle?
A. A bulge on the cardiac silhouette on the DV view, in the 2-3:00 o’clock position
B. Dorsal displacement of the carina
C. Elevation of the left primary bronchus
D. A bulge on the caudodorsal margin of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral view
E. Increased sternal contact of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral view

A

E. Increased sternal contact of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral view

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18
Q

Which condition results in a right cranial lobar vein that is larger than the corresponding right cranial artery?

A

Mitral Insufficiency

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19
Q

Using the clock face analogy, in the dorsoventral and ventrodorsal radiograph of a dog, a soft tissue opaque bulge in the heart shadow at the 2:00 to 3:00 position indicates involvement of the

A

Left Auricle

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20
Q

What is the MOST common secondary thoracic lesion resulting from megaesophagus?

A

Aspiration Pneumonia

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign of Patent Ductus Arteriosus?
A. Left atrial dilation
B. Elongation of the heart
C. Segmental dilation of the caudal descending aorta
D. Dilation of the main pulmonary artery segment
E. Enlargement of the pulmonary veins and arteries

A

C. Segmental dilation of the caudal descending aorta

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22
Q

T/F: In regards to bone remodeling, production and resorption maintain an equilibrium

A

TRUE

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23
Q

The normal anconeal process of the dog should be fused to the olecranon by _________ months of age

A

6 months

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24
Q

Panosteitis is typically located in the

A

Diaphysis

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25
Fractures involving the physis involve what cellular layer?
Zone of Hypertrophy
26
Which of the following would result in a fracture with minimal callus formation? A. Compression plating B. Poor post reduction apposition C. Persistent motion of the fracture site D. Extensive periosteal stripping and fracture in cast E. Comminuted fracture with numerous fracture fragments
A. Compression plating
27
You admit a 5 month old, German Shepherd dog with lameness. Radiographs of the right distal limb reveal an extensive smooth to irregular periosteal reaction on the metaphysis of the digits and metacarpal bones. Additionally, a lucent line parallel and adjacent to the physis is present. No other substantial abnormality is detected. What is the most likely differential diagnosis?
Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy
28
28. You admit a 10 year old, Alaskan Malamute with lameness. Radiographs of the right distal limb reveal an extensive pallisading periosteal reaction on the diaphysis of the digits and metacarpal bones. No other substantial abnormality is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hypertrophic Osteopathy
29
Name the disease described by the following: Results from the failure of endochondral ossification. Refers to the separation of a chondral or osteochondral fragment. May be difficult to diagnose on survey radiographs Commonly found in large breed dogs and horses
Osteochrondritis Dissecans
30
A generalized increase in medullary opacity occurs with
Osteopetrosis
31
Which location best describes the most common appearance of primary bone tumors in the dog and the cat
Metaphyseal monostotic
32
The use of stress radiography is unlikely to produce signs of joint laxity in which condition?
Severe osteoarthritis
33
Which is not a primary joint neoplasm? a) Fibromyxosarcoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma c) Fibrosarcoma d) Osteosarcoma e) Synovial Cell Sarcoma
d) Osteosarcoma
34
Which radiographic entity is not usually associated with primary or secondary clinical signs? a. Spondylitis b. Osteomyelitis c. Discospondylitis d. Vertebral physitis e. Spondylosis deformans
e. Spondylosis deformans
35
Which of the following statements is true regarding discospondylitis? a. It is commonly the result of a fungal infection. b. The lysis begins in the body of the vertebra and extends to the endplate. c. Changes in the radiographic signs often precede changes in the clinical signs. d. The lysis begins in the endplates of the vertebra and extends towards the body.
d. The lysis begins in the endplates of the vertebra and extends towards the body.
36
Which of the following statements is true regarding atlantoaxial instability? a. The animals with this disease commonly show clinical signs from birth. b. This disease can be caused by a lack of the dorsal laminae of C1. c. This disease can be trauma induced. d. Large breed dogs are commonly affected.
c. This disease can be trauma induced.
37
How does a pathologic fracture occur?
Normal stress is applied to an abnormal bone. Bone is abnormal due to some form of systemic disease which weakens it.
38
There are five anatomic features that may mimic fractures. They are…
``` Nutrient foramen Normal or accessory ossification centers Inconsistent sesamoid bones Multipartite sesamoid bones Open physes ```
39
What is a Salter-Harris fracture? What kind of animals do these occur in?
One in which the physis is open, so young animals
40
What is the most common reason for weakening of the bone in Pathologic fractures?
Metastatic or primary bone tumors
41
What is the difference between luxation and subluxation?
Luxation: bones of joint beyond normal anatomical limits Subluxation: bones of joint are in the right region but mildly displaced or shifted
42
What is the most common form of bone healing and why?
Secondary, because primary requires no movement of the fracture line, which is very hard to achieve.
43
In which form of bone healing is there callus formation?
Secondary bone healing
44
What is the callus made of?
Fibrocartilage
45
What does Wolff’s Law state?
Bone will continually respond to the forces placed on it, eventually remodeling back to the original tissue.
46
T/F: It is not beneficial for a fracture to have a large muscle group covering it because the added weight of the muscle makes healing more difficult.
F. Large muscle groups=large blood supply=healing!
47
T/F: Malunion (fracture healing in an abnormal position) is more of a concern in adult patients than in young because their body mass is greater and so they need properly aligned bones for support.
F. Bigger problem in younger animals because their bones are still growing.
48
Which part of the bone is responsible for the formation of osteomyelitis?
The periosteum
49
Does a sequestrum happen before an involucrum or vice versa?
Sequestrum before involucrum. Involucrum is the the “walling off” of the necrotic bone.
50
What is the most common joint abnormality in small animal practice? Which is the most common example?
Degenerative joint disease. Hip Dysplasia
51
T/F: Secondary DJD can be due to an acquired or congenital disorder.
True
52
What is the “point of no return” in the development of DJD?
Hyaline cartilage is damaged
53
What three things can you notice radiographically that will lead you to diagnose chronic DJD?
Enthesophyte, Osteophyte, Subchondral bone thickening
54
Enthesophyte, osteophyte, and subchondral bone thickening are the LAST responses of the bone to the defect in the hyaline cartilage. What are earlier responses?
Inflammation & synovitis, followed by thickening of the support ligaments & synovial hyperplasia. This is just an unstable joint trying to stabilize itself!
55
What is a major difference between the positioning of the animal for radiographs of a fracture vs. radiographs taken for suspected DJD?
Animal can be (maybe SHOULD be) recumbent for a fracture rad, whereas they MUST be standing for a DJD rad.
56
Name the radiographic signs of DJD
``` Increased synovial mass Altered thickening of the joint space Decreased subchondral bone opacity Subchondral bone cyst formation Increased subchondral opacity Altered perichondral bone opacity Perichondral bone proliferation Joint displacement Joint malformation ```
57
________ opacity occurs in inflammatory disease, whereas _______opacity occurs in benign joint disease, aka sclerosis.
Decreased; increased
58
T/F: Hip dysplasia, though most common in large dogs, is also found in cats.
T. Also small breed dogs, though not as commonly as large breed.
59
T/F: Ultrasound can be used to detect early mineralization at the head of the femur.
T. Ultrasound is pretty good with joints.
60
What is the earliest radiographic sign of hip dysplasia?
Coxofemoral laxity.
61
If you see a solitary enthesophyte on the caudal aspect of the femoral neck, is the animal in late or early hip dysplasia?
EARLY. This is a Morgan line, and it is an early and significant sign of hip DJD!
62
What view is traditionally used to evaluate hip dysplasia?
An extended VD view
63
What are the goals of radiology with respect to hip dysplasia?
Demonstrate conformation of hip joint Display hip laxity Assess for osteoarthrosis
64
How do you demonstrate conformation of the hip joint?
If the joint space is non-congruent (not parallel), or there is less than 50% acetabular coverage of the femoral head, it has a poor conformation!
65
How do you display hip laxity?
By location of the femoral head in the hip joint.
66
T/F: In disease states, there is typically both bone lysis and bone production occurring.
T. Always remodeling!
67
What is the most important radiographic sign with respect to interpretation of bone/joint disease? In other words, what is the number one thing you should be evaluating?
Alignment! Includes looking at the entire limb as a whole, evaluating each joint space, and assessing fracture displacement.
68
What soft tissue abnormalities can also be assessed when interpreting skeletal radiographs?
``` Swelling or atrophy Articular soft tissue Extra-articular soft tissue (joint pouches, which are noticeable when swollen!) Foreign material Mineralization of soft tissue Gas  Abscess! ```
69
T/F: Developmental lesions can be unilateral
True
70
T/F: Primary DJD is a common result of disorders of the immature skeleton
F. Secondary DJD
71
What is the difference between osteochondrosis and osteochondrosis Dissecans?
OCD is the same as OC but has a fragment of chondral or osteochondral tissue in the joint space that has separated from the site of failed endochondral ossification.
72
T/F: In osteochondrosis, the clefts and fissures (chondromalacia) formed due to the failure of endochrondral ossification are limited to the cartilage.
F. Subchondral bone involved as well.
73
What are the predilection sites for OC & OCD in a dog?
``` Caudal aspect humeral head Distomedial aspect humeral trochlea Lateral and medial femoral condyles Femoral trochlea Medial and lateral ridges of the talus ```
74
What are the three things you need to have elbow dysplasia?
1) Ununited anconeal process 2) Fragmented medial coronoid process 3) Osteochondrosis of distomedial aspect of humeral trochlea
75
Of these three (UFO), which one was initially responsible for development of elbow dysplasia?
Osteochondrosis
76
By what day is the anconeal process usually fused?
150 days (5 – 6 months)
77
What is the best view to see the anconeal process?
Flexed lateral view
78
How could DJD of the elbow possible prevent you from correctly diagnosing an ununited anconeal process?
Could obscure the lucency between the ulna and anconeal process
79
What is the most common developmental disorder of the elbow?
Fractured medial coronoid process
80
What is the radiographic sign for a fractured medial coronoid process?
"Stair Step” BUT does not always have to be present!
81
What kind of dogs are you most likely to see aseptic necrosis of the femoral head (Legg-Calve-Perthes) in?
SMALL dogs!
82
Which disease is described by the following? Blood supply to femoral epiphysis goes bad, so there’s no blood getting to the subchondral bone resulting in Necrosis, BUT the overlying cartilage keeps on growing. Revascularization and removal of necrotic bone (basically, body tries to heal itself). The removal of the necrotic bone leads to decreased opacity. BUT not all of the necrotic bone gets removed, and the invasion of the granulation tissue interferes with wound healing.
Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head (Legg-Calve-Perthes)
83
Which self-limiting bone disease, seen in large breed dogs, causes “shifting leg lameness”?
Panosteitis
84
T/F: Radiographs allow you to diagnose Panosteitis early, before clinical signs develop.
F. Clinical signs start first, the bone changes come later.
85
T/F: Hypertrophic osteodystrophy is a self-limiting bone disease seen in large breed dogs
True
86
What is the biggest difference between Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy and Panosteitis?
Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy involves the physes! | Panosteitis is commonly located at the nutrient foramina.
87
With which disease do you see the “double physis” sign?
Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy
88
T/F: In Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy, on a physical exam, swelling is NOT at the joints, but directly above them
T. Swelling is at the physes
89
T/F: Osteoarthrosis is usually benign and incidental.
True
90
What are some radiographic signs associated with bicipital tenosynovitis?
Poor contrast filling due to synovial hyperplasia, dystrophic mineralization, and osteophytes in intertubercular groove
91
What are some ultrasonographic signs associated with bicipital tenosynovitis?
Hypoechoic, loss of linear fiber pattern
92
How are the signalments different for hypertrophic osteopathy and hypertrophic osteodystrophy?
HO is old dogs, HOD is young dogs
93
T/F: Hypertrophic osteodystrophy is often linked to lesions in the abdomen and thorax.
F! Hypertrophic Osteopathy is though!
94
What kind of lesions are seen in the abdomen and thorax of a dog with hypertrophic osteopathy (HO)?
Neoplasia, blastomycosis, heartworm, intrathoracic foreign body
95
An old dog tests positive for heartworm disease. You want to take some rads to check for HO—where do you start? A) proximal joints, like the coxofemoral or shoulder B) the elbow or stifle C) the phalanges
C) The phalanges- this disease starts distally and works its way up!
96
T/F: In radiographic diagnosis of a cranial cruciate rupture, you will notice an increase in synovial mass regardless of whether the rupture is acute or chronic.
True
97
What radiographic signs can you see with both acute and chronic cranial cruciate rupture?
Displacement of infrapatellar fat pad cranially Displacement of gastrocnemius caudally Tibia displaced cranially
98
So what are the solely chronic signs of cranial cruciate rupture?
Periarticular osteophytes Possibly calcified ligament Tibial plateau may remodel Soft tissue thickening over the medial buttress
99
What is an avulsion fracture?
A fracture where the attachment site for a tendon/ligament is broken off from the rest of the bone. The tendon/ligament will be attached to the fragment that broke off.
100
What is an avulsion?
Where the tendon/ligament detaches from the bone.
101
What tendon do we discuss when we talk about avulsions/fractures? What ligament?
Patellar ligament and common calcanean tendon
102
T/F: Hemarthrosis is a painless, weight-bearing lameness due to repeated bleeding into articular space
F. While it is due to bleeding into the joint space, it is very painful to the point of being non-weight-bearing
103
How many fractures are needed to break the hip?
At least 3
104
What are the two joints most commonly affected by neoplasia?
Stifle and elbow
105
Which is the most common type of neoplasia seen in the stifle and elbow?
Synovial Cell Carcinoma
106
At which site are you most likely to find metastasis from a joint neoplasia?
Lungs
107
Septic arthritis occurs with systemic disease. What is your top differential for septic arthritis?
Immune-mediated disease
108
T/F: In old dogs, septic arthritis can occur with osteoarthrosis.
True

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