Exam 2 Prep Flashcards
(292 cards)
1
Q
Binocular
A
Referring to two eyes
2
Q
Monocular
A
Referring to one eye
3
Q
Your two eyeballs (and their two retinas) and in slightly different _____ in your head.
A
places
4
Q
Lateral eyes
A
Eyes on the sid of the head (360 visual field)
5
Q
Frontal eyes
A
Eyes on the front of the head (190 visual Field with 110 overlap)
6
Q
Binocular Visual Field
A
Overlapping visual field seen by both eyes
7
Q
Binocular Sunnation
A
The combination of signals from both eyes in ways that makes performance on many tasks better than with either eye alone.
8
Q
The ability to use the slight difference in information gathered from each eye as a cue to _____.
A
3D Depth
9
Q
Binocular Disparity
A
The difference between two retinal images of the same scene.
10
Q
Stereopsis
A
The ability to use binocular disparity as a cue to bepth
11
Q
Depth Cue
A
Information about the third dimension (depth) of visual space
12
Q
Monocular Depth Cue
A
Depth cue that is available even when the wold is viewed with one eye alone.
13
Q
Binocular Depth Cue
A
Depth cue that relies on information from both eyes
14
Q
Occlusion
A
A cure relative to depth order in which one object obsturcts the view of part of another object.
15
Q
The image on the retinal formed by an object gets _____ as the object gets further away.
A
smaller
16
Q
Projective Geometry
A
The transformations that occur when the 3D world is projected onto a 2D surface
17
Q
Texture Gradient
A
A depth cue based on the geometric fact that items of the same size form smaller images when they are further away.
18
Q
Because _____ is interpreted as _____, this arrangement creats the perception of a ground plane receding into the distance.
A
smaller; farther
19
Q
Relative height
A
A depth cue where objects further away will be seen as higher on the image.
20
Q
The visual system makes depth predictions based on properties of the _____.
A
Atmosphere
21
Q
Aerial Perspective
A
A depth cue based on our implicit understanding that light is scattered by the atmosphere; more light is scattered when we look through more atmosphere.
22
Q
Linear Perspective
A
Depth cue based on the fact that lines that are parallel in the 3 D world will appear to converge in a 2D image as they extend into the distance
23
Q
Vanishing Point
A
A point where parallel lines receding in depth will converge
24
Q
Objects _____ to you shift positions more quickly than do object _____ away.
A
closer; farther
25
Parallax
A geometric relationship whereby when you change you viewpoint, objects closer to you shift their position more than objets farther away.
26
The visual system exploites disparities in information from both eyes (___) to construct a 3D world (stereopsis).
Binocular disparity
27
Corresponding Retinal Points
Two monocular images of an object are said to fall on corresponding point if those points are the same distance from the fovea in both eyes.
28
In an object is on the horopter and has corresponding retinal points that object has _____.
Zero binocular disparity.
29
Horopter
The location of objects whose images lie on corresponding points.
30
The greater the distance in depth of the object from the horpter, the larger the _____.
binocular disparity
31
Diplopia
Double vision; seeing two of a single object
32
The further an object gets from the _____ the greater the binocular disparity.
horopter surface
33
To exploit and resolve these binocular disparitie input from two eyes must _____ on the same neuron.
converge
34
Many binocular neurons respond best when the objects are on _____ points for the two retinas.
corresponding
35
Direction sensitivity
Responding preferentially to stimuli that are moving in a particualr direction.
36
Apeture Problem
The fact that when a moving object is viewed through an aperture (or a single receptive field) the direction of motion of part of the object may be ambiguous.
37
_____ are highly sensitive to direction of stimulus motion.
Middle Temporal (MT) neurons
38
The brain soves the aperture problem by combining info from multiple V1 neurons whose receptive fields are aimed at _____ of a moving contour.
different segments
39
Middle Temporal Area (MT)
An area of the brain thought to be imporatnt in the perceptiopn of motion.
40
Global-Motion Detector
Has access to all V1 cells detectiong local motion directions and can compare and synthesize all of their outputs
41
Biological Motion
The motion of animal and people
42
Saccades
A small and rapid movement most often of the eyes from one fixation point to another.
43
Superior Colliculus
A region of the midbrain that plays a major role in initiating and guiding eye movements
44
Extraocular Muscles
Six muscles that control movement of the eye and one muscle that controls eyelid elevation.
45
Saccade Generator Regions:
Two regions of the brainstem that cooperate to generate saccade eye movements
46
Pontine and Medullary Reticular formation
horizontal eye movements
47
Midbrain reticual formation
vertical eye movements
48
Saccade motor maps
A systematic representation in the brain of saccade endpoints, such that activation of adjacent neurons triggers saccades to adjacent targets iun the external world.
49
Frontal Eye Field (FEF)
A cortical area that lies at the anterior edge of the pre-motor cortex and is involved in the control of eye movements
50
Smooth Pursuit Eye Movements
an eye movement that smoothly tracks a relatively small moving visual stimulus.
51
What are the 4 Frontal Eye Field (FEF) functions
1) To select a target for the next saccade
2) To retain target information
3) To prevent saccades in some situations
4) Smooth pursuit eye movements
52
The FEF adds a substantial layer of _____ to the functions of the sub-cortical eye movement ciruits
complexity
53
The retinal array contains fare _____ information than we can process.
more
54
Attention
The focusing of the mind on specific objects or trains of thought
55
Attentional Spotlighting
permitting attention on one stimulus at a time
56
Overt attention
Aims your retinal fovea at the attended location and involves eye and often head movement.
57
Covert attention
A form of visual spatial attention that can be shifted from one location to another without movement of the eyes or head.
58
Visual search
A search for a target in a display containing distracting elements
59
Involuntary Attention
A form of attention in which external stimuli "grab" a person's attention without them having conscious control.
60
Salient
Grabbing (or deserving) attention
61
In a _____ (involuntary attention)- the salient stimuli pop out from the background
parallel search
62
Voluntary attention
Attention that can be directed at will.
63
We intentionally move out attentional spotlight from one object to the next in a _____ (voluntary attention)
serial search
64
Conjuncion search
A search for a target defined by the presence of two of more attributes
65
Involuntary attention
Can be covert or overt
Grabs attention; salient stimuli pop out (parallel search)
Conjunction search
66
Voluntary attention
Can be covert or overt
Attention that can be directed at will (serial search)
Conjunction search
66
The time it takes for a salient stimulus to pop oyut of the background ____ increase significantly as the number of background distractors goes up.
doesnt
67
Stimulus salience is computed by neurons with relativly small spacial _____.
receptive fields
68
Stimulus salience is likely computed by neurons that receive _____ about multiple stimulus features.
convergent input
69
Superior colliculus- likely involved in computing _____ "bottom up" salience.
involuntary
70
Experimental evidence for the role of the sauperior colliculus in involuntary _____ spatial attention.
covert and overt
71
Weak electrical stimulation of the superior colliculus elicited an improvement in movement discrinination without eye meovbement (_____ attention)
covert
72
Saccade elicited by strong stimulation of the superior colliculus (_____ attention)
overt
73
Voluntary attention is controlled by the jubject, rather than external stimuli (_____ attention)
"Top-Down"
74
_____ play a major role in the control of voluntary head and eye movements.
Frontal Eye Field
75
Cued Spacial Attention Task
A behavioral task in which the subject is given a signal indicating where they should direct their spational attention.
76
FEF guides covert _____ spacial attention (selecting target for the next saccade), following be eye movement.
voluntary
77
Parietal Eye Field
A region of the posterior parietal cortex that plays an important role in the control of visual attention.
78
Attention plays a big role in object _____ and object _____.
recognition; localization
79
Neglect
In visual attention, the inability to attend to or respond to stimuli in the contralesional visual field.
80
Contralesional Field
The visual field on the side op
81
Ipsolesional field
The visual field on the same side as a brain lesion
82
Extinction
The inability to perceive a stimulus to one side of the point of fixation in the presence of another stimulus.
83
Balint syndrome
A disorder where everything except the current object of attention seems to be blacked from conscious perception.
84
Hearing Loss: Inhibit the ability of wound waves to exert _____ on the tympanic membrane
pressure
85
A longitudinal _____ that travels through the air or other medium.
wave
86
Sound waves move faster through _____ substances
denser
87
Amplitude (intensity; dB)
The magnitude of displacement (increase of decrease) of a sound pressure wave i.e. loudness
88
Frequency (Hz)
The number of times per seconds that a patteren of pressure change repeats. i.e. pitch
89
Decibles (dB)
A unit of measure for the physical intensity of sound, measured on a logarithmic scale
90
Parts of the outer ear
Pinna; Ear canal
91
Parts of the middle ear
Middle ear bones; Tempanic membrane; oval window
92
Parts of the inner ear
Vestibular labyrith; cochlea
93
The three middle ear bones
Malleus, Incus, and Stapes
94
Pinna
The outer ear (ear flap)
95
Ear Canal
Tubular passage from the outer ear to the tympanic membrane
96
Tempanic membrane
(ear drum) Thin membrane separating the ear canal from the middle ear.
97
Vestibular labyrinth
A set of interconnected canals
98
Cochlea
The spiraling tubular part of the inner ear that is responsible for sensing sounds
99
Oval window
Thin membrane between middle and inner ears
100
ossicles
Any of the three tiny bones of the middle ear
101
Sound pressure waves travel up the scala _____ towards the apex and back down again through the scala _____.
vestibuli; tympani
102
Basilar Membrane
A thin membrane inside the cochlea on top of which the inner and outer hair cells sit
103
Organ of corti
A structure on the basilar membrane of the cochlear that is composed of the hair cells
104
Auditory Transduction
The process by which the ear converts sound waves into electric impulses and sends them to the brain so we can interpret them as sounds
105
Hair cells
Sensory cells (NOT neurons) within the organ of corti and extends stereocilia ("hairs") into the scala media
106
Each cochlear hair cell is adorned with three rows of stereocilia that differ in _____
height
107
Inner Hair Cells
Hair cells closest to the center of the spiraling chochlea
108
Outer Hair Cells
Three spiraling rows of hair cells furthest away from the center of the spiraling cochlea
109
Inner hair cells are purely _____, whereas outer hair cells performs both _____ functions
sensory; sensory and motor
110
Techrotial Membrane
Gelatinous structure, attached at one end, that extends into the scala media of the cochlea
111
Tip links
A thin filament that connects the tip of one stereocilium to the adjacent, taller stereocilium
112
Endolymph
The fluid inside the scala media in which the stereocilia are bathed; it contains an unusually high concentration of K+ ions
113
The tips of the shorter stereocilia (row 2 and 3) contain _____ that allow K+ and ions to flow in and depolarize them.
mechanically-gated ion channels
114
This influx causes membrane _____ and opens voltage gated Ca2+ concentration throughout the base of the hair cell.
depolarization
115
Ribbon synapse
A type of chemical synapse in which numerous synaptic vesicles are arranged around a central "ribbon"
116
Ribbon synapses undergo a cycle of _____ in response to graded changes of membrane potential
exocytosis
117
Peri-lymph
The fluid surrounding the cell body of the hair cell; it contains an unusually low concentration of K+ ions
118
Differences in _____ and _____ are encoded in the cochlea
amplitude; frequency
119
_____ sounds cause large displacements closer to the oval window, near the cochlear base
High Frequency
120
_____ sounds cause displacements further away, near the cochlear apex.
Lower frequency
121
Place Code
Turning of different parts of the cochlea to different frequencies, where the particular frequency of an incoming sound wave is coded by the place along the basilar membrane with the greatest mechanical displacement.
122
Cochlear Tonotopy
Neurons tuned to similar sound frequencies are located adjacent to one another such that, they form a neural "map" of sound frequency.
123
The cochlea also has processes that actively _____ tuning
sharpen
124
Most of the nerve fibers synapse with the outer hair cells are _____ fibers
efferent
125
Over 90% of the _____ fibers in the auditory nerve synapse on the 3500 inner hair cells
afferent
126
Sounds containing multiple frequencies activate multiple groups of hair cells at several _____ in the cochlea (spacial info)
locations
127
Sound intensity affects _____. (temporal info)
firing rate
128
Conductive hearing loss
Hearing loss caused by problems with the bones of the middle ear
129
Sensorineural hearing loss
A form of hearing loss due to defects in cochlea or auditory nerve
130
Following exposure to loud sounds, _____ between hair cells and neurons in the auditory nerve are lost.
synapses
131
Auditory Nerve (cochlear Nerve)
One of two branches of the vestibulocochlear nerve (nVIII), that carries auditory sensory information from the cochlea of the inner ear directly to the brain.
132
When you record from auditory nerve fibers, different AN fibers selectively respond to different _____.
Sound Frequencies
133
Threshold Tuning Curve
Graph plotting the threshold of a neuron in response to sound waves of varying frequency at the lowest intensity that will give rise to a response.
134
Ganglia
A small swelling containing cell bodies of sensory neurons
135
Spiral (cochlear) ganglion
Group of neuron cell bodies whose dendrites synapse with the hair cells and whose axons send information the brain to the cochlear nucleus.
136
Tonotopic Map
A sound's frequency (pitch) is represented in a map like fashion across a brain region, such that adjacent neurons are turned to similar sound frequencies.
137
Primary Auditory Cortex (A1)
Located withing the temporal lobes, this is the first cortical area responsible for processing acoustic information.
138
Processing proceeds from _____ to more _____ stimuli we move further along the auditory pathway.
simpler; complex
139
Having _____ is critical for localizing sounds in space
two ears
140
For most spatial positions, the sound source will be _____ to one ear than the other.
Closer
141
Interaural
between the ears
142
Interaural level differences (ILD)
The difference in sound intensity measured between the two ears
143
Interaural Timed Difference (ITD)
The differnce in time at which sound waves reach the two ears
144
To measure ILDs and ITDs, neurons must receive _____ input.
biaural
145
Lateral Superior Olive (LSO)
Measures interaural differences
sensitive to LSO
146
Medial Superior Olive (MSO)
Measures interaural differences
Sensitive to ITDs
147
Information from both ears is sent via the cochlear nucleus and _____ in the superior olives
converges
148
A sounds _____ location is encoded in the firing rate of lateral superior olive neurons
horizontal
149
Not well understood, but the Medial Superior Olive is critical for the analysis of _____.
Interaural Time Difference (ITDs)
150
Spectral composition
An auditory distance cue based on the sound absorbing qualities of air, which dampen high frequencies more than low frequencies.
151
The sound that arrives at your ear is some combination of _____ and _____.
Direct energy; reverberant energy
152
When a sound is close to the listener, most of the energy that reaches the ear is _____.
Direct
153
When a sound source is far from the listener, most of the energy that reaches the ear is _____.
Reverberant
154
Harmonic Spectrum
The spectrum of a complex sound
155
Fundamental Frequency
The lowest frequency component of a complex sound
156
The perceived pitch of a harmonic complex is determined by the _____.
fundamental frequency
157
Our auditory system is acutely sensitive to the natural relationship between _____.
harmonics
158
Fluctuations in sound pressure at regular intervals that correspond back to that _____ frequency
fundamental
159
Two notes of identical pitch and intensity can still be identified as _____.
distinct
160
Timbre
Psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds with the same fundamental loudness and pitch are dissimilar
161
The same musical note played on different instruments sounds unique due to different _____ characteristics of the instruments.
harmonic
162
Variations in the way a complex sound begins and ends: Attack
Part of a sound during which amplitude increases (onset)
163
Variations in the way a complex sound begins and ends: Decay
Part of a sound during which amplitude decreases(offset)
164
The differences you hear relate to difference in how quickly sound energy _____ at the onset. (i.e. the attack)
increases
165
How quickly a sound decays depends on the length of time it takes for the vibrating object creating the sound to _____ energy and stop moving.
dissipate
166
Music Therapy
The use of music to address the physical, emotional, cognitive, and social needs of a groups or individual.
167
Octave
The interval between two sound frequencies having a ratio of 2:1
168
Sounds that are _____ apart will sound more similar to each other than those closer in frequency.
Octaves
169
Chord
A combination of three or more musical notes with different pitches played simultaneously
170
Melody
A sequence of notes or chords perceived as a single coherent structure
171
Tempo
The perceived speed of the presentation of sounds
172
Rhythm
A repeated pattern of sounds, comprised of strong and weak elements.
173
A1
Primary Auditory Cortex
174
A2
Belt Area or Secondary Auditory Cortex
175
A3
Para-belt Area or Third Auditory Cortex
176
A1 fores in response to almost any sound, the belt and para-belt areas have _____ in response to sine waves.
less activity
177
Primary Auditory Cortex (A1)
Identifies the fundamental elements of music such as _____.
Pitch and loudness
178
Belt Area (A2)
Involved in processing _____
Detecting a difference in anomaly in a _____
rhythm; melody
179
Para-belt (A3)
Involved in processing _____
Rhythm
180
Phonation
The process through which vocal folds are made to vibrate when air pushes out of the lungs.
181
Vocal Folds
A pair of elastic tissues that vibrate due to airflow generated by the lungs.
182
The rate at which vocal folds vibrate depends on their _____ and _____.
stiffness; mass
183
Vocal folds become stiffer and vibrate faster if you _____ their tension.
increase
184
Vocal folds vibrate faster if you _____ their mass.
decrease
185
By varying the tension of vocal folds and the pressure of airflow from the lungs, talkers can vary the _____ of their vocalizations
fundamental frequency
186
Articulation
Producing a speech sound using the articulators
187
Respiration
To initiate a speech sound, air needs to be pushed out of the lungs through the trachea and up to the larynx.
188
Vocal tract
The airway above the larynx, which includes the nasal and oral tracts, used for the production of speech.
189
Resonator
An object that, due to its shape naturally oscillates with greater amplitude at some frequencies, than at other frequencies.
190
How we hear speech sound depends on our ______ with the speech sound of our first language.
experience
191
Babies learn to listen even before they are _____.
born
192
Language processing occurs int the _____
Cerebral cortex
193
Broca's Aphasia
A difficulty or inability to produce articulate speech (expressive aphasia)
194
Broca's Area
A cortical region in the frontal lobe of the human brain with functions linked to speech production
195
In all of these aphasic patients, damage was on the _____ of the brain.
left inferior
196
Wernicke's Area
An area in the loft posterior portion of the superior temporal lobe involved in language comprehension
197
Wernicke's Aphasia
In ability to comprehend speach
198
Arcuate fasciculus
A neurological pathway connecting Broca's and Wervicke's areas
199
Listening to spoken sentences activates these cortical areas _____ instead of only on the left.
bilaterally
200
Vestibular Sense
The sensations of head motion orientation of gravity, and spatial orientation, which arises from sensors in the inner ear.
201
Vestibular System
The vestibular organs as well as the vestibular neurons in creanial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear) and the central neurons that contribute to the functional roles the vestibular system plays a part in.
202
Vestibular Organs
The set of five organs-three semicircular canals and two otolith organs-located in each inner ear that sense head motion and head orientation with respect to gravity.
203
The vertebrate fossil record shows the presence of distant vestbular organs at least _____ million years ago.
400
204
Many of the responses evoked by the vestibular system are _____.
reflexive
205
Active Sensing
sensing that includes self-generated probing of the environment
206
Balance
The neural processes of postural control by which weight is evenly distributed, enabling us to remain upright and stable
207
Kinesthesia
Perception of the position and movement of out limbs in space
208
Spacial Orientation
A sense consisting of three interacting sensory modalities-perception of linear motion, angular motion and tilt.
209
Angular motion
"Rotational motion"; Sensed when accelerating or decelerating in a car.
210
Tilt
Sensed as orientation with respect to gravity
211
Linear Motion
"Translational motion"; Sensed when accelerating or deceleration in a car.
212
Semicircular Canals
A bilateral set of three semicircular tubes oriented at right angles to one another, involved in sensing angular motion
213
Ampulla
An expansion of each semicircular canal duct where transduction occurs
214
This signal makes a predominate contribution to our sense of _____ motion
angular
215
Crista
Any of the specialized detectors of angular motion located in each semicirular canal in the ampulla
216
Otolith organs
Either of two mechanical structures (utricle and saccule) in the vestibular system that sense both linear acceleration and gravity
217
Otolith organs provide:
The predominant contribution to you sense of head _____.
The predominant contribution to your sense of _____ (translation)
tilt; linear motion
218
Utricle
A saclike structure that contains the sensors for horizontal acceleration (or deceleration) of the head; contains utricular macula
219
Saccule
A saclike structure that contains the sensors for vertical acceleration (or deceseration) of the head; contains the saccular macula
220
The vestibular organs do not respond to constant velocity; instead they respond to _____ in velocity (i.e. acceleration)
changes
221
Hair Cells
A cell with a stereocilia for transducing mechanical movement in the inner ear into neural activity sent to the brain
222
Vestiular hair cells sit on a substrate that does not vibrate in response to sound. _____ causes thes stereocilia to deflect
Stereocilia
223
Kinocilium
A long cilium that sits next to the tallest stereo cilium of a vestibular hair cell
224
Vestibular hair cells rlease neurotransmitter at a _____ rate, triggering a constant at of action potentials in the afferent neuron
constant
225
The bending of our stereocilia changes the _____ of neurotransmitter release and therefore the rate of AP firing.
rate
226
Condition III: Motion
_____ the rate of firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons
Decrease
227
Condition II: Motion
_____ the rate of firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons.
Increase
228
Direction of acceleration or deceleration of the head is encoded int the _____ of action potential firing of those afferent neurons
rate
229
Mechanical Transduction
The process by which the vestibular system converts angular motion, linear motion, and tilt into electric impulses and sends them to the brain so we can perceive our spatial orientation
230
Utricles are oriented _____
horizontally
231
Saccules are oriented _____
vertically
232
Shear Forces
Forces that are parallel to the macular plane
233
Otoconia
Tiny calcium carbonate stones in the ear that provide inertial mass for the otolith organs, enabling them to sense gravity and linear acceleration
234
Utricle
Hair cells on the utricle sensitive to acceleration (or deceleration) of the head forward, backward, and sideways
235
Saccule
Hair cells on the utricle sensitive to acceleration (or deceleration) of the head upwards and downwards and the effects of gravity
236
Movement of the otoconial membrane in different directions will cause different _____ of hair cells to depolarize
sets
237
For each individual semicircular canal all of the hair cells are _____
aligned
238
_____ the rate of AP firing for all neurons that innervate that canal
239
Rotations in the opposite direction yield a hyper-polarization of those hair cells and _____ the rate of neurotransmitter release.
240
Vertigo
A condition where a person has the sensation of moving or of surrounding objects moving when they are not
241
Imperfections in the visual-vestibular interactions will yield _____ relative to normal sensory interactions that are expected by the brain
discrepancies
242
Sensory discrepancies that arise when sensory systems provide conflicting information
243
Vestibular-ocular reflex (VOR)
A reflexive counter-rotation of the eyes when the head rotates; serves to stabilize images on the retina
244
Receives head-rotation signals from the _____
Semicircular canals
245
The "_____": on most cases we need to me in direct contact with an object to perceive it by touch.
Proximal Sense
246
Touch
The sensation caused by mechanical stimulation of the skin, muscles, tendons and joints
247
Tactile
teferring to the results of mechanicao interactionswith the skin
248
Kinesthesia
Perception of the position and movement of out limbs in space
249
Proprioception
Perception mediated by kensthetic and internal receptors
250
Somatosemsation
Collectively sensory signals from the skin muscles tendons joints and internal receptors
251
Somatosensory system
A system of neurons and sensory cells hat provide an organism with information about the physical state of its body (temperature, limb position, and pressure on the skin)
252
Mechanotransduction
The ability to sense a mechanical disturbance and turn it into an electrical signal that neurons can process.
253
Free nerve endings
The peripheral tip of a sensory axon that is not associated with one or more accessory sensory cells
254
Encapsulated Nerve endings
The peripheral tip of a sensory axon that is embedded in (encapsulated by) one or more accessory sensory cells.
255
The sensory for the human sense of touch is mostly house in the _____.
skin
256
Glabrous skin
skin that lacks hair
257
Epidermis
Tough outer layer of dead skin cells
258
Dermis
The living layer
259
Hypodermis
subcutaneous fat cells
260
Merkel Disks
Detect light, sustained pressure and touch
261
meissner's corpuscle
Pressure discrimination
Found concentrated in places where you need a lot of responsiveness to a little input.
262
Root Hair plexus
Detects tickle and light touch
263
Ruffini Endings
Encapsulated pressure sensors
Respond to continuous pressure, e.g. skin stretching
264
Pacinian corpuscles
Deep pressure sensors
Respond to on-off pressure of vibration
265
Temperatures
Free nerve endings
Hot and cold
266
Pain
Free nerve endings
tissue damage
nociceptors
267
Touch receptor physiology:
Merkel Disks
Frequency: 0.3-3 Hz
Perception: Light touch
268
Touch receptor physiology:
Meissner corpuscle
Frequency:3-40 Hz
Perception: Pressure
269
Touch receptor physiology:
Ruffini Endings
Frequency:15-400 Hz
Perception: Stretching
270
Touch receptor physiology:
Pacinian Corpuscle
Frequency: 10-500 Hz
Perception: Vibration
271
Responses to continuous stimulation:
Slow Adapting (SA) Fibers
Merkel disks, Ruffini endings
Continues to respond even to sustained stimuli
272
Responses to continuous stimulation:
Meissner coruscles, pacinian corpuscles
Respond with a burst of firing at the beginning and end of stimulation
273
Receptive Field
The area of skin controlled by the receptor
274
Receptive field size determines _____.
Spacial Resolution
275
Net perception of touch is determined by information from all _____.
Mechano receptors
276
Touch Receptor Location and Response:
Merkel Disk
Location: Epidermis (near dermis border)
Response: Slow
277
Touch Receptor Location and Response:
Meissner Corpuscle
Location: Dermis (Just below the epidermis)
Response: Rapid
278
Touch Receptor Location and Response:
Ruffini Endings
Location: Dermis
Response: Slow
279
Touch Receptor Location and Response:
Pacinian Coruscle
Location: Dermis (deep in subcutaneous fat)
Response: Rapid
280
Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:
Merkel Disk
Receptive Field Size: Small
Responds Best To: Steady, sustained touch from small objects
281
Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:
Meissner Corpuscle
Receptive Field Size: Small
Responds Best To: Pressure from rubbing against the skin or skin movement across a surface
282
Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:
Ruffini Endings
Receptive Field Size: large
Responds Best To: Stretching of the skin (e.g. joint movement)
283
Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:
Pacinian Coruscle
Receptive Field Size: Large
Responds Best To: Vibrations from machinery (esp. changes in stimulation)
284
Kinesthetic Receptors
sensory mechanoreceptors in muscles, tendons, and joints
285
Muscle spindles
Specialized structures that lie between principle muscle fibers of skeletal musle
286
Golgi Tendon Organs
Sensory nerve ending embedded in the tendons that senses changes in muscle tension
287
Touch sensory in the skin are more densely packed in the _____ than on the back
Fingertips
288
Difference in the _____ of mechanoreceptors and size of _____ fields exists across the entire body.
Density; Receptive
289
Two-point threshold
How far apart two points need to be to be discriminable
290
Tactile Acuity Vs. Sensitivity:
Merkel Disks
High density
Small receptive fields
Low convergence
High acuity
291
