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nursing 111 > exam 2 study guide > Flashcards

exam 2 study guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What regulates ABGs?

A

Kidneys and lungs.

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2
Q

What do ABGs measure?

A

pH, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate.

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3
Q

What is the normal range for pH in ABGs?

A

7.35-7.45.

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4
Q

What is the normal range for CO2 in ABGs?

A

35-45.

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5
Q

What is the normal range for HCO3 in ABGs?

A

22-26.

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6
Q

What condition can a patient develop after 48 hours of diarrhea?

A

Metabolic acidosis.

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7
Q

What is the intoxication blood level range for alcohol?

A

11-200 mg/dl.

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8
Q

What symptoms are associated with alcohol withdrawal?

A

CNS depressants, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, hypo/hypertension, vomiting.

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9
Q

What blood level can lead to death in alcohol intoxication?

A

400-700 mg/dl.

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10
Q

When does alcohol withdrawal typically start?

A

4-12 hours after the final drink.

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

A

Confusion, agitation, hallucinations, tremors, fever, tachycardia, hypertension, seizures.

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12
Q

What is alcoholism defined as?

A

Chronic disease inability to control or stop alcohol consumption despite negative consequences.

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13
Q

List some mental health issues associated with alcoholism.

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Increased risk for suicide.
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14
Q

What are some interventions for alcoholism?

A
  • Supportive care
  • Withdrawal management
  • Patient education and support.
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15
Q

What is Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, cognition, and behavior.

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16
Q

What are some interventions for patients with Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
  • Assess and monitor pain and cognitive function
  • Safety and environmental modifications
  • Offer medications like cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Cognitive stimulation and physical activity
  • Educate caregiver and support
  • Nutrition support
  • Support groups.
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17
Q

What characterizes Stage 1 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

No apparent decline in memory.

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18
Q

What happens in Stage 2 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Individual begins to lose things or forget names, with noticeable short-term memory loss.

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19
Q

What are symptoms of Stage 3 Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Interference with work, getting lost while driving, hard to concentrate, difficulty recalling names and words.

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20
Q

What occurs in Stage 4 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Forget major events in personal history, decline in ability to perform tasks, denial of the problem through confabulation.

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21
Q

What characterizes Stage 5 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Loss of ability to perform some ADLs, forget addresses and names, disoriented about time and place.

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22
Q

What symptoms are present in Stage 6 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Misidentification of people, disorientation, inability to manage ADLs without assistance, delusions, incontinence, sleeping problems.

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23
Q

What occurs in Stage 7 of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Inability to recognize family, bedfast, aphasic, immobility.

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24
Q

What is aphasia?

A

Language disorder from brain damage affecting ability to communicate.

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25
What are some interventions for patients with aphasia?
* Speech therapy * Functional communication methods (e.g., communication board, gestures).
26
What is ataxia?
Neurological disorder causing lack of coordination and balance.
27
List some causes of ataxia.
* Genetics (Friedreich ataxia) * Nutritional deficiency (vitamin E/B12) * Toxins and medications (phenytoin/carbamazepine) * Other (MS).
28
What are some interventions for ataxia?
* Assess with Romberg test * Support and rehabilitation * Nutritional support.
29
What are the manifestations of bacterial pneumonia?
* Productive cough (yellow, rusty, bloodstreaked) * Fever * Chills * Tachycardia * Tachypnea * Dyspnea * Pleural pain * Malaise * Respiratory distress.
30
What are the diagnostic tools for bacterial pneumonia?
* Sputum culture * Chest x-ray * ABGs * Increased WBC.
31
What is the definition of COPD?
Airway flow limitation that is progressive and not fully reversible.
32
What occurs in emphysema?
Destruction of alveoli.
33
What characterizes chronic bronchitis?
THE BLUE PUFFER Presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years.
34
What are the common complications of COPD?
* Hypoxemia * Respiratory acidosis * Respiratory infections * Cardiac arrhythmias * Cardiac failure.
35
What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema?
THE PINK PUFFER * Dyspnea * Shortness of breath * Pursed lip breathing * Wheezing * Barrel chest.
36
What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis?
* Cough * Sputum * Dyspnea.
37
What tasks can be delegated to a CNA?
* Vital signs * Oral hygiene * Feeding * Ambulation * Repositioning * Suctioning (if stable) * ADLs.
38
What is empyema?
Infection in the pleural space.
39
What are some interventions for empyema?
* Thoracentesis * Orthopneic position * Breathing exercises * Chest tube * Antibiotics.
40
What is a pleural effusion?
Build-up of fluid between the tissues that line the lungs and chest.
41
What is a pneumothorax?
Air enters the chest, causing lung collapse.
42
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Neuro assessment tool used to evaluate LOC after brain injury.
43
What does a GCS score of 15 indicate?
Great level of consciousness.
44
What does a GCS score of less than 3 indicate?
Dead.
45
What are the components of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
* Eyes (4) * Verbal (5) * Motor (6).
46
What should be included in hand-off for a neuro patient?
* GCS * Vital signs * Type of stroke * Signs of aspiration.
47
What are some signs of cerebral vasospasm after a hemorrhagic stroke?
* Fevers * Neck stiffness * Mild confusion * Paralysis of one side of the body.
48
What are the interventions for an infected surgical wound?
* Assess drains, wound, dressings * Assess for pain, fever, increased HR, WBC. * Conduct a wound culture if drainage is present.
49
What are IV biggy back medications?
IV medications that are compatible with IV fluids.
50
What is an IV push (bolus)?
Med pushed into IV or IV line.
51
What is an IV infusion?
Continuous or intermittent IV fluids (piggyback).
52
What is an IV drip?
Medications mixed in fluids given at a controlled rate.
53
What is infiltration in IV therapy?
Fluid leaks around tissue.
54
What should be done if infiltration occurs?
Remove IV, elevate arm, apply ice.
55
What is phlebitis?
Inflammation of the vein.
56
What should be done if phlebitis occurs?
Remove IV, apply heat.
57
What is labile mood?
Exaggerated changes in mood, strong emotions, uncontrollable laughing or crying.
58
What is the Mini-Mental Status Exam?
An 11-question assessment checking 6 abilities.
59
List the 6 areas assessed in the Mini-Mental Status Exam.
* Orientation to time and place * Attention/concentration * Short-term memory recall * Language skills * Visuospatial abilities * Following instructions/understanding.
60
What is an effective communication strategy for patients with paranoid thoughts?
* Non-confrontational * Empathetic * Calm. * Clear and non-judgmental.
61
What are post-operative interventions?
* Monitor neuro changes * Vital signs * Pulses, color, temperature * Urine output, pain * Skin/surgical incision wounds.
62
What are post-surgical complications?
* Risk for ineffective airway * Acute pain * Risk for decreased cardiac output.
63
What is the purpose of a surgical time out?
To verify correct patient, procedure, surgeon, position, equipment, imaging studies, devices in body, and pre-surgery medications.
64
What is therapeutic communication?
Ongoing process of interaction in which meaning emerges.
65
When should discharge planning start?
As soon as the patient arrives.
66
When should patient teaching occur?
As soon as diagnosis is made.
67
What are the types of strokes?
* Ischemic stroke * Thrombotic stroke * Embolic stroke * Hemorrhagic stroke.
68
What is the role of tPA in stroke treatment?
Removes clots in arteries and restores blood flow.
69
When should tPA be administered?
Within 4.5 hours of ischemic stroke symptoms.
70
What is a side effect of tPA?
Increased risk for bleeding.
71
What should be ensured for patient safety while administering tPA?
Protect from falls and trauma.
72
what is tissue hypoxia?
when the oxygen demand exceeds supply and tissue becomes hypoxic.
73
what is anaerobic metabolism?
when oxygen supply is low, cells switch from aerobic to anearobic metabolism, which is less effective
74
what is hypoxia-meditated gene regulatory network?
prolonged hypoxia can trigger a gene expression cascade and alters cellular function.
75
what makes up the upper respiratory tract?
nose mouth sinuses pharynx larynx bronchi
76
what makes up the lower respiratory tract?
trachea bronchial tubes lungs alveoli
77
what is septicemia?
infection in the blood
78
what is tactile fremitus?
vibration felt on pt wall when they speak
79
When do retractions happen?
on inspiration
80
when are cough drops ordered?
at night
81
what is rhinorreah
Runny nose
82
what does Narcan do?
a medication that rapidly reverses an opioid overdose
83
what is antabuse?
a medication used in the treatment of alcohol use disorders by producing unpleasant side effects and sensitivity to alcohol. It is designed as a deterrent to drinking. When alcohol enters the body, it is converted into acetaldehyde and then into acetic acid.
84
what is mania?
an alteration in mood that is expressed by feelings of elation, inflated self-esteem, grandiosity, hyperactivity, agitation, and accelerated thinking and speaking.
85
what is bipolar 1 disorder?
The diagnosis given to a client who is currently experiencing a manic episode or has a history of one or more manic episodes. May also have experienced episodes of depression
86
what is bipolar 2 disorder?
Characterized by bouts of major depression with episodic occurrence of hypomania Has never met criteria for full manic episode
87
interventions for Lithium toxicity?
have levels drawn all the time until pt is stabilized then after that once a month
88
what is titinitus?
ringing in the ear
89
what is apraxia?
inability to carry out purposeful motor skills and unable to make connections in the brain
90
what is lewy bodies?
a fast progressive form of dementia
91
what causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
severe deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1)
92
what scale is used for alcohol withdraw?
CIWA scale

nursing 111 (2 decks)

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