Exam 2010 Flashcards

1
Q

an example of a phase-non specific drug is a) docetaxel (taxotere) b) cisplatin (platinol) c) methotrexate (folex) d) fludarabine (fludara)

A

b) cisplatin (platinol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which of the following mechanisms contributes to anti-cancer activity of anthracyclines?

a) anthracycline inhibition of tubulin polymerization
b) anthracycline inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
c) anthracycline inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) anthracyclines decompose into reactive alkylating metabolites and isocyanate compounds which kill dividing cells.

A

c) anthracycline inhibition of topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)?

a) trastuzumab (herceptin)
b) gefitinib (iressa)
c) erlotinib (tarceva)
d) bevacizumab (avastin)

A

d) bevacizumab (avastin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Based on the FDA’s drug-in-pregnancy rating scale, which of the following drugs is an example of ta category X drug?

a) acetaminophen (tylenol)
b) thalidomide (thalomid)
c) metformin (glucophage)
d) dephenydramine (benadryl)

A

b) thalidomide (thalomid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which of the following statements is TRUE regarding drugs and teratogenesis?

a) the greater the drug exposure, the more severe the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus.
b) the placenta serves as an adequate shield to reduce fetal exposure to most agents consumed by the mother
c) consumption of a toxic agent by the father is unlikely to affect the fetus
d) if a drug does not show teratogenic effects in animal models, the drug does not pose any risk to human fetal development

A

a) the greater the drug exposure, the more severe the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the antibacterial action of minocycline (minocin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

a) folic acid synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
d) cell-wall synthesis

A

b) protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the antibacterial action of amoxicillin/calvulanate (augmentin) is due to its inhibition of bacerial

a) cell-wall synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) folic acid synthesis
d) DNA replication

A

a) cell-wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the antibacterial action of Cefepime (maxiprime) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

a) cell-wall synthesis
b) DNA replication
c) folic acid synthesis
d) protein synthesis

A

a) cell-wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the antibacterial action of bacitracin (baciguent) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

a) DNA replication
b) protein synthesis
c) folic acid synthesis
d) cell-wall synthesis

A

d) cell-wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which of the following drugs is useful for the treatment of gram-positive bacterial infections of MRSA

a) penicillin G benzathine (bicillin)
b) methicillin (staphcillin)
c) vancomycin (vancocin)
d) dicloxacillin (dynapen)

A

c) vancomycin (vancocin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rod(D) immune globuline (Rhogam)

a) blocks antigen recognition
b) inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
c) is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
d) is an inhibitor of mTOR

A

a) blocks antigen recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sirolimus (Rapamune)

a) blocks antigen recognition
b) inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
c) is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
d) is an inhibitor of mTOR

A

d) is an inhibitor of mTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)

a) blocks antigen recognition
b) inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
c) is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
d) is an inhibitor of mTOR

A

b) inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (cellcept)

a) blocks antigen recognition
b) inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
c) is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
d) is an inhibitor of mTOR

A

c) is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____________ inhibits two steps in the bacterial folate biosynthesis pathway.

a) ciprofloxacin (cipro)
b) sulfisoxazole (gantrinsin)
c) trimethoprim (primsol)
d) co-trimoxazole (bactrim)
e) sulfasalazine (azulfidine)

A

d) co-trimoxazole (bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__________ is a fluoroquinolone used in the treatment of inhalational anthrax infection

a) ciprofloxacin (cipro)
b) sulfisoxazole (gantrinsin)
c) trimethoprim (primsol)
d) co-trimoxazole (bactrim)
e) sulfasalazine (azulfidine)

A

a) ciprofloxacin (cipro)

17
Q

_____ is a highly soluble sulfonamide used for the treatment of systemic bacterial infections

a) ciprofloxacin (cipro)
b) sulfisoxazole (gantrinsin)
c) trimethoprim (primsol)
d) co-trimoxazole (bactrim)
e) sulfasalazine (azulfidine)

A

b) sulfisoxazole (gantrinsin)

18
Q

_____ inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

a) ciprofloxacin (cipro)
b) sulfisoxazole (gantrinsin)
c) trimethoprim (primsol)
d) co-trimoxazole (bactrim)
e) sulfasalazine (azulfidine)

A

c) trimethoprim (primsol)

19
Q

_______ is the most commonly used aminoglycoside due to its low cost and reliable antibacterial activity

a) rifampin (rifadin)
b) isoniazid (INH)
c) streptomycin
d) amikacin (amikin)
e) gentamicin (garamycin)

A

e) gentamicin (garamycin)

20
Q

____ inhibits mycobacterial cell-wall biosynthesis

a) rifampin (rifadin)
b) isoniazid (INH)
c) streptomycin
d) amikacin (amikin)
e) gentamicin (garamycin)

A

b) isoniazid (INH)

21
Q

_____ is a first line antituberculosis agent that inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase.

a) rifampin (rifadin)
b) isoniazid (INH)
c) streptomycin
d) amikacin (amikin)
e) gentamicin (garamycin)

A

a) rifampin (rifadin)

22
Q

______ is a semisynthetic derivative of kanamycin for drug resistance

a) rifampin (rifadin)
b) isoniazid (INH)
c) streptomycin
d) amikacin (amikin)
e) gentamicin (garamycin)

A

d) amikacin (amikin)

23
Q

____ binds to M2 protein of influenza A virus for the treatment of influenza viral infections

a) amantadine (symmetrel)
b) caspofungin (cancidas)
c) fluconazole (diflucan)
d) amphotericin B (amphocin)
e) acyclovir (zovirax)

A

a) amantadine (symmetrel)

24
Q

____ is a pro-drug specifically activated in cells infected by herpes simplex virus

a) amantadine (symmetrel)
b) caspofungin (cancidas)
c) fluconazole (diflucan)
d) amphotericin B (amphocin)
e) acyclovir (zovirax)

A

e) acyclovir (zovirax)

25
Q

_____ is a triazole used in the treatment of fungal meningitis

a) amantadine (symmetrel)
b) caspofungin (cancidas)
c) fluconazole (diflucan)
d) amphotericin B (amphocin)
e) acyclovir (zovirax)

A

d) amphotericin B (amphocin)

26
Q

_____ blocks fungal cell wall biosynthesis through inhibiting glucan synthase

a) amantadine (symmetrel)
b) caspofungin (cancidas)
c) fluconazole (diflucan)
d) amphotericin B (amphocin)
e) acyclovir (zovirax)

A

b) caspofungin (cancidas)

27
Q

True or False:

Drug-induced fever is a common allergic reation to long-term treatment with certain beta-lactam antibiotics

A

true

28
Q

True or False:

the addition of antibiotics to livestock food in large-scale agricultural feedlots is a major contributor to community-acquired resistant strains of bacteria.

A

true

29
Q

True or False:

Future strategies to circumvent antibiotic resistance include the development of new drugs that challenge bug survival (i.e. that are bactericidal)

A

False