Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

assessment of an animal condition after injecting toxic product

A

TPR - temperature, pulse, respiration
CRT - capillary refill time
MM - mucous membranes

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2
Q

obvious signs of intoxication

A

GI signs
ataxia - walking uncoordinated
unconscious
seizing
cardiovascular or respiratory distress

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3
Q

decontamination is dependent on

A

the agent and the status of the patient

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4
Q

how to tell what decontamination protocol to follow?

A

call poison control

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5
Q

emesis

A

throwing up

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6
Q

what are drugs to make the animal throw up?

A

apomorphine
hydrogen peroxide

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7
Q

toxic component of chocolate

A

methylxanthines

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8
Q

toxic component of antifreeze

A

ethylene glycol

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9
Q

how long can you wait to treat intoxication with antifreeze?

A

within 8-12 hours of exposure

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10
Q

what is the result of antifreeze ingestion?

A

calcium oxalate crystals

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11
Q

artificial sweetener in gum/candy

A

xylitol

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12
Q

what is the toxic plant in florida?

A

sago palm

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13
Q

lilies are only toxic to

A

cats - result in kidney failure

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14
Q

grapes and raisins are toxic to

A

dogs - result in kidney failure

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15
Q

onions are toxic to

A

cats more susceptible than dogs

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16
Q

what do onions cause?

A

hemolytic anemia

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17
Q

ibuprofen is ____ toxicity

A

NSAID

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18
Q

Acitaminophen common drug name

A

tylenol

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19
Q

what does acetaminophen cause?

A

hemolytic anemia and liver failure

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20
Q

what do vitamin D rodenticides cause?

A

hypercalcemia and hyperphophatemia
results in kidney failure and irreversible mineralization of tissues

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21
Q

what do anticoagulant rodenticides do?

A

block activation of Vit K dependent clotting factors
results in generalized hemorrhage

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22
Q

bufo toads secrete

A

bufotoxin

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23
Q

phases of wound healing

A
  • inflammatory phase
  • proliferative phase
  • maturation phase
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24
Q

inflammatory phase of wound healing happens

A

immediately and lasts 3-5 days

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25
what happens in the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
clot forms in the wound to control bleeding and stabilize the wound edges inflammatory cells enter the wound and begin removing bacteria/debris
26
when does the proliferative phase of wound healing happen?
2-3 days after injury and can last weeks
27
what occurs during the proliferative phase of wound healing?
- fibroblasts and endothelial cells enter the wound - granulation tissue begins filling the wound - barrier against infection - epithelialization begins 4-5 days after injury - occurs from the wound edges and moves inward
28
what is the proliferative phase that can occur in horses?
proud flesh
29
when does the maturation phase of wound healing occur?
around 3 weeks after injury and lasts months
30
what happens during the maturation phase of wound healing?
remodeling and realignment of the collagen fibers time period where wound is regaining strength but it will never be as strong as the original tissue
31
immediate wound care techniques
cover with clean dry bandage water soluble antibiotic ointments no antibiotic creams or powders sugar and honey hair removal from around the wound cleaning with chlorhex soln, not scrub
32
wound lavage is
wound flush
33
why do we flush wounds?
remove debris and loose particles
34
what should the lavage pressure be?
8-12 PSI 32 mL syringe with an 18g needle
35
why is wound debridement done?
remove contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissues, foreign material
36
how is wound debridement done?
surgical excision of affected tissue enzymatic debridement hypertonic solutions (honey/sugar) medical grade maggots
37
what are the considerations we take when we want to close a wound?
time since injury degree of contamination amount of tissue damage blood supply to wound animal health closure without tension or dead space location of wound
38
primary wound closure can be done when
there is minimal trauma and contamination to the wound
39
what is the golden period to suture a wound?
6-8 hours
40
what does suturing during the golden period result in ?
healing by first intention - appositional healing
41
delayed primary wound closure takes place
1-3 days after injury before granulation tissue appears mildly contaminated wounds minimally traumatized wounds some cleaning and debridement still takes place
42
second intention wound healing is when
the wound is allowed to heal without surgical closure
43
when is second intention wound healing used?
when the wound is dirty/contaminated and traumatized cleansing and debridement necessary
44
when does third intention healing take place?
sutured at least 3-5 days after injury
45
what are the indications of third intention healing?
granulation tissue is present wound is severely contaminated wound is severely traumatized epithelialization and contraction will not completely close the wound second intention healing is not desirable
46
how do bandages promote wound healing?
protect from additional trauma, contamination prevent wound desiccation, hematoma formation, seroma formation immobilize the wound minimize postoperative edema around incisions and exuberant granulation tissue formation in open wounds on lower limbs of horses absorb wound exudate and lift away foreign material or loose tissue adhering to bandage promote acid environment increasing oxygen availability in the wound keep the wound warm
47
bandage primary contact layer
adherant or nonadherant occlusive or nonacclusive direct contact with wound surface
48
bandage secondary contact layer
absorbent padded conforming layer of cast padding or roll cotton covers primary contact layer supports wound
49
bandage teritary layer
holding and protective layer gauze and elastic or adhesive tape nonocculsive is preferred so air can transfer and moisture can enter and exit
50
steps in bandage placement
- apply anchoring tapes (stirrups) - apply primary contact layer (contact) - apply secondary layer (padded) - apply tertiary layer (conforming) - apply splint - reflect, twist, and adhere tape stirrups to gauze - apply tertiary (protective) tape
51
what do casts do?
stabilize fractures distal to the elbow/stifle immobilize limbs to protect ligament or tendon repairs
52
where should casts be placed?
1 joint above and below any fracture
53
what layer is cast material applied instead of?
tertiary layer
54
robert jones bandage
thick
55
modified robert jones bandage
thinner and the toes stick out
56
what is the aftercare for bandaging?
assess toes foul odors chafing no chewing restrict exercise
57
a clinical hypersensitivity state or allergy with a hereditary predisposition
atopy
58
alopecia
hair loss
59
died adherent exudate found on the skin surface which can consist of pus, serum, blood, scale, and topical medications
crusts
60
an accumulation of the loose fragments of the cornified layer of the skin
scale
61
small solid elevation of the skin up to 1 cm which is palpable
papule
62
papule with visble exudate
pustule
63
scale arranged in a circular rim
epidermal collarette
64
when do we use skin scrapes?
identifying mites that cause mange
65
bacterial and fungal cultures
dematophyte test media - skin is plucked and tests for the presence of dermatophytes bacteria culture - sent out to lab
66
what is the lamp called to test for ringworm?
wood's lamp
67
what is impression smears/cytology used for?
evaluate for surface infection bacteria yeast inflammatory cells
68
what are the two allergy testing methods?
serum - measures IgE in circulations ADV - cost effective can be performed in any vet clinic DIS - not as accurate as skin testing intradermal - gold standard ADV - most accurate way to determine allergies DIS - requires referral and increased cost
69
dermatophytosis
ringworm
70
what are the two types of infections that are not itchy?
ringworm and demodectic mange
71
pyoderma is
infection of the skin
72
where is sarcoptic mange located usually?
ears, elbows, hocks, ventrum pinnal pedal reflex may be present
73
What is a neonate?
The first 2-4 weeks of life.
74
During the neonatal period the baby depends on the mother for
Nutrition Thermoregulation Care
75
What to check when doing a neonate evaluation
Hydration status (mucous membranes) Body hair - should cover most of the body except the abdomen Ventral abdominal skin should be dark pink Discharge from orifices Body symmetry Weight
76
First week developmental landmarks
Sleep 80% of the day Nurse every 2-4 hours Motor skills Respond to stimuli Elimination stimulated by dam Sex determination
77
Second week developmental landmarks
Begin to crawl in coordinated manner Body temp rises Double their birth weight Eyes open Ear canals open
78
Third week developmental
Puppies and kittens are able to stand Good postural reflexes present
79
Hypoglycemia
Poor ability to synthesize glucose in the undeveloped liver. Will result when neonate fails to nurse after 24-36 hours.
80
What is one of the most common diseases in the neonate?
Hypoglycemia
81
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Occurs with blood type B queens - high levels of naturally occurring antibodies against type A RBCs. - so when a kitten with blood type A ingests colostrum from a queen with blood type B the antibodies in the colostrum attack the kittens RBCs.
82
Fading puppy/kitten syndrome
A syndrome, not a particular diagnosis Causes - poor management, malnutrition, environment, genetic defects, infections
83
Common problems with orphans
Overfeeding Underfeeding Overcrowding Improper hygiene Too many foster animals per person Damp bedding Cold, drafty environment
84
Reproductive cycle beginnings
Higher brain centers —> hypothalamus (GnRH released) —-> anterior pituitary (FSH & LH released) ——> ovary (estrogen & progesterone released)
85
GnRH is from
Hypothalamus
86
FSH is from
Anterior pituitary Results in follicular growth in the female Results in growth and release of sperm cells in male
87
Estrogen is from
The ovary
88
What is estrogen responsible for>
External signs of estrus
89
LH is from
The anterior pituitary Results in ovulation in female Results in testosterone production in the male
90
Progesterone is from
The ovary (CL) or the uterus during preganancy
91
Inhibin is from the
Follicle
92
PGF2A is realeased fro the
Uterus Causes CL regression
93
Process of ovulation occurs when
The anterior pituitary releases FSH which results in follicular growth/development
94
After ovulation the follicle fills with blood, called the
Corpus hemorrhagicum (CH)
95
Puberty in female k9
Between 6-24 months of age
96
Proestrus in k9
9 days
97
Estrus in k9
9 days
98
Diestrus in k9
58 days
99
Anestrus in k9
4 months
100
Proestrus through anestrus lasts about _____ in the female dog
6 months
101
Ovulation occurs during
Estrus
102
Diestrus is controlled by
Progesterone
103
Site of fertilization
Ampulla/isthmus junction
104
Preganancy process
Embryonic disk resides in the uterus Embryonic disk develops to more complex structure Placenta cells develop into chorion and Allantois Two fluid sacs surround fetus
105
Parturition preparations
Fetal endocrine system sends signals to trigger changes in parental endocrine/reproductive system to cause parturition High cortisol concentrations cause hormonal changes Hormonal changes trigger cervix dial action and uterine contraction
106
3 stage process of parturition
Stage 1 - preparation for delivery - pelvic ligaments relax, cervix softens, female is restless, uterine contractions without abdominal contractions, averages 6-12 hours Stage 2 - fetal expulsion - 20-60 mins per puppy - ranges 3-6 hours up to 24 hours Stage 3 - expulsion of placenta
107
Pregnancy determination in the canine
Abdominal palapation Hormone assay - relaxin Ultrasound Radiography after day 45 can see ossification of fetal skeleton