Exam 3 Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

1) ________ refers to a state of physical and emotional exhaustion that can result from constant exposure to stress over a long period of time.

A

Employee burnout

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2
Q

Aligning the workforce refers to ________.

A

matching the right employees to the right jobs at the right time

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3
Q

An overall environment that results from job and work conditions is called ________.

A

quality of work life

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4
Q

Which of the following is, in part, a contributor to the gender pay gap?

A

Opportunity

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5
Q

An environment where one is made to feel uncomfortable by lewd jokes, remarks, or gestures could be considered to support ________.

A

sexual harassment

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6
Q

________ made it illegal for employers to practice sexism or discrimination on the basis of gender.

A

The Civil Rights Act of 1964

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7
Q

The ________ is a metaphor for discriminatory practices that have prevented women and minorities from advancing to executive level jobs.

A

glass ceiling

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8
Q

The various characteristics and experiences that define individuals is called ________.

A

diversity

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9
Q

Which of the following designates any ethnic segment other than white Americans of European descent?

A

Minority

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10
Q

________ refers to a statement of the tasks involved in a given job and the conditions under which the holder of a job will work.

A

Job description

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11
Q

________ refers to a statement describing the kind of person who would be best for a given job—including the skills, education, and previous experience that the job requires.

A

Job specification

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12
Q

________ refers to the percentage of the workforce that leaves every year.

A

Turnover

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13
Q

The term ________ represents workforce planning efforts that identify possible replacements for specific employees, usually senior executives.

A

succession planning

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14
Q

Which of the following alternative work arrangements allow two or more employees to share a single full-time job, and split the salary and benefits?

A

Job sharing

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15
Q

The process of attracting appropriate applicants for an organization’s jobs is known as ________.

A

recruiting

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16
Q

Which of the following acts prohibits any form of testing that can be construed as a pre-employment medical examination?

A

Americans with Disabilities Act

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17
Q

________ services, such as resume-writing courses, career counseling, and secretarial assistance are offered to laid-off employees by many companies.

A

Outplacement

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18
Q

The ________ provides retirement, disability and medical coverage for employees and their dependents and is jointly funded by employers and employees.

A

Social Security Act

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19
Q

Which of the following is the action of laying off employees for economic or business reasons not related to employee performance?

A

Layoffs

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20
Q

________ supports the concept that an employee can be fired or quit their employment at any time.

A

At-will employment

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21
Q

A(n) ________ identifies both the current skill levels of the company’s workforce as well as those the company needs in order to succeed.

A

skills inventory

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22
Q

What is used to clarify job requirements and give employees feedback on their performance?

A

Performance appraisals

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23
Q

A wage differs from salary in that the wage ________.

A

is paid by the unit of time such as daily or weekly

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24
Q

________ refers to an incentive program that rewards employees for meeting specific, individual goals.

A

Pay for performance

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25
________ refers to pay tied to an employee's acquisition of skills.
Knowledge-based pay
26
________ is a defined contribution retirement plan in which employers often match the amount employees invest.
401(k) plan
27
Which of the following enables employees to acquire shares in a company?
An employee stock-ownership plan
28
A(n) ________ refers to a company-sponsored counseling or referral plan for employees with personal problems.
employee assistance program
29
Which of the following allows workers up to 12 weeks unpaid leave to care for a family member with a serious illness?
Family Medical Leave Act
30
Typically, labor unions seek to protect employee interests by ________.
negotiating with employers for better wages and benefits
31
Which of the following is an advantage of joining a labor union?
Union members receive greater benefits compared to non-union employees.
32
Which of the following refers to the relationship between organized labor and business owners?
Labor relations
33
What is management's top priority when having to work with unions in the organization?
Making sure the firm can stay competitive
34
How do wants differ from needs?
Wants are the core of all marketing efforts.
35
________ utility is the benefit provided by making the company's products available where customers want to purchase them.
Place
36
In addition to the ideas of and exchange of value, which of the following is one of the three essential elements of successful marketing?
Lasting relationships
37
What type of utility is created when a customer actually purchases and has a product?
Possession
38
The process of collecting and interpreting information about customers, competitors, and other related marketing issues is known as ________.
marketing research
39
Companies use ________ in an effort to capture everything current and potential customers say and write about the company and its products.
voice of the customer
40
Tension that exists when a person's beliefs don't match his or her behaviors is called ________.
cognitive dissonance
41
Consumers markets include ________.
Households
42
Which of the following influence our purchase decisions by shaping values, attitudes, and beliefs?
culture
43
________ involves selling more of your existing products into the markets you already serve.
Market penetration
44
Creating new goods and services for a firm's current markets is called ________.
product development
45
A firm's portion of the total sales within a market is its ________.
market share
46
Grouping customers with similar characteristics, behaviors, and needs is known as ________.
market segmentation
47
The study of the statistical characteristics of a population is called ________.
demographics
48
________ refers to the categorization of customers according to their relationship with products or response to product characteristics.
Behavioral segmentation
49
________ consists of the four key elements of marketing strategy: product, price, distribution, and customer communication.
Marketing Mix
50
______ is an element of the marketing mix that refers to a wide variety of persuasive techniques used by companies to communicate with their target markets and the general public.
Promotion
51
Which of the following is referred to as the bundle of value offered in a marketing exchange, for the purpose of satisfying a need or want?
product
52
The value captured from customers in exchange for the value offered in a product determines ________.
Price
53
The organized network that moves a product from the producer to the customer is known as the ________.
distribution channel
54
The sensitivity of consumers to changes in the price of a product is reflected in
price elasticity
55
56) Which of the following can be categorized as a good? A) Life insurance B) Air travel C) Financial advice D) Shoes E) Digital music
Shoes
56
A product is called a good if ________.
it is predominantly tangible
57
________ are everyday individual goods and services that people buy frequently without much conscious planning.
Convenience product
58
________ are fairly important individual goods and services that people buy less frequently.
Shopping products
59
________ are particular brands that the buyer especially wants and will seek out regardless of location or price.
Specialty products
60
_______ are expensive organizational products with a long useful life.
Capital Products
61
Research and development is carried out usually during the ________ stage of product development.
introductory
62
The ________ stage of the product life cycle is marked by a rapid increase in sales.
growth
63
_______ is a product development stage in which a product is sold on a limited basis to gauge its market appeal.
Test marketing
64
During the final stage of development, large-scale production and distribution of the product begins the process of ________.
product launch
65
A survey revealed that a product has a high level of brand loyalty. This means that ________.
people are committed to the brand
66
Which of the following best describes a brand?
The core value associated with a product
67
The portion of the brand that can be spoken and can include words, letters, or number is referred to as the ________.
brand name
68
Which of the following refers to a graphical representation of a brand?
Logo
69
________ refer to brands that have been given legal protection so that their owners have exclusive rights to their use.
Trademarks
70
Co-branding is ________
a partnership to closely link brand names for a single product
71
________ is an agreement to use another company's brand on its products for a fee.
A license
72
Brands offered and promoted by a national manufacturer are considered to be ________.
national brand
73
Which of the following refers to creating variations of an existing product?
Line stretchin
74
________ refers to using a successful brand name on new products in the hopes that the reputation of the existing product will help sales of the new product.
Brand extension
75
A company strategy of providing fewer products and selling more of each of those products can lower production costs through ________.
economies of scale
76
Which of the following offers better opportunities for manufacturers of specialized or low-volume products to reach customers?
Online retailin
77
When extending a product to an overseas market, what type of governmental influences must be considered?
Tariffs and trade barriers
78
How does a firm determine the number of units they must sell to pay for fixed and variable costs?
Break-even analysis
79
The conventional promotion model differs from the social model of customer communication in that the conventional promotion model ________.
tends to be intrusive and unidirectional
80
The defining characteristic of ________ is that it tells past customers that a product is still available or a company is ready to serve their needs.
reminder advertising
81
The single most important idea the company hopes to convey to its target audience about a product is the ________.
core message
82
A promotional strategy that focuses on intermediaries is termed as ________.
push strategy
83
A promotional strategy that directly stimulates consumer demand via advertising and other communication efforts is known as ________.
pull strategy
84
Trying to attract buyers by advertising a product that you don't intend to sell, and then trying to sell them another, usually more expensive, product is known as ________.
bait-and-switch advertising
85
The government agency that has the authority to impose penalties against advertisers who violate federal standards for truthful advertising is the ________.
Federal Trade Commission
86
________ refers to a creative tactic designed to capture the audience's attention and promote preference for the product or company being advertised.
Advertising appeal
87
The ad that tells you to "call within the next ten minutes because supplies are limited" is using advertising appeal based on ________.
scarcity
88
Which of the following enables a company to personalize its interaction with every customer?
Customer databases
89
One-on-one interaction between a salesperson and a prospective buyer is called ________.
direct marketing
90
In ________, a salesperson acts as an advisor who helps current and potential customers find the best solutions to their personal or business needs.
consultative selling
91
The process of finding and qualifying potential customers is known as ________.
prospecting
92
If a potential customer has a concern or objection, what should a salesperson do?
Have answers and alternatives ready
93
During which step of the sales process should salespeople make sure customers are satisfied and ask for referrals to other customers?
Following up
94
________ involve(s) short-term incentives to build the reputation of a brand and stimulate interest in a product.
Institutional advertising
95
________ refer(s) to intermediaries that sell products to other intermediaries for resale or to organizations for internal use.
Wholesalers
96
Which of the following is a key difference between financial accounting and management accounting?
Financial accounting is concerned with preparing cost analysis, whereas management accounting is concerned with creating reports.
97
Bookkeeping refers to ________.
recording the economic activities of the business
98
Which of the following refers to evaluating a company's performance and the economic implications of strategic decisions such as product pricing, employee benefits, and business acquisitions?
Financial analysis
99
________ refers to combining accounting and investigating skills to assist in legal and criminal matters.
Forensic accounting
100
A(n) ________ is responsible for overseeing all accounting functions in a company, reports to the CFO or company president, and is the higher-ranking accountant in a company.
controller
101
Which of the following terms refers to a formal evaluation of the integrity and reliability of a company's financial statements?
Audit
102
Public accountants are professionals who provide ________.
accounting services to businesses and individuals for a fee
103
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act outlaws ________.
loans by corporations to their own executives
104
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires ________.
corporate lawyers to report evidence of financial wrongdoing
105
The ________ requires that expenses incurred in producing revenues be deducted from the revenue they generated during the same accounting period.
matching principle
106
________ is an accounting method in which revenue is recorded when a sale is made, and an expense is recorded when the company uses an asset to produce revenue.
Accrual basis
107
________ is an accounting method in which revenue is recorded when payment is received and an expense is recorded when money is paid
Cash basis
108
113) Which of the following is an example of a fixed asset? A) Money-market funds B) Short-term investments C) Accounts receivable D) Transportation equipment E) Cash
Transportation equipment
109
Accounts receivable refers to ________.
amounts that a firm owes to other parties
110
Which of the following is a component of a firm's working capital account?
Long-term loans
111
The ________ includes all other budgets to present a complete and comprehensive view of the company's financial position.
master budget
112
A company can use a(n) ________ to identify all sources of revenue and coordinate the spending of those funds throughout the coming year.
operating budget
113
Short-term financing is financing that will typically be repaid within ________.
one year
114
The maturity date is the date on which ________.
the debt must be repaid
115
________ is an arrangement in which a financial institution makes money available for use at any time after the loan has been approved.
Corporate bond
116
Which of the following handles the initial public offerings of stocks and bonds?
Primary market
117
If stock prices have been increasing over an extended period of time, what type of market is being experienced?
Bull market