exam 3 Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

minor burns information

A
  • treated at the scene and followed up at local ED
  • Full-thickness burn < 2% TBSA
    OR
  • partial-thickness burn < 10% TBSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

moderate burns info

A
  • treated at scene, transported to burn center or specialized facility
  • FTB 2-10%
    OR
    -PTB 15-25%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Major burns info

A
  • require emergency treatment at closest facility, then transfer to burn center immediately
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major burn criteria

A
  • FTB > 10%
  • PTB > 25%
  • > 60 yo
  • has chronic cardiac, pulmonary, or endocrine condition
  • presence of electrical burn
  • presence of inhalation injury or other complicated injury
  • burns to eyes, ears, face, hands, feet, or perineum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

superficial thickness burn

A
  • damage to epidermis
  • pink to red, no blisters, mild edema, no eschar
  • painful/tender, sensitive to heat, heals in 3 to 6 days, no scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

superficial partial thickness burn

A
  • damage to entire epidermis and some parts of dermis
  • pink to red, blisters, mild to moderate edema, no eschar
  • painful, heals within 2 to 3 weeks, no scaring but minor pigment changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Deep partial thickness description

A
  • damage to entire epidermis and deep into dermis
  • red to white, blisters rare, moderate edema, eschar soft and dry
  • painful and sensitive to touch, heals in 2 to 6 wks, scarring likely, possible grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

full-thickness burn description

A
  • damage to entire epi and dermis, can extend into subcutaneous, nerve damage
  • red, black, brown, yellow or white; no blisters; severe edema; eschar hard and inelastic
  • sensation minimal or absent, heals within weeks to months, scarring, grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

deep full thickness burn description

A
  • damage to all layers, extends to muscle, tendons, and bones
  • black, no blisters, no edema, eschar hard and inelastic
  • no pain, heals within weeks to months, scarring and grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

s/s inhalation damage

A

singed nasal hair, eyebrows, eyelashes
sooty sputum
hoarseness
wheezing
edema of nasal septum
smoky smealling breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

indications of impending loss of airway

A
  • hoarseness
    brassy cough
    drooling
    difficulty swallowing
    audible wheezing
    crowing
    stridor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CO inhalation s/s

A

h/a, weakness, confusion, erythmea, upper airway edema followed by sloughing of respiratory tract mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

older adults are at higher risk of what when burned?

A
  • damage to subcutaneous tissue, muscle, connective tissue, and bone (b/c of thinner skin)
  • complications from burns b/c of chronic illnesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Resuscitation phase of burns

A

initial fluid shift, occurs in first 12 hrs continues for 24 to 36 hrs
- priorities include: securing airway, support circulation and organ perfusion by fluid replacement, manage pain, prevent infection, maintain body temp, provide emotional support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Labs for resuscitation phase

A
  • glucose: elevated
  • BUN: Elevated
  • Hct and Hgb: elevated
  • Na: decreased b/c third spacing
  • K: increased due to cell destruction
  • Cl: increased
  • plasma lactate: elevated
  • carboxyhemoglobin: >10 = smoke inhalation
  • ABGs - metabolic acidosis
  • protein blood albumin decreased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fluid remobilization phase of burns

A

starts at 24 hr, diuretic stage begins 48 to 72 hr after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

labs for fluid remobilization phase

A
  • Hgb and Hct: decreased
  • Na: decreased
  • K: decreased
  • WBC: increase, then decrease
  • glucose: elevated
  • ABGs: slight hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis
  • protein and albumin: low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

acute phase of burn

A
  • begins 36 to 48 hr after injury
  • ends when wound closes
  • priorities: assess and maintain CV, resp, GI systems, wound care, pain control, psychosocial interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rehabilitative phase of burn

A
  • when most of burn area has healed
  • ends when client achieves highest level of functioning possible
  • can last for years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nursing care to stop the burning process

A
  • remove clothing or jewelry that may conduct heat
  • apply cool water soaks to run cool water over the injury
  • flush chemical burns w/ a large volume of water
  • cover the burn with a clean cloth to prevent contamination and hypothermia
  • perform ABCDE
  • provide warmth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

nursing care for minor burns

A
  • provide analgesics
  • cleanse with mild soap and tepid water; avoid friction
  • use antimicrobial ointment
  • apply nonadherent, hydrocolloid dressing if clothing is irritating burn
  • avoid greasy lotions or butters
  • determine need for tetanus shot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

s/s of resuscitation phase for moderate and major burns

A
  • tachycardia
  • increased respiratory rate
  • decreased GI motility
  • increased blood glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

respiratory system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • assess respiratory rate and depth
  • monitor chest expansion
  • upper airway edema may become pronounced 8 - 12 hr after beginning fluid resusitation
  • provide humidified supplemental o2
  • support airway and ventilation (may need mechanical vent and paralytic meds if PaO2 is < 60 mmHG)
  • monitor and maintain chest tubes
  • suction q1h or as needed
  • perform chest PT and have client cough, breathe deeply, and use incentive spirometer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CV system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • monitor central and peripheral pulses
  • capillary refill
  • pulse ox
  • BP
  • ECG changes or presence of edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
fluid replacement and moderate/major burns nursing
- initiate IV access w/ large-bore needle; if large are aburn use of central venous catheter or intraosseous catheter - fluid resuscitation must meet individual client's needs - administer HALF of total 24-hr IV fluid volume within FIRST 8 HRS from time burn occurred and remaining half over next 16 hours - infuse 0.9% NaCl or lactated ringers - infuse albumin or synthetic plasma expanders after first 24 hr of burn recovery - monitor VS - assess fluid overload - weigh client daily - ensure output of 30 mL/hr - prepare to administer blood products - monitor for manifestations of shock - IF urine output is below request prescription to increase fluid replacement DO NOT ADMINISTER DIURETICS
26
comfort management and moderate/major burns nursing
- avoid routes other than IV during resuscitation phase - use IV opioid analgesics or anesthetics - monitor for respiratory depression when administering opioid analgesics - use PCA - administer meds before dressing changes - instruct client to pat rather than scratching to relieve itching
27
thermoregulation and moderate/major burns nursing
- for decreased temp: use warm, inspired air, warm room, warming blankets, and warmers for infusing liquids - low-grade fever - occurs later after first few hrs following injury can remain increased for several weeks
28
system and moderate/major burns nursing
- may need NG tube insertion - monitor stool, vomitus, and gastric secretions for blood - asses for hypomotility and for tolerance of feedings
29
urinary system and moderate/major burns nursing
- insert an indwelling catheter - monitor I&O - monitor for red-tinged urine as indication of damage tor ed blood cells of muscles - gycosuria expected
30
infection prevention and moderate/major burns nursing
- maintain a protective environment - restrict plants and flowers - restrict consumption of fruits and veggies - limit visitors - monitor for s/s of infection - use client- dedicated equipment - administer tetanus toxoid - administer antibiotics and monitor for peak and trough levels - STRICT ASEPSIS WITH WOUND CARE
31
normal hct
41 to 50% - men 36 to 48% women
32
normal hbg
14 - 18 men 12 - 16 women
33
normal respiration rate
12-20 breaths/min
34
rule of 9
groin - 1% entire right arm: 9% entire left arm: 9% head and neck: 9% entire left leg: 18% entire right leg: 18% entire trunk: 36% - {chest and upper back 9% each; abdomen and lower back 9% each}
35
nutritional support and mod/severe burns
- increase protein and carb intake - increase caloric intake
36
what % of body loss needs additional calorie intake?
10
37
caloric intake and mod/severe burns
- double or triple 4 - 12 days after burn - 5k calories/day
38
burn medications
- silver nitrate 0.5% - silver sulfadiazine 1% - mafenide acetate - polymyxin B-bacitracin - Gentamicin topical - mannitol
39
gentamicin topical info
- anti-infective agent - advantages: bactericidal - disadvantages: nephrotoxic, ototoxic
40
polymyxin B-bacitracin info
- apply every 2-8 hrs to keep burn moist - advantages: bacteriostatic against gram-positive; painless and easy to apply - disadvantages: hypersensitivity can develop
41
Mafenide acetate info
- apply twice per day - advantages: penetrates eschar and goes into underlying tissues; bacteriostatic against gram neg and pos bacteria - disadvantages: painful to apply and remove; can cause metabolic acidosis
42
silver sulfadiazine 1% info
- apply a thin layer with a clean glove - advantages: usually pain free; effective against gram (+/-) and yeast - disadvantages: can cause transient neutropenia, sulfa allergy contraindicated, penetrates eschar minimally, can cause blue-green or gray discoloration, decreases granulocyte formation
43
silver nitrate 0.5% info
- apply with a gauze dressing - advantages: reduces fluid evap, bacteriostatic, inexpensive - disadvantages: does not penetrate eschar, stains clothing, and linen, depletes sodium and potassium
44
mechanical debridement
use scissors and forceps to cut away the dead tissue
45
hydrotherapy debridement
- use mild soap or detergent to wash gently, rinse with room temp water - encourage client to exercise joints
46
chemical debridement
- apply topic enzyme to break down and remove dead tissue
47
nursing actions for wound grafting
- maintain immobilization of graft sites - elevate extremities - give analgesics - perform ROM exercises
48
s/s of infection of graft
- green subcut fat - subeschar hemorrhage - degeneration of granulation - hyperventilation - unstable body temp - discoloration of unburned skin surrounding graft
49
autograft
from another area of client's body
50
sheet graft
sheet of skin for covering the wound
51
artificial skin graft
- synthetic product for faster healing of partial and full thickness burns
52
mesh graft
stretch over large areas of a burn
53
how to avoid contractures for burns
- keep neutral position w/ limited flexion - compression dressing for up to 24 months to increase mobility and reduce scarring - assist w/ active or passive ROM at least 3 times per day
54
compartment syndrome
develop as edema increases and skin has lost elasticity due to damage
55
POAG (primary open angle glaucoma)
- gradual rise in IOP b/c aqueous humor outflow is decreased in canal of schlemm and trabecular meshwork
56
PACG
- IOP rises suddenly
57
POAG s/s
- h/a - mild eye pain - loss of peripheral vision - decreased accommodation - halos around lights - elevated IOP (>21 mHg; usually 22 to 32)
58
PACG s/s
- rapid onset of elevated IOP (>30 mmHg) - decreased or blurred vision - colored halo around lights - pupils nonreactive to light - severe pain and nausea - photophobia
59
normal IOP
10 to 21 mm Hg
60
glaucoma checks
- before 40: q2-4 years - 40-54: 1-3 years - 55 to 64: 1-2 years - 65+ 6-12 months
61
meds for glaucoma
- cholinergic agents - adrenergic agents - timolol - carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (-amide) - prostaglandin analogs - systemic osmotics (mannitol and oral glycerin)
62
mannitol info
- used for PACG to quickly decrease IOP - emergency treatment - IV
63
timolol info
- first-line drug therapy; decrease IOP by reducing aqueous humor production - CAUTION: asthma, COPD, DM
64
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (-amide) info
- decrease IOP reducing aqueous humor production - NO allergic sulfa
65
risk factors for glaucoma
- age - infection - tumors - DM - genetics - eye trauma - severe myopia - retinal detachment - hypertension
66
how to administer glaucoma meds
- use every 12 hrs - one drop in each eye twice daily - wait 5-10 minutes between eye drops if more than one is prescribed - avoid touching tip of bottle to eyee - always wash hands before and after use - apply pressure using punctal occlusion technique after eye drop is instilled
67
punctal occlusion technique
placing pressure on inner corner of the eye
68
client ed for glaucoma surgery
- wear sunglassess when outside or in brightly lit area - avoid IOP increasing activities - don't lie on operative side and report severe pain or nausea - limit activities - report n/v with pain - best vision is not expected until 4-6 wks after surgery - report if any changes in vision occur
69
activities that will increase IOP
- sneezing - coughing - straining - head hyperflexion - restrictive clothing - sexual intercourse - bending over at waist
70
activities to limit with glaucoma surgery
- tilting head back to wash hair - cooking and housekeeping - rapid, jerky movements - driving and operating machinery - playing sports
71
prostaglandin analogs info
- incrase outflow of uveosclera by dilating blood vessels; drains humor at more rapid rate - check for corneal abrasions - can darken iris color with long-term use