exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

minor burns information

A
  • treated at the scene and followed up at local ED
  • Full-thickness burn < 2% TBSA
    OR
  • partial-thickness burn < 10% TBSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

moderate burns info

A
  • treated at scene, transported to burn center or specialized facility
  • FTB 2-10%
    OR
    -PTB 15-25%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Major burns info

A
  • require emergency treatment at closest facility, then transfer to burn center immediately
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major burn criteria

A
  • FTB > 10%
  • PTB > 25%
  • > 60 yo
  • has chronic cardiac, pulmonary, or endocrine condition
  • presence of electrical burn
  • presence of inhalation injury or other complicated injury
  • burns to eyes, ears, face, hands, feet, or perineum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

superficial thickness burn

A
  • damage to epidermis
  • pink to red, no blisters, mild edema, no eschar
  • painful/tender, sensitive to heat, heals in 3 to 6 days, no scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

superficial partial thickness burn

A
  • damage to entire epidermis and some parts of dermis
  • pink to red, blisters, mild to moderate edema, no eschar
  • painful, heals within 2 to 3 weeks, no scaring but minor pigment changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Deep partial thickness description

A
  • damage to entire epidermis and deep into dermis
  • red to white, blisters rare, moderate edema, eschar soft and dry
  • painful and sensitive to touch, heals in 2 to 6 wks, scarring likely, possible grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

full-thickness burn description

A
  • damage to entire epi and dermis, can extend into subcutaneous, nerve damage
  • red, black, brown, yellow or white; no blisters; severe edema; eschar hard and inelastic
  • sensation minimal or absent, heals within weeks to months, scarring, grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

deep full thickness burn description

A
  • damage to all layers, extends to muscle, tendons, and bones
  • black, no blisters, no edema, eschar hard and inelastic
  • no pain, heals within weeks to months, scarring and grafting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

s/s inhalation damage

A

singed nasal hair, eyebrows, eyelashes
sooty sputum
hoarseness
wheezing
edema of nasal septum
smoky smealling breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

indications of impending loss of airway

A
  • hoarseness
    brassy cough
    drooling
    difficulty swallowing
    audible wheezing
    crowing
    stridor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CO inhalation s/s

A

h/a, weakness, confusion, erythmea, upper airway edema followed by sloughing of respiratory tract mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

older adults are at higher risk of what when burned?

A
  • damage to subcutaneous tissue, muscle, connective tissue, and bone (b/c of thinner skin)
  • complications from burns b/c of chronic illnesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Resuscitation phase of burns

A

initial fluid shift, occurs in first 12 hrs continues for 24 to 36 hrs
- priorities include: securing airway, support circulation and organ perfusion by fluid replacement, manage pain, prevent infection, maintain body temp, provide emotional support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Labs for resuscitation phase

A
  • glucose: elevated
  • BUN: Elevated
  • Hct and Hgb: elevated
  • Na: decreased b/c third spacing
  • K: increased due to cell destruction
  • Cl: increased
  • plasma lactate: elevated
  • carboxyhemoglobin: >10 = smoke inhalation
  • ABGs - metabolic acidosis
  • protein blood albumin decreased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fluid remobilization phase of burns

A

starts at 24 hr, diuretic stage begins 48 to 72 hr after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

labs for fluid remobilization phase

A
  • Hgb and Hct: decreased
  • Na: decreased
  • K: decreased
  • WBC: increase, then decrease
  • glucose: elevated
  • ABGs: slight hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis
  • protein and albumin: low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

acute phase of burn

A
  • begins 36 to 48 hr after injury
  • ends when wound closes
  • priorities: assess and maintain CV, resp, GI systems, wound care, pain control, psychosocial interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rehabilitative phase of burn

A
  • when most of burn area has healed
  • ends when client achieves highest level of functioning possible
  • can last for years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nursing care to stop the burning process

A
  • remove clothing or jewelry that may conduct heat
  • apply cool water soaks to run cool water over the injury
  • flush chemical burns w/ a large volume of water
  • cover the burn with a clean cloth to prevent contamination and hypothermia
  • perform ABCDE
  • provide warmth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

nursing care for minor burns

A
  • provide analgesics
  • cleanse with mild soap and tepid water; avoid friction
  • use antimicrobial ointment
  • apply nonadherent, hydrocolloid dressing if clothing is irritating burn
  • avoid greasy lotions or butters
  • determine need for tetanus shot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

s/s of resuscitation phase for moderate and major burns

A
  • tachycardia
  • increased respiratory rate
  • decreased GI motility
  • increased blood glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

respiratory system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • assess respiratory rate and depth
  • monitor chest expansion
  • upper airway edema may become pronounced 8 - 12 hr after beginning fluid resusitation
  • provide humidified supplemental o2
  • support airway and ventilation (may need mechanical vent and paralytic meds if PaO2 is < 60 mmHG)
  • monitor and maintain chest tubes
  • suction q1h or as needed
  • perform chest PT and have client cough, breathe deeply, and use incentive spirometer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CV system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • monitor central and peripheral pulses
  • capillary refill
  • pulse ox
  • BP
  • ECG changes or presence of edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

fluid replacement and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • initiate IV access w/ large-bore needle; if large are aburn use of central venous catheter or intraosseous catheter
  • fluid resuscitation must meet individual client’s needs
  • administer HALF of total 24-hr IV fluid volume within FIRST 8 HRS from time burn occurred and remaining half over next 16 hours
  • infuse 0.9% NaCl or lactated ringers
  • infuse albumin or synthetic plasma expanders after first 24 hr of burn recovery
  • monitor VS
  • assess fluid overload
  • weigh client daily
  • ensure output of 30 mL/hr
  • prepare to administer blood products
  • monitor for manifestations of shock
  • IF urine output is below request prescription to increase fluid replacement DO NOT ADMINISTER DIURETICS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

comfort management and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • avoid routes other than IV during resuscitation phase
  • use IV opioid analgesics or anesthetics
  • monitor for respiratory depression when administering opioid analgesics
  • use PCA
  • administer meds before dressing changes
  • instruct client to pat rather than scratching to relieve itching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

thermoregulation and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • for decreased temp: use warm, inspired air, warm room, warming blankets, and warmers for infusing liquids
  • low-grade fever - occurs later after first few hrs following injury can remain increased for several weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • may need NG tube insertion
  • monitor stool, vomitus, and gastric secretions for blood
  • asses for hypomotility and for tolerance of feedings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

urinary system and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • insert an indwelling catheter
  • monitor I&O
  • monitor for red-tinged urine as indication of damage tor ed blood cells of muscles
  • gycosuria expected
30
Q

infection prevention and moderate/major burns nursing

A
  • maintain a protective environment
  • restrict plants and flowers
  • restrict consumption of fruits and veggies
  • limit visitors
  • monitor for s/s of infection
  • use client- dedicated equipment
  • administer tetanus toxoid
  • administer antibiotics and monitor for peak and trough levels
  • STRICT ASEPSIS WITH WOUND CARE
31
Q

normal hct

A

41 to 50% - men
36 to 48% women

32
Q

normal hbg

A

14 - 18 men
12 - 16 women

33
Q

normal respiration rate

A

12-20 breaths/min

34
Q

rule of 9

A

groin - 1%
entire right arm: 9%
entire left arm: 9%
head and neck: 9%
entire left leg: 18%
entire right leg: 18%
entire trunk: 36% - {chest and upper back 9% each; abdomen and lower back 9% each}

35
Q

nutritional support and mod/severe burns

A
  • increase protein and carb intake
  • increase caloric intake
36
Q

what % of body loss needs additional calorie intake?

A

10

37
Q

caloric intake and mod/severe burns

A
  • double or triple 4 - 12 days after burn
  • 5k calories/day
38
Q

burn medications

A
  • silver nitrate 0.5%
  • silver sulfadiazine 1%
  • mafenide acetate
  • polymyxin B-bacitracin
  • Gentamicin topical
  • mannitol
39
Q

gentamicin topical info

A
  • anti-infective agent
  • advantages: bactericidal
  • disadvantages: nephrotoxic, ototoxic
40
Q

polymyxin B-bacitracin info

A
  • apply every 2-8 hrs to keep burn moist
  • advantages: bacteriostatic against gram-positive; painless and easy to apply
  • disadvantages: hypersensitivity can develop
41
Q

Mafenide acetate info

A
  • apply twice per day
  • advantages: penetrates eschar and goes into underlying tissues; bacteriostatic against gram neg and pos bacteria
  • disadvantages: painful to apply and remove; can cause metabolic acidosis
42
Q

silver sulfadiazine 1% info

A
  • apply a thin layer with a clean glove
  • advantages: usually pain free; effective against gram (+/-) and yeast
  • disadvantages: can cause transient neutropenia, sulfa allergy contraindicated, penetrates eschar minimally, can cause blue-green or gray discoloration, decreases granulocyte formation
43
Q

silver nitrate 0.5% info

A
  • apply with a gauze dressing
  • advantages: reduces fluid evap, bacteriostatic, inexpensive
  • disadvantages: does not penetrate eschar, stains clothing, and linen, depletes sodium and potassium
44
Q

mechanical debridement

A

use scissors and forceps to cut away the dead tissue

45
Q

hydrotherapy debridement

A
  • use mild soap or detergent to wash gently, rinse with room temp water
  • encourage client to exercise joints
46
Q

chemical debridement

A
  • apply topic enzyme to break down and remove dead tissue
47
Q

nursing actions for wound grafting

A
  • maintain immobilization of graft sites
  • elevate extremities
  • give analgesics
  • perform ROM exercises
48
Q

s/s of infection of graft

A
  • green subcut fat
  • subeschar hemorrhage
  • degeneration of granulation
  • hyperventilation
  • unstable body temp
  • discoloration of unburned skin surrounding graft
49
Q

autograft

A

from another area of client’s body

50
Q

sheet graft

A

sheet of skin for covering the wound

51
Q

artificial skin graft

A
  • synthetic product for faster healing of partial and full thickness burns
52
Q

mesh graft

A

stretch over large areas of a burn

53
Q

how to avoid contractures for burns

A
  • keep neutral position w/ limited flexion
  • compression dressing for up to 24 months to increase mobility and reduce scarring
  • assist w/ active or passive ROM at least 3 times per day
54
Q

compartment syndrome

A

develop as edema increases and skin has lost elasticity due to damage

55
Q

POAG (primary open angle glaucoma)

A
  • gradual rise in IOP b/c aqueous humor outflow is decreased in canal of schlemm and trabecular meshwork
56
Q

PACG

A
  • IOP rises suddenly
57
Q

POAG s/s

A
  • h/a
  • mild eye pain
  • loss of peripheral vision
  • decreased accommodation
  • halos around lights
  • elevated IOP (>21 mHg; usually 22 to 32)
58
Q

PACG s/s

A
  • rapid onset of elevated IOP (>30 mmHg)
  • decreased or blurred vision
  • colored halo around lights
  • pupils nonreactive to light
  • severe pain and nausea
  • photophobia
59
Q

normal IOP

A

10 to 21 mm Hg

60
Q

glaucoma checks

A
  • before 40: q2-4 years
  • 40-54: 1-3 years
  • 55 to 64: 1-2 years
  • 65+ 6-12 months
61
Q

meds for glaucoma

A
  • cholinergic agents
  • adrenergic agents
  • timolol
  • carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (-amide)
  • prostaglandin analogs
  • systemic osmotics (mannitol and oral glycerin)
62
Q

mannitol info

A
  • used for PACG to quickly decrease IOP
  • emergency treatment
  • IV
63
Q

timolol info

A
  • first-line drug therapy; decrease IOP by reducing aqueous humor production
  • CAUTION: asthma, COPD, DM
64
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (-amide) info

A
  • decrease IOP reducing aqueous humor production
  • NO allergic sulfa
65
Q

risk factors for glaucoma

A
  • age
  • infection
  • tumors
  • DM
  • genetics
  • eye trauma
  • severe myopia
  • retinal detachment
  • hypertension
66
Q

how to administer glaucoma meds

A
  • use every 12 hrs
  • one drop in each eye twice daily
  • wait 5-10 minutes between eye drops if more than one is prescribed
  • avoid touching tip of bottle to eyee
  • always wash hands before and after use
  • apply pressure using punctal occlusion technique after eye drop is instilled
67
Q

punctal occlusion technique

A

placing pressure on inner corner of the eye

68
Q

client ed for glaucoma surgery

A
  • wear sunglassess when outside or in brightly lit area
  • avoid IOP increasing activities
  • don’t lie on operative side and report severe pain or nausea
  • limit activities
  • report n/v with pain
  • best vision is not expected until 4-6 wks after surgery
  • report if any changes in vision occur
69
Q

activities that will increase IOP

A
  • sneezing
  • coughing
  • straining
  • head hyperflexion
  • restrictive clothing
  • sexual intercourse
  • bending over at waist
70
Q

activities to limit with glaucoma surgery

A
  • tilting head back to wash hair
  • cooking and housekeeping
  • rapid, jerky movements
  • driving and operating machinery
  • playing sports
71
Q

prostaglandin analogs info

A
  • incrase outflow of uveosclera by dilating blood vessels; drains humor at more rapid rate
  • check for corneal abrasions
  • can darken iris color with long-term use