Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Hypokalemia

A

diarrhea, repeated vomiting, use of potassium-wasting diuretics

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2
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

decreased urine output

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3
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

acute pancreatitis and neuromuscular excitability

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4
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

cancer patients

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5
Q

Hypomagnesmia

A

increases neuromuscular excitability

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6
Q

hypermagnesmia

A

ESRD, neuromuscular excitability, lethargy, and decreased DTR

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7
Q

Normal value of Potassium

A

3.5-5

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8
Q

Normal value of Calcium

A

8.5-10

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9
Q

Normal value of Sodium

A

135-145

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10
Q

Normal value of Magnesium

A

1.8-4.8

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11
Q

Normal value for Phosphate

A

2.8-4.5

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12
Q

Metabolic Acidosis

A

arises from increase in metabolic acid or a decrease in base (bicarb).

Kidneys are unable to excrete enough metabolic acids, which accumulate in the blood

Results in a decreased LOC

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13
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis

A

arises from direct increase in base (bicarb) or decrease in metabolic acid

results in increased blood bicarbonate

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14
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

-arises from alveolar hypoventilation

-lungs are unable to excrete enough CO2

-excess carbonic acid in the blood decreases pH

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15
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

-arises from alveolar hyperventilation

-lungs excrete too much CO2

-deficit of carbonic acid in the blood increases pH

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16
Q

Who are the most susceptible to fluid imbalances?

A

the very young and very old

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17
Q

What is the #1 indicator of fluid status?

A

daily weights

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18
Q

What are the possible IV complications?

A

fluid overload, infiltration, extravasation, phlebitis, local infection, bleeding at insertion site, and bruising.

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19
Q

Infiltration or Extravasation

A

when IVF is infusing into tissues outside of the vein

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20
Q

What is the treatment for infiltration and extravasation?

A

stop IVF, remove IVF catheter, elevate extremity, encourage active ROM, apply warm or cold compress depending on the type of solution, restart IV and IVF proximal to infusion.

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21
Q

How can you prevent infiltration and extravasation?

A

monitor IV often for light swelling or pain, secure IV well, carefully select site

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22
Q

What is phlebitis?

A

inflammation of the walls of the vein

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23
Q

What is Thrombophlebitis?

A

blood clot formation at the site of the inflammation

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24
Q

What is the treatment for phlebitis?

A

Stop IVF, remove IV catheter, elevate extremity, apply a warm compress 3-4 times daily, restart IV and IVF proximal to infusion or in another extremity, obtain culture of site and culture of IV cath tip if drainage at site.

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25
How can you prevent phlebitis?
monitor IV often for redness and pain, rotate sites every 72 hours or more frequently if policy, avoid lower extremities, use hand hygiene, use surgical aseptic technique.
26
What is cellulitis?
a bacterial infection that has signs and symptoms similar to that of phlebitis and treatment but cellulitis is more severe
27
What is the treatment for cellulitis?
similar to that of phlebitis but includes antibiotics, antipyretics, analgesics if needed
28
What is the nursing assessment related to fluid and electrolyte embalances?
Age, environment (excessively hot?), dietary intake, lifestyle (ETOH intake history), medication, and recent medical history
29
What is the nursing care while administering a blood transfusion?
-check vitals every 5 minutes -watch for transfusion reactions -check and verify blood with at least 2 nurses before a transfusion -if a reaction occurs stop the transfusion immediately
30
What are the endocrine functions of the kidney?
BP CONTROL -Renin causes vasoconstriction when released from the juxtaglomerular cells -prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin secretion causes vasodilation ERYTHROPOIETIN STIMULATES RBC PRODUCTION AND MATURATION in the bone marrow SYNTHESIS OF VITAMIN D
31
What problems does poor kidney function cause?
anemia, hypertension, and electrolyte imbalances
32
What is stress incontinence ?
coughing, sneezing, laughing, or physical activity causing urine leakage
33
What is urge incontinence ?
a strong need or urge to urinate causing leakage
34
What is reflex incontinence?
urine leakage due to nerve damage
35
What is overflow incontinence?
incomplete bladder emptying- overfills when full, leads to leakage
36
What is functional incontinence?
physical inability to reach the toilet in time
37
What is a possible treatment for stress or urge incontinence?
strengthening your pelvic floor with Kegel Exercises
38
What is a possible treatment for functional incontinence?
Habit training to improve voluntary control
39
What is a possible treatment for reflex incontinence?
Self- catheterization - aseptic technique for chronic disorders such as a spinal cord injury
40
What is a possible treatment for overflow incontinence?
Crede method- manual compression of bladder to help with emptying
41
In order for healthy kidney perfusion what should your systolic BP be?
80 or greater
42
What is the average urine output per day?
1-2 liters
43
What should the minimum urine output per hour be?
30 mL
44
What should a nurse do if a pts urine output is less than 30 mL for more than 2 hours?
assess for blood loss and call the HCP
45
What is a normal urinary frequency?
4-6 times a day
46
Nocturia
voiding at night
47
urgency
sudden or strong desire
48
dysuria
painful or difficulty voiding
49
urinary hesitancy
delay in initiating voiding
50
neurogenic bladder
nerve pathway not intact, does not sense fullness, or control sphincters
51
dribbling
leaking small amounts
52
hematuria
blood in the urine
53
polyuria
production of abnormally large amounts of urine
54
polydipsia
extreme thirst associated with polyuria
55
anuria
absence of urine production
56
oliguria
decreased urine output, may signal impending urine failure, and is less than 30 mL/h for more than 2 hours
57
What are the 5 subcutaneous sites for injections?
-outer posterior aspect of the upper arms -the abdomen from below the costal margins to the iliac crests -the anterior aspects of the upper thigh -the upper back -upper ventral gluteal
58
Chemical drug names
come from the various chemical compounds
59
Generic drug names
manufacturer who develops, help to recognize class
60
Trade drug names
first manufacturer of the drug
61
Drug classification name
based on its desired effect on body system
62
What is the biological half-life?
the time it takes for excretion to lower the blood concentration of a drug to decrease by 50 percent. determines how often a med is given
63
What is a med's trough and when would bloodwork be drawn to measure them?
A trough is the lowest level of the drug in a pt's body. It can be measured by a lab draw approximately 30 minutes before the next dose.
64
What are the 6 rights of medication administration ?
right patient right medication right dose right time right route right documentation
65
What are the 4 additional medication rights discussed in class?
right assessment right evaluation right refusal right education
66
What is the purpose of medication reconciliation?
Develop, update, coordinate and communicate accurate client medication information during transitions of care. It is done to avoid medication errors.
67
What are some healthy actions that prevent bowel elimination probelms?
Good diet, 3.7 L of water for men and 2.7 L of water for women, physical activity
68
What is a closed drainage system?
free drainage by gravity. Urine flow should be unobstructed.
69
What are the special considerations for male catheter insertion?
insert catheter at a 90 degree angle to straighten, ease insertion, insert until bifurcation to ensure balloon not inflating in prostatic urethra, secure to upper thigh or lower abdomen.
70
What is an anticholinergic medication?
Increases bladder retention
71
Benign hyperplastic hyperplasia
enlarged prostate and can cause urinary retention and incontinence
72
what is impaction?
unrelieved constipation and unable to expel the hardened feces in the rectum
73
What are signs of impaction?
debilitated, confused, unconscious- dehydrated, weak or unaware of need, stool dry and difficult to pass. pt has the inability to pass stool for several days spite the urge to defecate.
74
What are hemorroids?
veins in rectum dilated from straining pressure- internal or external. Painful. Thrombosed.
75
What are the treatments for hemorroids?
ice pack, warm sitz bath, topical medications, surgery
76
How many mL of gas are we supposed to expel on average?
10 mL
77
What are the age related changes of the bowel and digestive system when we are younger?
small stomach, rapid peristalsis
78
What are the age related changes effecting the bowel and digestive system when you get older?
-decreased chewing ability -arteriosclerosis decreases GI blood flow -innervation decreases esophogeal emptying and peristalsis -decreased perineal and sphincter muscle tone -taste bud atrophy -decreased gastric acid
79
What is being tested in a Urinalysis?
pH, protein, glucose, ketones, blood, specific gravity, WBC, and bacteria
80
What should the specific gravity be in a urinalysis?
1.005-1.030 (lower= diluted and higher= dehydrated)
81
Digital rectal exam
assessing for tone and abnormalities
82
Endoscopy
lightening FiberopticTube to visualize esophagus, stomach, and small intestine (upper GI tract). Can remove polyps for biopsy. Anesthetic to throat, some clear liquids are ok, NPO before and until gag reflex returns.
83
Colonoscopy
NPO, bowel prep- tube in to visualize LI/colon, remove polyps for biopsy or find source of bleeding
84
Upper GI series (barium swallow) X-Ray
NPO, drinks barium-opaque contrast solution, clear liquids and laxative day before; shows pharynx, esophagus, stomach
85
Lower GI series Xray- barium enema
NPO, barium into anal opening, shows large intestine
86
Amylase and lipase test
serum blood tests for hepatitis, pancreatitis (most accurate results after fasting NPO)
87
Abdominal xray
obstruction or abnormality, no prep
88
colorectal transit study
how food moves through colon, swallows capsule with radiopaque markers, X-Ray on 5th day
89
Computerized tomography of the bowel
ct scan of the cross-section views, oral and/or IV sedation- contrast dye- assess for any/all allergies for IV. NPO 4-6 hours before- depends on if oral contrast is used
90
MRI
magnet and radio waves to see inside of the body, NPO 4-6 hours before, no metal objects on/in patients