Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Mitosis and binary fission generate

A

2 genetically identical copies from one cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

lifespan of cell

A

varying life span is required for growth, repair, and development, as well as reproduction. Lifespan varies from days to years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

meiosis

A

generates genetically unique cells from parent cells, occurs in just reproductive tissues, 1 cell to 4 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death, triggered by caspases, enzymes that trigger apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cell cycle stages

A

interphase - preparation for division, long time
- G1 growth
- S Synthesis
- G2 growth 2

Mitosis - active division, less time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

interphase

A

involves G1, G0, S, G2, longest part of a cells life, cell performs normal functions and prepares for mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

G0

A

cell functions normally but is not preparing for division, is at rest
ex) nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

G1

A

cell grows, produces new organelles, and materials to make DNA, communication also occurs between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

S

A

synthesis - all cells must replicate DNA before dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

G2

A

protein production required for cell division involves, centrioles and centrosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

mitosis

A

divides two eukaryotic copies of DNA are separated into two cells, occurs in all cells, 1 to 2 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cytokinesis

A

actual physical splitting of a single cell into two daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

control of cell cycle factors

A

signal: an agent that influences the activities of the cell
growth factor: signaling proteins received at the plasma membrane secreted by one cell that INHIBITS or PROMOTES growth of another cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

G1 checkpoint

A
  • main checkpoint
  • evaluates growth signals and size
  • determines nutrient availability
    –> CDK needs to be present to release E2F so it can bind to DNA
  • assesses DNA integrity
    –> p53 proteins check quality control, if DNA is damaged, p53 phosphorylates and repairs DNA, or p53 is broken down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

G2 checkpoint

A

determines if S phase created undamaged copy of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

M checkpoint

occurs near end of metaphase in mitosis

A

checks that 2 copies of DNA are lined up properly

make sure to know spindle fibers are attached to sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is cell division prevented?

A

when cells are old, diseased, have a virus, metamorphosizing, or arresting at G0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cancer

A

uncontrollable cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

benign

A

abnormal growth, noncancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

malignant

A

abnormal growth, is cancerous, and threatens life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

metastasis

A

spread of cancer from the place of origin throughout the body, invades tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

contact inhibition

A

the sense that normal cells have to stop replicating when in contact with one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

angiogenesis

A

formation of new blood vessels to invade adjacent tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cancer vs normal cells

A

cancer
- non differentiated
- abnormal nuclei
- do not undergo apoptosis
- no contact inhibition
- disorganized
- undergo metastasis

normal
- differentiated (specialized)
- normal nuclei
- contact inhibition
- one organized layer
- remain in original tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

proto-oncogenes

A
  • code for proteins that promote cell cycle and prevent apoptosis
  • can become an oncogene if mutated, and will not be able to stop the cell cycle (continuing to press the gas pedal)
  • M (dominant) - gain of function, only need one mutation to lead to complete loss of control of cell cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A
  • code for proteins that inhibit the cell cycle and promote apoptosis (Rb, p53)
  • can become mutated, preventing necessary checkpoint needed to regulate errors in DNA (brake failure - not being able to stop)
  • m (recessive) - gain of function, need both mutations to lead to complete loss of control of cell cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

causes of mutation

A
  • hereditary
  • environmental
    • pesticides
    • chemicals / toxins
  • radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

genome

A

all the cells genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chromosome

A

individual molecules of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how many chromosomes to humans have?

A

46, 23 pairs, 22 autosomal pairs, 1 sex pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

diploid

A

represented by 2n
2 copies of each type of chromosome are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is DNA organized in interphase?

A

loosely packed to make genetic information easily accessible for protein generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is DNA organized once replicated?

sphase

A

DNA is condensed into manageable packages to be transported into daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

histones

A

proteins that wind DNA up into chromosome structure from double helix structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

nucleosome

A

a stretch of DNA coiled around 8 histone proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

chromatin

A

DNA and proteins combined together, there are 2 types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

euchromatin

A

loosely coiled, site of active gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

heterochromatin

A

densely packed, inactive gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

centromere

A

where sister chromatids are attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

asexual cell division

A

genetically identical offspring, requires only one parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

sexual cell division

A

genetically different offspring, requires 2 parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

generation time

A

time it takes for a bacterial population to double

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

binary fission

A

divides prokaryotic cell into two identical cells over and over again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

prokaryotic cell division types

A

asexual or sexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

eukaryotic cell division

for somatic cells

A

mitosis - divides eukaryotic cells genetic info into two identical cells, just one time

46
Q

homologous chromosomes

A
  • one comes from mother and one from father
  • same gene, same location
  • DIFFERENT ALLELES
47
Q

sister chromatids

A

only present right before cell is ready to divide, a COPY of DNA from homologous pairs

48
Q

mitosis stages

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
- genetic info is copied once, cell divides once

49
Q

centrosome

A

microtubule organizing center, organizes centrioles

50
Q

centriole

A

set of 2 microtubules involved in assembly of mitotic spindles

51
Q

mitotic spindles

A

set of microtubule proteins that coordinate movement of chromosomes during mitosis

52
Q

astral microtubule

A

not directly attached to sister chromatids

53
Q

kinetochore microtubule

A

attach to sister chromatids directly

54
Q

interpolar microtubule

A

pull apart cells only attach to one another

55
Q

prophase

A
  • chromosomes condense
  • spindles form as centrosome moves to opposite poles
  • chromosomes are visible (under a microscope)
  • DNA is same on both sides of chromosome
56
Q

metaphase

A
  • spindles align chromosomes down equator of cell, the metaphase plate
  • alignment ensures that each cell will receive 1 copy of each chromosome type
  • M checkpoint ensures this
57
Q

anaphase

A
  • sister chromatids split, and chromosomes are pulled to opposite ends of cell
  • microtubules lengthen and move poles apart, stretching and dividing cell
58
Q

telophase

A
  • spindle disassembles and chromosomes begin to unwind
  • nuclear envelope forms at each end of stretched cell
  • cytokinesis occurs
59
Q

plants vs animals in mitosis

A

animals
- lot more spindle fibers
- form cleavage furrow during telophase

plants
- no centrioles
- have spindle fibers but no aster spindle fibers
- form cell plate during cytokinesis

60
Q

cytokinesis for plants vs animals

A

animals
- cell membrane
- form cleavage furrow via actin and myocin
- creates contractile ring which is then stretched and separated

plants
- cell wall and cell membrane
- building new wall
- vesicles establish cell plate with cellulose

61
Q

kinetochore

A

protein that allows for attachment of centromere between homologous pairs

62
Q

sexual reproduction

A

genetic makeup comes from two parents, mixes and recombines traits so offspring are different from each other and parents

63
Q

meiosis

A
  • produces haploid (n) gamete cells used during sexual reproduction
  • genetic info is copied ONCE
  • cell divides TWICE
64
Q

bivalents

A

2 homologous chromosomes that are close together

65
Q

types of genetic variation in sexual reproduction

A

crossing over
independent assortment
random fertilization

66
Q

crossing over

A

exchange of genetic material between non identical sister chromatids during meiosis 1
- occurs through bivalent and nucleoprotein lattice, causing chiasmata of sister chromatids (non identical)[don’t necessarily need to worry about all these terms]
- specifically during prophase 1 of meiosis

67
Q

independent assortment

A

when homologues align at the metaphase plate, the maternal or paternal homologue may be oriented toward either pole.
- happening with gametes
- knowing the number of homologous chromosomes can determine the number of potential combinations

2^n

68
Q

random fertilization

A

any of the genetically unique sperm created by a male may fertilize any of the genetically unique egg cells

2n^2

69
Q

prophase 1

A
  • spindle forms as centrosomes migrate away from one another
  • nuclear envelop fragments
  • crossing over occurs between non sister chormatids
70
Q

metaphase 1

A
  • sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
  • independent assortment occurs and either maternal or paternal sister chromatid may be oriented
71
Q

anaphase 1

A
  • homologous chromosomes are pulled apart
  • sister chromatids remain bound together at centromere
  • paternal and maternal chromosomes are associated with one centrosome at random
72
Q

telophase 1

A
  • spindles are broken down
  • nuclear envelope is reformed
  • cells are haploid and only contain one version of each type of chromosome
73
Q

interkinesis

A

short rest period between meiosis 1 and 2, similar to interphase, but no DNA replication occurs

74
Q

meiosis 2

A

second division of genetic material to get 4 total haploid daughter cells from 1 diploid parent cell

75
Q

prophase 2

A
  • cells have 1 chromosome from each homologous pair
  • nuclear mem break down
  • spindle fibers attach to kinetochores
76
Q

metaphase 2

A
  • sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
77
Q

anaphase 2

A
  • sister chromatids split and daughter chromosomes move to poles
78
Q

telophase 2

A
  • spindles are broken down
  • nuclear envelope reforms
  • cytokinesis
79
Q

mitosis and meiosis similarities

A

have the same order, and same general processes

80
Q

nondisjunction

A

when chromosomes do not split up correctly during meiosis

81
Q

primary nondisjunction

A

occurs in meiosis ONE, pair goes into single cell rather than splitting into two cells

82
Q

secondary nondisjunction

A

occurs in meiosis TWO, pair goes into a single cell, but leads to less overall damaged cells than primary

83
Q

aneuploidy

A

zygotes have too many or too few chromosomes

84
Q

trisomy

A

2n + 1 (3 chromosomes) –> more survivable aneuploidy, leads to down syndrome

85
Q

monosomy

A

2n - 1 (1 chromosome) –> more deadly aneuploidy, rare chance of survival

86
Q

asexual reproduction

what are the benefits?

A
  • don’t need energy or resources to find mate
  • numerous offspring can be produced because energy requirement is low
  • can colonize ideal habitat quickly
87
Q

cross pollination

A

anther –> produces pollen (sperm)
stigma –> contains ovules (eggs)
cut anthers, brush on pollen from another plant

88
Q

self fertilization

A

cross pollination of pollen from same plant onto a parent plant

89
Q

true breeding

A

all the same

90
Q

hybrid

A

different, a mix of genetics

91
Q

monohybrid cross

A

1 trait is the focus of breeding

92
Q

homozygous

A

the same – dominant (AA) or recessive (aa)

93
Q

heterozygous

A

different – will be dominant (Aa)

94
Q

law of segregation

A
  • each individual has two factors for each trait
    –>factors separate during gamete formation
  • each gamete has 1 factor from each pair
  • fertilization gives a new individual 2 allele for each trait

explained by meiosis

basically the process from being diploid, to haploid, to diploid again

95
Q

mendels conclusion

A

organisms must contain alternative versions of genes

96
Q

allele

A

variation of gene

97
Q

locus

A

location of gene

98
Q

law of independent assortment

A

each homologous pair segregates independently of the other pairs
- all possible combinations can occur in metaphase 1 and are reflected in possible combinations of chromosomes in gametes

99
Q

test cross

A

used to determine genotype of unknown individual expressing a dominant trait by mating with a homozygous recessive individual

100
Q

dihybrid cross

A

2 traits are being focused on (ex plant height and pod color)

101
Q

phenotype

A

physical representation

102
Q

genotype

A

genetic representation

103
Q

determining genotypes for gametes of dihybrid cross

A

1&3, 1&4, 2&3, 2&4

104
Q

incomplete dominance

A

heterozygote has phenotype that is in between (mixed), occurs with intermediate phenotype
–> correlates with theory of blending from before mendel
–> ex: pink flower

105
Q

co-dominance

A

heterozygote has phenotype where both dominant alleles are fully expressed
–> ex: flower is red and white

106
Q

polygenic

A

many genes interact to control a phenotype or trait
Ex:
- eye color
- human height
- skin color

107
Q

pleiotropy

A

one gene effects many phenotypic characteristics

108
Q

product rule

A

chance that two independent events will occur = product of chance that individual events will occur, meaning you multiply the probability of each individual event together to get the overall probability

109
Q

phenotypic plasticity

A

individual genotypes produce different traits when exposed to different environmental conditions
–> Ex: shells of snails being thinner when in more exposed intertidal region, because crabs can not predate as much as in land, where shells are thicker

110
Q

sex linked traits

A

will be present on a sex chromosome, most commonly the X chromosome

Remember
Female: XX
Male: XY

with a recessive x linked disorder, males would only need one x linked allele whereas females would need 2.