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Veterinary Nursing Care > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which medication is the best therapy for status epilepticus?

a. Diazepam
b. Levetiracetam
c. Phenobarbital
d. Potassium bromide

A

a. Diazepam

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2
Q

Which term describes signs and symptoms appearing after a seizure?

a. Interictal
b. Postictal
c. Preictal
d. Intraictal

A

b. Postictal

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3
Q

In the presence of DKA, which perceived deficiency initiates lipolysis?

a. Ketones
b. Glucose
c. Catecholamine
d. Growth hormone

A

b. Glucose

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4
Q

Which type of insulin is best for immediate onset of action in a cat with DKA?

a. Lente IM
b. NPH (SQ)
c. Regular IV
d. Glargine (SQ)

A

c. Regular IV

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5
Q

Which diagnosis is most likely for a patient whose cells are unable to take up glucose via glucose transport (GLUT) receptors?

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
b. Hypoadrenocorticism
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypoglycemia

A

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

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6
Q

Which diagnosis is most likely for a patient who has a deficiency in the production of mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), glucocorticoids (cortisol), or both by the adrenal glands?

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Hypoadrenocorticism
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypoglycemia

A

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

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7
Q

Which substance is important in regulating body electrolyte status by promoting sodium and chloride reabsorption in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions?

a. Insulin
b. Cortisol
c. Calcium
d. Aldosterone

A

d. Aldosterone

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8
Q

Which is one of the primary treatment goals for addisonian crisis?

a. Rapidly treat shock
b. Increase serum glucose
c. Restore depleted calcium
d. Slowly reduce serum glucose

A

a. Rapidly treat shock

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9
Q

Which test can be used to rule out hypoadrenocorticism as the cause of a patient’s hyperkalemia?

a. Bone marrow analysis
b. Ultrasonograpy
c. ACTH stimulation test
d. Fine-needle aspirate

A

c. ACTH stimulation test

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10
Q

Which is the diuretic of choice following rehydration and volume expansion in the treatment of hypercalcemia?

a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Bendrofluazide
c. Chlorothiazide
d. Furosemide

A

d. Furosemide

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11
Q

Which is the most common cause of hypocalcemia in dogs and cats?

a. Chronic kidney disease
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Puerperal tetany
d. Eclampsia

A

b. Hypoalbuminemia

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12
Q

In an emergency, which is the preferred treatment for severe hypocalcemia?

a. Calcium gluconate
b. Phosphate enema
c. Sodium chloride
d. Vitamin D

A

a. Calcium gluconate

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13
Q

Which is considered a hallmark of kidney injury or disease?

a. Increased amylase activity
b. Inflammatory leukogram
c. Increased lipase activity
d. Azotemia

A

d. Azotemia

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14
Q

Which is the most common tumor associated with hypoglycemia in a dog?

a. Hemangiosarcoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Insulinoma

A

d. Insulinoma

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15
Q

A patient does not seem to know the location of its paws or body in space and trips over its own paws and drags them, spontaneously knuckling over. Which best identifies this problem?

a. Paresis
b. Nociception
c. Proprioceptive ataxia
d. Atlanto-axial subluxation

A

c. Proprioceptive ataxia

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16
Q

Which is the most common cause of spinal cord injury?

a. Fibrocartilaginous embolic myelopathy (FCEM)
b. Intervertebral diskherniation (IVDH)
c. Neoplastic compression
d. Vascular accident

A

b. Intervertebral diskherniation (IVDH)

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17
Q

Which diagnostic procedure provides the most complete characterization of a spinal cord injury?

a. MRI
b. CT scan
c. Myelography
d. Radiography

A

a. MRI

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18
Q

A patient with head injury exhibits anisocoria. Which best describes this?

a. Unequal pupil size
b. Loss of ability to blink
c. Abnormal position of the eyes
d. Asymmetric lateral-medial eye movements

A

a. Unequal pupil size

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19
Q

Which term best describes a constricted pupil?

a. Miosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Nystagmus
d. Strabismus

A

a. Miosis

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20
Q

Which provides direct therapy to reduce increased ICP and improve cerebral blood flow?

a. Mannitol
b. Meclizine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Maropitant citrate

A

a. Mannitol

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21
Q

Which best described enterohepatic recirculation?

a. Toxin excreted from liver is reabsorbed in the small intestine, extending its effects.
b. Toxin is continually exchanged between liver and gallbladder, heightening toxicity.
c. Toxin is continually exchanged between the lobes of the liver, increasing toxicity.
d. Toxin is circulated continuously between liver and bile for continual toxicity.

A

a. Toxin excreted from liver is reabsorbed in the small intestine, extending its effects.

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22
Q

Which of the following should be used when bathing an animal with topical toxin exposure?

a. Soothing oatmeal shampoo
b. Hot water
c. Activated charcoal
d. Dishwashing detergent

A

d. Dishwashing detergent

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23
Q

Which is a common antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?

a. Ethanol
b. Atropine
c. Flumazenil
d. N-acetylcysteine

A

d. N-acetylcysteine

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24
Q

Which is a common antidote for organophosphate toxicity?

a. Ethanol
b. Atropine
c. Flumazenil
d. N-acetylcysteine

A

b. Atropine

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25
Q

A dog has been diagnosed with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity. Which antidote is the best option for treating this?

a. Naloxone
b. Vitamin K1
c. CaNa2EDTA
d. 4-methylpyrazole (4-MP)

A

b. Vitamin K1

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26
Q

What should a cat be monitored for after administering the emetic xylazine hydrochloride?

a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Pain
d. Skeletal muscle rigidity

A

a. Bradycardia

27
Q

Which agent can be used multiple times to prevent enterohepatic recirculation?

a. Cathartics
b. Activated charcoal (AC)
c. Gastrotomy
d. Whole bowel irrigation

A

b. Activated charcoal (AC)

28
Q

Which agent can reverse the effects of xylazine, if needed?

a. Yohimbine
b. Apomorphine
c. Activated charcoal (AC)
d. Hydrogen peroxide

A

a. Yohimbine

29
Q

A cat has ingested leaves of an Easter lily. Which is the most appropriate response?

a. Attempt GI decontamination, administer aggressive IV fluid therapy for 48 – 72 hours.
b. Rinse the oral cavity with milk or water, with possible GI decontamination.
c. Administer IV fluid therapy and antidote therapy of flumazenil IV
d. Administer repeated doses of AC to prevent enterohepatic recirculation.

A

a. Attempt GI decontamination, administer aggressive IV fluid therapy for 48 – 72 hours.

30
Q

Which represents the main purpose of administering misoprostol to a patient with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug overdose?

a. To protect against GI ulceration
b. To prevent CNS depression
c. To reverse neurologic effects
d. To protect against adverse renal effects

A

a. To protect against GI ulceration

31
Q

A dog is found licking antifreeze off a driveway. Which is the most effective treatment for resultant alcohol dehydrogenase?

a. Ethanol
b. Atropine
c. 4-methylpyrazole (4-MP)
d. Activated charcoal

A

c. 4-methylpyrazole (4-MP)

32
Q

A dog eats the grapes and begins vomiting. What is the serum chemistry likely to reveal?

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Azotemia

A

d. Azotemia

33
Q

A dog has consumed a packet of chewing gum containing xylitol. What is the serum chemistry likely to reveal?

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Azotemia

A

b. Hypoglycemia

34
Q

Herbivores are able to obtain energy from all that hay they eat.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

35
Q

Long-term storage forms of energy include:

A. ATP, glucose
B. Glycogen, Triglycerides
C. Myoglobin, ATP
D. Vitamins, glucose

A

B. Glycogen, Triglycerides

36
Q

Which animal will likely get the most energy from a high fiber diet?

A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Horse
D. Pig

A

C. Horse

37
Q

Who requires pet food companies to list on their labels the method used for obtaining nutritional value?

A. OSHA
B. CVTEA
C. AVMA
D. AAFCO

A

D. AAFCO

38
Q

What is the primary purpose of carbohydrates in the body?

A. Provide structure to the body
B. Provide SCFAs
C. Provide energy
D. Provide metabolic water

A

C. Provide energy

39
Q

The definition of “nutrient” is:

A. Material used to manufacture a finished feed
B. Quantitative distribution of the individual nutrients within the finished formula
C. A nourishing substance, food, or component of food, including minerals, vitamins, fats, protein, carbohydrates, and water
D. Portions and select ingredients

A

C. A nourishing substance, food, or component of food, including minerals, vitamins, fats, protein, carbohydrates, and water

40
Q

Responsibilities of the veterinary technician include which of the following:

A. assessing the nutritional needs of the patient
B. education of owners about basic nutrition
C. monitoring of patient to make sure needs are being met
D. determining the nutritional needs of hospitalized patients
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

41
Q

When energy is consumed in excess of need, what effect does that have on the body?
Selected Answer:
Incorrect B. Weight loss is seen.
Answers:
A. None, the body compensates for changes.
B. Weight loss is seen.
C. Weight gain is seen.
D. Changes depend on the nutrient consumed in excess

A

C. Weight gain is seen.

42
Q

The most import nutrient in terms of survival is:

A. Protein
B. Water
C. Carbohydrates
D. Fats

A

B. Water

43
Q

What conditions can affect DER calculations?

A. Age and activity level
B. Liver and renal values
C. Type of food being fed
D. Vitamin and mineral supplements

A

A. Age and activity level

44
Q

There are six classes of nutrients. They are:

A. Vitamins, minerals, energy, protein, carbohydrates, and fats
B. Vitamins, minerals, calcium, phosphorus, protein, and fats
C. Vitamins, minerals, protein, carbohydrates, fats and water
D. Vitamin, protein, calcium, salt, fiber and fat

A

C. Vitamins, minerals, protein, carbohydrates, fats and water

45
Q

The resting energy requirement of a 14 pound cat is approximately _______kcal/day.

A. 206
B. 261
C. 490
D. 2060

A

B. 261

46
Q

Stored fat found under the skin is termed what?

A. Omental
B. Visceral
C. Mesenteric
D. Subcutaneous

A

D. Subcutaneous

47
Q

Lipoproteins provide what function in the body?

A. Insulation
B. Transport of fats
C. Visceral protection
D. Skin protection

A

B. Transport of fats

48
Q

Which EFA is essential for cats but not dogs?

A. Linoleic acid
B. Alpha-linolenic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Lauric acid

A

C. Arachidonic acid

49
Q

Deficiency of essential fatty acids can cause all of the following except

A. Impaired wound healing
B. Dry coat
C. scaley skin
D. fractures in long bones

A

D. fractures in long bones

50
Q

The base unit for a protein is what?

A. Glycerol
B. Nitrogen
C. Amino acid
D. Glucose

A

C. Amino acid

51
Q

Taurine functions in bile acid formation to help digest fats and is essential in the _____.

A. Cat
B. Dog
C. Rabbit
D. Pig

A

A. Cat

52
Q

What is the function of vitamins in the body?

A. Transportation of fats
B. Immune stimulation
C. Enzymes, coenzymes and enzyme precursors
D. Energy production for intestinal microflora

A

C. Enzymes, coenzymes and enzyme precursors

53
Q

How are water soluble vitamins removed from the body?

A. Using bile salts in the intestines
B. Bound to fiber in the colon
C. Through the urine
D. Broken down through respiration

A

C. Through the urine

54
Q

Where is vitamin K produced in the body?

A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Colon

A

D. Colon

55
Q

The following factor must be considered when choosing a diet for a geriatric cat

A. Individual cat’s clinical signs/overall health
B. Body condition score
C. Laboratory tests
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

56
Q

What is the DER of a 55lb working dog with a lifestyle factor of 3?

A

55/2.2 = 25 x 30 +70 = 820 x 3 = 2460

57
Q

Maddie is a 63 lb, spayed female, dog with a body condition score of 3 of 5. She is being fed Adult Large Breed that has 365 kcal/cup. How many cups per day should she be fed to maintain her body weight? Assume her lifestyle factor is 1.4.

A

28.6 kg x 30 + 70 = 929kcal/day x 1.4 = 1300kcal/day

1300 / 365 = 3.5 cups/day

58
Q

Insulin is produced by the _______________ endocrine cells in the pancreas.

A

beta

59
Q

What changes may you see on an ECG of a hyperkalemic patient?

A

Tented T waves, no P waves, bradycardia

60
Q

What changes may you see on an ECG of a patient being administered calcium gluconate too rapidly?

A

bradycardia, asytole

61
Q

Following a successful resuscitation from cardiopulmonary arrest, a patient needs a lidocaine infusion for ventricular tachycardia. The order is for 3mg/kg/hr for an 88 lb patient; you want a rate of 25 mL/hr and have a 250mL bag if saline. How many milliliters of lidocaine will you add to a volume of saline? The concentration of lidocaine is 20 mg/mL.

A

40kg x 50mcg/kg/min = 2000mcg/min = 2mg/min / 20mg/mL = 0.1mL/min x 60min = 6mL/hr

250mL/bag / 25mL/hr = 10hr/bag x 6mL/hr = 60mL of lidocaine added to bag

62
Q

You need to make 500mL of 3% dextrose solution. You have 30% dextrose in stock. How much diluent will you need to make the solution?

A

30 x X = 3 x 500

30X = 1500

X = 50mL

500 - 50 = 450mL diluent

63
Q

Which vitamins are water soluble?

A

B and C

64
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A

D, E, K, A

Veterinary Nursing Care (13 decks)

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