exam 3

Question 1

What causes bursitis?

Answer 1

repetitive movement & injuries

Question 2

Duchenne muscular dystrophy patho

Answer 2

• x-linked trait
• decrease in dystrophin = inflammation = muscle necrosis & degeneration

Question 3

osteosarcoma manifestations

Answer 3

early = limb pain
later = metastasized to lungs

Question 4

osteosarcoma patho

Answer 4

destruction of long bone cortex = fractures

Question 5

osteoarthritis risk factors

Answer 5

• age
• post menopause
• obesity

Question 6

osteoporosis patho

Answer 6

increase resorption faster than bone formation = bone density degredation (brittle bones)

Question 7

osteoporosis risk factors

Answer 7

• female post menopause
• corticosteroids
• thyroid supplements

Question 8

trauma patho

Answer 8

injury d/t abnormal contraction

Question 9

psoriatic arthritis manifestations

Answer 9

• oncholysis (nail thickens)
• dactylitis (digits swell)
• silver scales

Question 10

psoriatic arthritis patho

Answer 10

associated with psoriasis
immunological reaction causes inflammation

Question 11

what is a capsule injury

Answer 11

“frozen shoulder” stiffness of joint

Question 12

capsule injury patho

Answer 12

injury = capsule thickens = increase in synovial fluid

Question 13

scoliosis risk factors

Answer 13

mother with scoliosis & puberty

Question 14

scoliosis complications

Answer 14

GI

Question 15

Paget Disease etiology

Answer 15

metabolic bone disease cause by viral infection

Question 16

paget disease patho

Answer 16

increase in bone resorption & formation

Question 17

giant cell tumor risk factors

Answer 17

females 30+

Question 18

giant cell tumor manifestations

Answer 18

• join pain
• swelling
• limited ROM

Question 19

What is giant cell tumor

Answer 19

aggressive tumor that can progress to sarcoma (becomes malignant)

Question 20

delayed healing risk factors

Answer 20

• diabetes
• corticosteroids
• immunocompromised
• smokers

Question 21

compartment syndrome patho

Answer 21

muscle belly bleeding stops coagulation contraction & calcification of blood (mitosis ossificans)

Question 22

compartment syndrome manifestations

Answer 22

6 P’s
- pain
- pallor
- parasthesia
- pulselessness
- paralysis
- poikilothermia

Question 24

gout patho

Answer 24

unable to break down uric acid

Question 24

what is neuropathic osteoarthropathy associated with?

Answer 24

MS

Question 24

gout etiology

Answer 24

deposition of uric crystals = inflammation

Question 24

what should you do for a gout pt?

Answer 24

check uric acid levels d/t inability to oxidize uric acid or excrete by kidneys

Question 24

what is osteoarthritis

Answer 24

degenerative joint disease

Question 25

what is neuropathic osteoarthropathy

Answer 25

disease that leads to bone/joint abnormalitites

Question 26

neuropathic osteoarthropathy risk factors

Answer 26

- age - post menopause - obesity

Question 27

what is an evulsion fracture?

Answer 27

separation of small fragment of bone

Question 28

what is myopia?

Answer 28

image in front of retina (nearsighted)

Question 29

what is hyperopia?

Answer 29

image behind retina (farsighted)

Question 30

what is an astigmatism?

Answer 30

irregular distortion/curvature of cornea/lens

Question 31

What is presbyopia?

Answer 31

loss of accomodation

Question 32

retinal detachment manifestations

Answer 32

floaters & loss of vision

Question 33

Meniere manifestations

Answer 33

- tinnitus - unilateral hearing impairment - vertigo - nystagmus - sensation of ear fullness

Question 34

conductive hearing loss patho

Answer 34

dysfunction of middle ear blocks sounds path

Question 35

examples of conductive hearing loss

Answer 35

- cerumen impaction - foreign object

Question 36

what is the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?

Answer 36

conductive = sound cant reach cochlear sensorineural = disturbance of inner ear cochlear/vestibulocochlear to brain

Question 37

sensorineural hearing loss risk factors

Answer 37

- ototoxicity (meds) - trauma (noise) - presbycusis (age)

Question 38

meniere disease patho

Answer 38

increase & accumulation of endolymph = distention

Question 39

macular degeneration images

Answer 39

loss of middle vision

Question 40

glaucoma images

Answer 40

only middle is clear, blurry/black borders

Question 41

retinal detachment images

Answer 41

floaters

Question 42

complication of macular degeneration

Answer 42

no cure = blindness

Question 43

glaucoma risk factors

Answer 43

- HTN - DM

Question 44

otosclerosis patho

Answer 44

spongelike bony lesion growth

Question 45

how do pt with otosclerosis hear?

Answer 45

- they hear best in loud environments - can not hear conversational tones

Question 46

otitis media risk factors

Answer 46

children with multiple respiratory infections

Question 47

ototoxicity patho

Answer 47

damage of cochlear hair cells

Question 48

trigeminal neuralgia patho

Answer 48

nerve demyelination (stripping of myelin sheath)

Question 49

trigeminal neuralgia manifestations

Answer 49

pain ranging from dull to sharp

Question 50

aneurysms risk factors

Answer 50

- HTN - alcohol - cocaine - congenital defects (marfan syndrome)

Question 51

ICP manifestations

Answer 51

- change in LOC - N/V - headaches

Question 52

what is a late sign of ICP

Answer 52

altered respiratory pattern

Question 53

what causes elevation of ICP

Answer 53

- edema - obstruction - improper flow of CSF

Question 54

what reflexes are associated with a poor prognosis of ICP?

Answer 54

- ocular vestibular reflex - corneal reflex

Question 55

what is the ocular vestibular reflex?

Answer 55

move pts head normal = eyes turn abnormal = eyes stay

Question 56

what is the corneal reflex?

Answer 56

touch pt eye with cotton blink = normal don't blink = abnormal

Question 57

Bells Palsy patho

Answer 57

idiopathic neuropathy to facial nerve

Question 58

balls palsy manifestations

Answer 58

temporary unilateral paralysis & pain

Question 59

bells palsy affected age

Answer 59

50s & 60s

Question 60

subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) manifestations

Answer 60

bloody CSF (meningeal irritation)

Question 61

arteriovenous malformation (AVM) patho

Answer 61

capillary system fails to develop = blood falls into veins = increase in pressure = rupturing

Question 62

AVM manifestations

Answer 62

neuro dysfunction & seizures

Question 63

TBI diffuse axonal injury patho

Answer 63

myelin sheath damaged

Question 64

poor prognosis of TBI

Answer 64

- verbally non responsive - discerned (leg & arm distention) - decorticate (legs distended & arms flexed)

Question 65

GCS poorest function

Answer 65

worst prognosis = decorticate

Question 66

what is a Polar brain injury

Answer 66

coup-contrecoup injury back & forth movement AKA whiplash

Question 67

nursing intervention for CSF drainage leakage

Answer 67

tell DR immediately (basilar skull fracture)

Question 68

if a pt had a stroke on the right hemisphere which side of the body is affected?

Answer 68

Left side & experiences homonymous hemianopsia

Question 69

hemorrhagic stroke risk factors

Answer 69

- HTN - increase ICP - headache

Question 70

what is cushing reflex

Answer 70

sympathetic NS response to increase ICP - increase in systolic BP - bradycardia - irregular respiration

Question 71

parkinsons manifestations

Answer 71

- shuffling gait - infrequent blinking - rigidity - drooling - no facial expression

Question 72

seizure patho

Answer 72

abnormal/excessive electrical discharge **transient neuro event**

Question 73

focal seizure manifestations

Answer 73

no memory of event