Exam 3 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What do opsonins do

A

Increase phagocytosis

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2
Q

Irritable Bowl Disease (IDB) is an overreaction of the immune system to _____

A

Gut microbiota

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3
Q

Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane

A

All are correct

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4
Q

What do natural killer cells do

A

Kill cells that lack MHC molecules

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5
Q

What do the two types of MHC molecules do

A

Process self & foreign antigens

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6
Q

True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement

A

False

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7
Q

The variable region of an antibody is _____. The constant region signals _____ by changing shape.

A

A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound

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8
Q

True or false: human genome edits using CRISPR can be vertically transmitted

A

True

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9
Q

Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, ‘presenter’ molecules/antigen holders

A

Markers of self & presenter molecules

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10
Q

The ‘older’, _____ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The _____ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections

A

Innate, adaptive

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11
Q

True or false: wounds that release puss are a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells

A

True

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12
Q

True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure

A

False

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13
Q

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies are caused by a _____ version of a _____ protein that eventually leads to _____.

A

Misfolded, normal, holes in the brain

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14
Q

True or false: Prion-like disease can affect humans who eat deer meat

A

Unclear

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15
Q

True or false: Bacteria have immunologic memory

A

True

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16
Q

The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____

A

Cytokine, brain

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17
Q

The presence of a genomic island in a bacterial species suggests: orthologous genes, horizontal gene transfer, genomes evolve

A

Horizontal gene transfer & genomes evolve

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18
Q

The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions

A

Endotoxin

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19
Q

Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.

A

Lysosome, reactive oxygen species

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20
Q

One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____

A

double stranded RNA, commit suicide

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21
Q

True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants

22
Q

Akkermansia muciniphila is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____

23
Q

Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?

24
Q

Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions

A

Neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

25
The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin
2025 influenza proteins
26
Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water
A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water
27
Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus
Cytotoxic T cells
28
Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells
Increasing the flow of ions out of
29
The human microbiome contains all _____
Organisms present in & on the body
30
True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface
True
31
True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics
False
32
A viroid: is a small, circular ssRNA molecule, usually has no capsid, lacks protein-encoding genes
All are correct
33
Metagenomics (‘over/above genetics’) has been used to survey the human skin and environmental samples for microorganisms. Advances in which techniques have made this possible?
PCR and DNA sequencing
34
True or false: prion disease affect only humans
False
35
True or false: human prion disease can be inherited
True
36
The complement system is considered part of the _____ immune system because it is activated by _____
Innate, any bacteria
37
Which of the following demonstrate an interaction between gut microbiota and the host: gnotobiotic mice, streptokinase, intestinal M cells
Gnotobiotic mice, intestinal M cells
38
Which property of viroids is most responsible for their ability to infect an entire plant
Their size
39
True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream
False
40
Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____
Bacterial, escape immune detection
41
Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.
Colon cancer
42
Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?
DNA
43
True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza
True
44
Cholera toxin is an _____
Enterotoxin
45
Which of the following might a pathogen use to prevent phagocytosis: hemolysin, transposes, streptokinase, capsule
Capsule
46
The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____
Memory cells
47
Failure to remove immature T cells that react too strongly to MHC molecules can lead to _____
Autoimmune disease
48
Treating Ebola patients with hyper-immune sera from an infected patient is classified as _____
Artificially acquired passive immunity
49
The ‘a’ in the DTaP vaccine refers to?
The type of vaccine
50
What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common: both block viral fusion, both inhibit the viral protease, both are nucleotide analogs
Both inhibit the viral protease