Exam 3 Flashcards
(385 cards)
1
Q
What is superior to the lateral aspect of each eye?
A
lacrimal glands
2
Q
What does lacrimal glands make?
A
salt solution (TEARS)
3
Q
Where do tears come out?
A
through small ducts on the anterior surface of the eyeball
4
Q
What is the other antibacterial enzyme that the lacrimal secretion also contains?
A
lysosome
5
Q
What happens when we cry?
A
the excess tears flows onto the nasolacrimal duct causing our noses to run
6
Q
What is the name of our sweat glands?
A
ciliary glands
7
Q
Where do the ciliary glands lie?
A
between eyelash hair follicles
8
Q
What helps lubricate the eyeball?
A
ciliary glands
9
Q
Where are the tarsal glands located?
A
posterior to the eyelashes
10
Q
What do the tarsal glands secrete?
A
an oily substance
11
Q
What muscles are working when you are looking at your nose?
EXTRA CREDIT
A
inferior rectus muscle and medial rectus muscle
12
Q
What is an inflammation of one of the ciliary glands or a small oil gland called?
A
Sty
13
Q
What are eyelids called?
A
palpebrae
14
Q
What lines the internal surface of the eyelids and continues over the anterior surface of the eyeball?
A
conjunctiva
15
Q
What aids in lubricating the eyeball?
A
The conjunctiva secreting mucus
16
Q
What is conjunctivitis?
A
Inflammation of the conjunctiva, often
accompanied by redness of the eye
17
Q
What is the outermost fibrous layer?
A
a protective layer
18
Q
What does the outermost fibrous layer contain?
A
sclera and cornea
19
Q
What is the sclera?
A
opaque white and forms the bulk of the fibrous layer
20
Q
What is the sclera nickname?
A
the white of the eye
21
Q
What is the cornea?
A
the anterior most transparent area where light enters
22
Q
What type of layer is the middle layer?
A
vascular
23
Q
Is the choroid posterior or anterior?
A
posterior
24
Q
What is choroid?
A
a blood-rich nutritive region containing
a dark pigment that prevents light scattering within the eye
25
What is the ciliary body composed of?
the ciliary muscles
26
What does the ciliary body control?
the eyes lens shape
27
What is the most anterior part of the uvea?
The pigmented iris.
28
The only special sense NOT fully functional at birth is the sense of ________
Vision
29
What is the sensory layer of the eye?
Retina
30
What is the structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye?
Lens
31
What helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye?
Aqueous Humor
32
What is the area of greatest visual acuity?
Fovea centralis
33
Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________
eye
34
Ordinarily, it is NOT possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________
has no blood supply
35
The blind spot of the eye is caused by _______
an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
36
Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units typically innervate 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
37
Motion sickness seems to ________
result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
38
Identify the muscle that is controlled by the abducens nerve (CN VI)
B
39
Name the muscle at D
Inferior Rectus
40
Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer.
C
41
What is #1?
Levator palpeerde superioris muscle
42
What is #2?
Palpebral conjunctive
43
What is #3?
Bulbar conjunctiva
44
What is #4?
Orbicularis oculi muscle
45
What is #5?
tarsal glands
46
What is #6?
palpebral fissure
47
What is #7?
eyelashes
48
What is #8?
conjutival sac
49
What is #1?
Superior oblique muscle
50
What is #2?
Superior rectus muscle
51
What is #3?
Lateral rectus muscle
52
What is #4?
Superior oblique tendon
53
What is #5?
Inferior rectus muscle
54
What is #6?
Inferior oblique muscle
55
The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following?
A) a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract
B) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
C) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects
D
56
Vitamin A deficiency leads to rod degeneration
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
57
How are the olfactory receptors activated?
Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors.
58
What is #1?
Olfactory tract
59
What is #2?
Olfactory gland
60
What is #3?
Olfactory epithelium
61
What is #4?
Mitral cell
62
What is #5?
Olfactory bulb
63
What is #6?
Olfactory stem cell
64
What is #7?
Olfactory sensory neuron
65
What is #8?
Supporting cell
66
What is #9?
Olfactory cilia
67
Most taste buds are located __________
on the tongue surface in fungiform papillae
68
What is #1?
Auricle
69
What is #2?
Stapes
70
What is #3?
Tympanic membrane
71
What is #4?
semicircular canals/balance organs
72
What is #5?
Cochlea/House organ of Corti
73
Name the sensory structure located in the enlarged swellings at the end of the tubes labeled as A
(PICTURE)
ampulla
74
What is #1?
Semicircular canals
75
What is #2?
Vestibule
76
What is #3?
Vestibular Nerve
77
What is #4?
Cochlear Nerve
78
What is #5?
Cochlea
79
What is #6?
auditory tube
80
What is #1?
Semicircular ducts
81
What is #2?
Cristae ampullares
82
What is #3?
Utricle in vestibule
83
What is #4?
Stapes in oval window
84
What is #5?
Round Window
85
What is #6?
Saccule in Vestibule
86
What is #1?
Tectorial membrane
87
What is #2?
Cochlear Duct
88
What is #3?
Spiral Organ
89
What is #4?
Basilar membrane
90
What is #5?
Vestibular membrane
91
What is #6?
Scala Vestibuli
92
What is #7?
Scala tympani
93
A patient has noticed that his ability to hear has recently decreased. Which item is NOT likely to have caused his problem?
A) Occlusion of the external auditory meatus by cerumen
B) Damage to the semicircular canals
C) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube dysfunction
B
94
Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction?
the cochlea
95
A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result?
A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.
B) The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear.
C) The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo.
D) The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing
A
96
The semicircular canals are adapted to detect static equilibrium
(TRUE OR FALSE)
FALSE
97
Tinnitus, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________
Ménière's syndrome
98
The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types
contractility
99
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
C) Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
D) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
C
100
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body
101
Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue?
A) stabilizing joints
B) maintaining posture
C) secreting hormones
D) producing movement
E) generating heat
C
102
What is #1?
Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ
103
What is #2?
Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers
104
What is #3?
Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles
105
What is #4?
Bundles of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium
106
What is #5?
Individual muscle fiber
107
The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?
A) endomysium
B) tendon
C) synovial membrane
D) ligament
B
108
What is #1?
Z disc
109
What is #2?
H Zone
110
What is #3?
I Band
111
What is #4?
A Band
112
What is #5?
M Line
113
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
114
The sliding filament model of contraction states that __________
during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree
115
The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A (dark) band?
2 and 6
116
What is #1?
T Tubule
117
What is #2?
A Band
118
What is #3?
I Band
119
What is #4?
Sarcolemma
120
What is #5?
Triad
121
What is #6?
Terminal cisterns
122
What is #7?
Myofibrils
123
Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?
A) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres.
B) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
D) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium.
C
124
An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role?
to break down acetylcholine
125
Which of the following interactions must occur first so that the others can take place?
B binds to troponin
126
Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities, such as long-distance jogging?
slow oxidative fibers
127
Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________
slow oxidative fibers
128
A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) __________ contraction
eccentric
129
Isometric contractions are important contractions that allow humans to hold their posture over time
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
130
If both motor neurons shown in this figure were to develop action potentials and stimulate muscle fibers, would all the muscle cells shown here contract?
No, because neurons in this figure do not innervate every muscle cell shown.
131
Which of the following is true?
A) Smooth muscle lacks the thin and thick filaments characteristic of skeletal muscle.
B) Skeletal muscle fibers contain sarcomeres; smooth muscle fibers do not.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers tend to be shorter than smooth muscle fibers.
D) Skeletal muscle lacks the coarse connective tissue sheaths that are found in smooth muscle
B
132
If troponin is a component of both cardiac and skeletal muscle, why is an elevated plasma troponin level useful in diagnosing myocardial damage?
The subunits of the troponin in cardiac muscle are unique to heart muscle.
133
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.
latent
134
What is the primary function of wave summation?
produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
135
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________
changes in length and moves the "load"
136
Muscle tone is ________
a state of sustained partial contraction
137
Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of a muscle twitch?
A) relaxation, contraction, latent
B) latent, contraction, relaxation
C) contraction, relaxation, latent
D) latent, relaxation, contraction
B
138
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
139
A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body's needs at the time.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
140
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
141
Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.
Antagonist
142
Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle
Fixator
143
Muscle that is primarily responsible for bring about a particular movement
Agonist
144
Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement
Synergist
145
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
an agonist (prime mover)
146
Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
147
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
148
The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________
mastoid process of the temporal bone
149
A muscle that crosses the posterior side of a joint will always cause extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
150
What is #1?
Elevates and adducts scapula
151
What is #2?
Rotates scapula
152
What is #3?
Trapezius muscle
153
What is #4?
Rhomboid minor and major
154
What is #5?
Teres major muscle
155
What is #6?
Latissimus dorsi muscle
156
Powerful flexor and adductor of hand.
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
157
Flexes distal interphalangeal joints.
Flexor digitorum profundus
158
Stabilizes the wrist during finger extension
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
159
Extends and abducts the hand
Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
160
Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements.
Palmer's Longus
161
What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?
tibialis anterior
162
Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?
A )internal intercostal
B) diaphragm
C) external intercostal
D) latissimus dorsi
D
163
The most powerful muscle in the body is the _______
quadriceps femoris
164
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
A) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
B) They are often called strap muscles.
C) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed.
D) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing.
A
165
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus
166
Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
A) levator scapulae
B) supraspinatus
C) subscapularis
D) teres minor
A
167
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
A) the medial pterygoid
B) the temporalis
C) the zygomaticus major
D) the frontal belly of the epicranius
D
168
At the grocery store a cute, little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?
genioglossus
169
Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles?
A) flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall
B) extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides
C) pull ribs toward one another to elevate the rib cage
D) elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius
A
170
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position?
A) the quadriceps femoris
B) the sartorius
C) the gastrocnemius
D) all of the hamstrings
B
171
Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon?
A) the sartorius
B) the gastrocnemius
C) the semitendinosus
D) the tibialis anterior
B
172
Which of the following muscles fixes and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
A) external oblique
B) internal oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) rectus abdominis
D
173
Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings?
A) semitendinosus
B) gracilis
C) biceps femoris
D) semimembranosus
B
174
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called?
buccinator
175
Which of the following muscles is used to form a smile?
A) orbicularis oris
B) mentalis
C) zygomaticus major
D) corrugator supercilli
C
176
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
A) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
B) It closes the eye.
C) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
D) It draws the eyebrows together.
C
177
Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?
thigh adductors
178
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?
the brachioradialis
179
Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
180
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) biceps femoris
B) vastus medialis
C) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D) soleus
C
181
What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common?
All act on the tongue
182
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh at the hip?
A) adductor magnus
B) vastus lateralis
C) gluteus maximus
D) tibialis posterior
A
183
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
B) fibularis (peroneus) longus
C) extensor digitorum longus
D) fibularis (peroneus) tertius
A
184
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?
A) the vastus intermedius
B) the vastus medialis
C) rectus femoris
D) the vastus lateralis
D
185
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) gluteal muscles
B) brachioradialis
C) soleus
D) hamstring muscles
D
186
Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus
A
187
________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint
Triceps brachii
188
The ________ is known as the "boxer's muscle."
serratus anterior
189
The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique.
transversus abdominis
190
The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing
buccinator
191
All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus have one of two functions. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) wrist flexion and supination
B) wrist flexion and forearm pronation
C) forearm flexion and wrist flexion
D) wrist extension and forearm supination
B
192
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation.
B) The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh.
C) The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints.
D) The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion.
D
193
The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
194
Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action?
A) teres minor; adduction
B) supraspinatus; lateral rotation
C) infraspinatus; abduction
D) subscapularis; medial rotation
C
195
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) deltoid; arm abduction
B) pectoralis major; arm abduction
C) trapezius; stabilizes, elevates, retracts, and rotates scapula
D) latissimus dorsi; arm extension, arm adduction, and medial arm rotation
B
196
Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?
A) vastus medialis
B) vastus lateralis
C) rectus femoris
D) biceps femoris
D
197
Where are the origins for most of the muscles that control movement of the fingers?
the forearm
198
Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?
A) supraspinatus
B) infraspinatus
C) teres major
D) subscapularis
C
199
Which of the following muscles does the phrenic nerve innervate?
A) the diaphragm
B) the external intercostals
C) the sternocleidomastoid muscles
D) the internal intercostals
A
200
Which muscle is known as the "boxer's muscle" for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch?
D
201
Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse?
D
202
Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle?
A
B
C
D
B
203
Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle.
C
204
What is #1?
Trapezius
205
What is #2?
Deltoid
206
What is #3?
Triceps Brachii
207
What is #4?
Biceps Brachii
208
What is #5?
Pronator Teres
209
What is #6?
Brachioradialis
210
What is #1?
Sternohyoid
211
What is #2?
Platysma
212
What is #3?
Pectoralis major
213
What is #4?
Sternocleidomastoid
214
What is #5?
Pectoralis minor
215
What is #6?
Intercostals
216
What is #7?
Serratus Anterior
217
What is #1?
External Oblique
218
What is #2?
Rectus abdominis
219
What is #3?
Transverse abdominis
220
What is #4?
Internal oblique
221
What is #5?
Tensor fasciae latae
222
What is #6?
Sartorius
223
What is #7?
Adductor Longus
224
What is #8?
Gracilis
225
What is #1?
Rectus Femoris
226
What is #2?
Vastus Lateralis
227
What is #3?
Vastus medialis
228
What is #4?
Fibularis longus
229
What is #5?
Gastrocnemius
230
What is #6?
Tibialis anterior
231
What is #7?
Soleus
232
What is #1?
Triceps brachii
233
What is #2?
Brachialis
234
What is #3?
Brachioradialis
235
What is #4?
Extensor carpiradialis longus
236
What is #5?
Extensor digitorum
237
What is #6?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
238
What is #7?
Extensor carpi ulnaris
239
What is #1?
Gastrocnemius
240
What is #2?
Soleus
241
What is #3?
Fibularis longus
242
What is #4?
Calcaneal tendon
243
What is #5?
Adductor magnus
244
What is #6?
Biceps femoris
245
What is #7?
Semitendinosus
246
What is #8?
Semimembranosus
247
What is #1?
Levator scapulae
248
What is #2?
Rhomboid minor
249
What is #3?
Rhomboid major
250
What is #4?
Epicranius occipital belly
251
What is #5?
Sternocleidodmastoid
252
What is #6?
Trapezius
253
What is #7?
Deltoid
254
What is #8?
Infraspinatus
255
What is #9?
Latissimus dorsi
256
What is #10?
Gluteus medius
257
What is #11?
Gluteus maximus
258
What is #1?
Corrugator supercili
259
What is #2?
Obricularis oculi
260
What is #3?
Zygomaticus
261
What is #4?
Buccinators
262
What is #5?
Orbicularis oris
263
What is #6?
Mentalis
264
What is #7?
Levator labii superioris
265
What is #8?
Risorius
266
What is #1?
Gluteus maximus
267
What is #2?
Gracilis
268
What is #3?
Semitendinosus
269
What is #4?
Gluteus Medius
270
What is #5?
Adductor Magnus
271
What is #6?
Biceps femoris
272
What is #7?
Semimembranosus
273
What is #1?
Gastrocnemius
274
What is #2?
Fibularis longus
275
What is #3?
Fibularis brevis
276
What is #4?
Flexor hallucis longus
277
What is #5?
Soleus
278
What is #6?
Extensor digitorum longus
279
What is #7?
Tibalis anterior
280
What is #8?
Fibularis tertius
281
To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint
popliteus
282
To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________
located in the same plane
283
The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________
acromion of the scapula
284
The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________
elevation
285
Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle?
scapular protraction and rotation
286
Which movement is not associated with the scapula?
opposition
287
The muscles that extend the forearm are located __________
posteriorly
288
Which of the following statements about muscles of the elbow joint is true?
A) The brachioradialis originates and inserts on the ulna.
B) The biceps brachii has two heads that share the same origin site.
C) The biceps brachii is a posterior extensor.
D) None of these statements is correct.
D
289
The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the __________
radial tuberosity
290
The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________
anconeus
291
The origin of the long head of the triceps brachii is on the __________
infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
292
Which of the following statements about muscles of the forearm is true?
A) The pronator teres originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius.
B) The pronator quadratus originates on the radius and inserts on the ulna.
C) Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the supinator results in forearm pronation.
D) The pronator quadratus is a two-headed muscle.
A
293
Forearm supination is assisted by the __________
biceps brachii
294
An origin of the supinator is the _________
lateral epicondyl of the humerus
295
The pectoral girdle consists of the __________
clavicle and scapula
296
The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________
act as an attachment site for muscles that move the arm
297
The rhomboideus minor muscle originates on which process on the vertebrae?
Spinous process
298
The four muscles that comprise the posterior group of the pectoral girdle are the __________
levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius
299
Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg?
A) prevents excess swelling of the muscles
B) separates anterior and posterior muscles
C) an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
D) aids in venous return
an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
300
The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for __________ than __________
power; precision
301
The hamstring muscles originate on the _________
ischial tuberosity
302
The extensor muscle that branches to form four tendons on the back of the hand is the _________
extensor digitorum
303
The deep posterior extensor of the wrist and fingers _________
controls the thumb and index finger
304
Which deep posterior extensor of the wrist originates on the radius and ulna and interosseous membrane?
the abductor pollicis longus
305
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates on the _________
interosseous membrane
306
The soleus and the gastrocnemius share an insertion on the __________
calcaneus
307
The lateral rotators act on the _________
femur
308
The piriformis originates on the __________ and inserts on the ____
sacrum; greater trochanter of the femur
309
The insertions of the semispinatus capitus are on the __________
occipital bone
310
The semitendinosus muscle lies ______________ to the semimembranosus muscle
posterior
311
The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the __________ nerve
tibial
312
The teres major adducts the arm but does not __________ the arm
abduct
313
The insertion of the teres minor is on the _________
greater tubercle of the humerus
314
The tibialis anterior muscle dorsiflexes the foot at the ankle and also assists in __________ of the foot
inversion
315
The tibialis posterior muscle originates at which three locations?
tibia, fibula, and interosseous membrane
316
The transversus abdominus muscle is innervated by the __________
intercostals nerves
317
The trapezius muscle may be separated into all of the following groups, except ________
lateral
318
All fibers of the trapezius muscle are innervated by the _________
spinal accessory nerve
319
All fibers of the triceps brachii are innervated by the ________
radial nerve
320
The vastus intermedius __________ the leg at the knee
extends
321
The vastus lateralis is innervated by the _________
femoral nerve
322
The origin that the vastus medialis muscle shares with the vastus lateralis is the _________
linea aspera of the femor
323
What is #1?
lateral ventricle
324
What is #2?
Third ventricle
325
What is #3?
Interventricular foramen
326
What is #4?
Fourth Ventricle
327
What is #5?
Cerebral Aqueduct
328
What is #6?
Median aperture
329
What is #7?
Lateral Aperture
330
What is #1?
Lateral ventricle
331
What is #2?
Septum pellucidum
332
What is #3?
Interventricular foramen
333
What is #4?
Third ventricle
334
What is #5?
Cerebral aqueduct
335
What is #6?
Cerebral aqueduct
336
What is #7?
Central Canal
337
What is #8?
Fourth ventricle
338
What is #1?
Corpus Callosum
339
What is #2?
Thalamus
340
What is #3?
Hypothalamus
341
What is #4?
Pons
342
What is #5?
Medulla oblongata
343
Region A represents which of the following?
Prefrontal cortex
Broca’s area
Primary motor cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex
Prefrontal cortex
344
Which of the following is the best description of the function of region B?
Region B contains neurons receiving somatosensory input from the thalamus
Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum
Region B coordinates the movement of several muscle groups into complex tasks
Region B is responsible for learning, working memory, judgement, reasoning, persistence, and planning
Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum
345
the letter A in the figure indicates which of the following structures?
Cerebral nuclei
Thalamus
Lateral ventricles
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
346
What is #1?
Precentral gryus
347
What is #2?
Central sulcus
348
What is #3?
Frontal lobe
349
What is #4?
Temporal Lobe
350
What is #5?
Postcentral gyrus
351
What is #6?
Parietal lobe
352
What is #7?
lateral sulcus
353
What is #8?
occipital lobe
354
What is #9?
cerebellum
355
What is #1?
Longitudinal fissure
356
What is #2?
Lateral ventricle
357
What is #3?
Basal nuclei
358
What is #4?
Third ventricle
359
What is #5?
Thalamus
360
What is #6?
Pons
361
What is #7?
Medulla oblongata
362
What is #1?
Commissural fibers (corpus callous)
363
What is #2?
Association Fibers
364
What is #3?
Projection fibers (corona radiata)
365
What is #4?
Projection Fibers (internal capsule)
366
What is #5?
Gray matter
367
What is #6?
decussation (crossover) of pyramids
368
What is #7?
white matter
369
What is #1?
Thalamus
370
What is #2?
Pineal gland
371
What is #3?
Midbrain
372
What is #4?
Cerebellum
373
What is #5?
medulla obllongata
374
What is #6?
hypothalamus
375
What is #7?
pons
376
What is #8?
Spinal cord
377
What is #1?
Corpus callosum
378
What is #2?
choroid plexus
379
What is #3?
anterior commissure
380
What is #4?
posterior commissure
381
What is #5?
pituitary gland
382
What is #6?
corpora quadrigemina
383
What is #7?
arbor vitae
384
What is #8?
cerebral aqueduct
385
Are the cranial nerves part of the central nervous system?
No (Peripheral nervous system)
