Exam 3 Flashcards
(176 cards)
1
Q
What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult cervical curve?
A
- Centers for vision and equilibrium will appear in the brain
- musculature attaching the skull, cervical region, and upper thorax together develops
- the head is held upright
- the intervertebral disc height becomes greater anterior than posterior
2
Q
At what age will the infant begin to hold the head erect?
A
usually between the third and fourth month after birth
3
Q
What is the location for the cervical kyphosis?
A
between occiput and C1
4
Q
What is the name given to the primary cervical curve?
A
cervical kyphosis
5
Q
What is the vertebral relationship between the cervical curve and the cervical enlargement?
A
cervical curve CT1; cervical enlargement C3-T1
6
Q
What infant activities are associated with the developmental of the lumbar curve?
A
crawling and walking
7
Q
What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult lumbar curve?
A
- crawling will cause the abdomen to put tension on the lumbar region and pulls it forward
- muscle development is promoted to compensate for the swayback of the lumbars
- intervertebral disc height will become greater anterior compared to posterior
- walking will further promote muscle and intervertebral disc development
8
Q
What is the time of appearance of the lateral curves?
A
they appear after 6 years old
9
Q
What is the relationship between curve direction and handedness?
A
a right handed person has a high probability for a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination
10
Q
What clinical examples of abnormal curvatures along the vertebral column were stressed in class?
A
military neck, humpback or hunchback, and swayback
11
Q
What is military neck?
A
a decreased anterior cuve in the cervical region, a straight neck
12
Q
What is swayback?
A
an increased anterior cube in the lumbar region
13
Q
What are the curve classifications for military neck?
A
a kyphosis or hypolordotic curve
14
Q
What are the curve classifications for humpback or hunchback?
A
a kyphosis or hyperkyphotic curve
15
Q
What are the curve classifications for swayback?
A
a lordosis or hyperlordotic curve
16
Q
What are the classifications of scoliosis according to the Scoliosis Research Society?
A
magnitude, locations, direction, etiology, and structural/non-structural
17
Q
What is often used to measure the magnitude of scoliosis?
A
the Cobb Method
18
Q
Based on age of onset, what are the types of idiopathic scoliosis?
A
infantile, juvenile, or adolescent
19
Q
Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis
A
left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence
20
Q
Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis
A
right thoracic, females over 6 years old, 12-21% incidence
21
Q
Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
A
right thoracic or right thoracic and left lumbar, females, 80% incidence
22
Q
What is the relationship between curve deviation, incidence, and curve worsen
A
the greater the deviation, the lower the incidence, and the more likely to worsen
23
Q
Which muscles are identified as erector spine or sacrospinalis muscles?
A
iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis
24
Q
Which subdivision of the iliocostalis primarily originates & inserts on ribs?
A
iliocostalis thoracics
25
Which muscles are identified as transversospinalis muscles?
semispinalis, multifidis, and rotators
26
How many vertebrae can be attached to a single segment by transversospinalis muscles?
as many as nine vertebrae
27
What segment will represent the lowest attachment site for the semispinalis thoracics?
T12
28
What osseous part of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis capitis?
transverse tubercles of C7, T1-T6 or T7, & articular processes of C4-C6
29
The semispinalis capitis and spinalis capitis may fuse to form what muscle?
biventer cervicis
30
Which muscle(s) is representative of muscle layer two in the neck?
splenius cervicis, splenius capitis
31
Which muscle(s) is representative of muscle layer three in the neck?
semispinalis capitis, spinalis capitis
32
Which transversospinalis muscle attaches to articular and mammillary processes along the spine?
multifidis
33
Which muscles of the spine exhibit a reversal of the expected origin-insertion combination?
iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum, longissimus thoracic pars lumborum, and multifidis lumborum
34
Which sub occipital muscle lacks an attachment to the skull?
obliquus capitis inferior
35
What is the origin of the obliquus capitis inferior?
C2 spinous process and lamina
36
An increase in the density of muscle spindles is most apparent in which sub occipital muscle?
obliquus capitis inferior
37
Suboccipital muscle feedback relays to what additional locations in the brain?
extraoccular nuclei of origin, primary visual cortex and vestibular nuclei
38
What is the proposed function of the sub occipital muscle group?
postural stabilizers of the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints
39
Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis?
acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conduction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture
40
Which of the cervical intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves?
posterior medial belly, cervical intertransversarii
41
What is the origin of the medial belly of the lumbar intertransversarii?
accessory process of transverse process L1-L4
| mammillary process of superior articular process L1-L4
42
Which of the lumbar intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of lumbar spinal nerves?
medial belly, lumbar intertransversarii
43
Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii?
acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture
44
What is the insertion of the middle scalene?
between the tubercle and groove for the subclavian artery on the first rib
45
What is the insertion of the posterior scalene?
outer surface of second rib
46
The quadrates lumborum is implicated in the formation of which ligament?
the iliolumbar ligament
47
What are the possible locations of bipolar neurons?
the nasal olfactory epithelium, the retina, the vestibular or Scarpa's ganglion, and the cochlear or spiral ganglion
48
What are the possible locations of pseudounipolar neurons?
any sensory ganglion other than those of the eighth cranial nerve
49
What are the examples of multipolar neurons?
stellate neurons, the motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord
pyramidal neurons of the cerebral cortex
projection neurons or Golgi type I Purkinje cells of the cerebellar cortex
local circuit neurons or Golgi type II granule cells of the cerebral and cerebellar cortex and neurons of the motor ganglia
50
What do chemoreceptors monitor?
hypoxia or decreased oxygen levels, hypercapnia or increased carbon dioxide levels and elevated hydrogen ions, an indication of circulating blood pH
51
What is the site or location for chemoreceptors?
a glomus or body
52
What do baroreceptor monitor?
they monitor blood pressure by evaluating stretch or tension along the length of the receptor ending
53
What is the site or location for baroreceptors?
specialized vascular sinuses
54
What are the types and examples of exteroceptors?
(a) general or cutaneous sense organs such as free nerve endings, encapsulated endings and epidermal endings
(b) special sense receptors for olfaction, vision, hearing, and taste
55
What are the examples of proprioceptors?
Golgi tendon organs, neuromuscular spindles, Pacinian corpuscles, inner ear receptors for equilibrium and specialized receptors in joints
56
Where will the interoceptors be located?
in viscera, glands, and blood vessels
57
What are the examples of interoceptors?
free nerve endings, encapsulated nerve endings, chemoreceptors and baroreceptors
58
What are the examples of epidermal nerve endings?
Palisade nerve endings, Merkel cell endings and Ruffini corpuscles or Ruffini nerve endings
59
What is the example of tactile corpuscles?
Meissner's corpuscles
60
Which type of encapsulated nerve ending is sensitive to vibration?
lamellated corpuscles or Pacinian corpuscles
61
What is the example of the neurotendinous nerve endings?
Golgi tendon organs
62
What are the primary neuronal projections observed in a nerve?
peripheral sensory processes and motor nerve fibers
63
Contrast the sensory ganglion with the motor ganglion
sensory ganglia contain primary sensory neuron cell bodies and lack synapses
motor ganglia contain secondary motor neuron cell bodies and always demonstrate synapses
64
What is another name for a sensory neuron?
afferent neuron
65
What are the parts of a primary sensory neuron?
sensory receptor ending, peripheral sensory process, perikaryon, central sensory process, synaptic ending
66
Where is the cell body of a primary sensory neuron located?
in a sensory ganglion
67
What is the region in the encephalon where central sensory processes synapse?
nucleus of termination
68
What is the location for secondary sensory neurons in the encephalon?
nucleus of termination
69
What is the location for secondary sensory neurons in the spinal cord?
dorsal horn
70
Muscles derived from somites are innervated by which cranial nerves?
cranial nerve III or oculomotor nerve, cranial nerve IV or trochlear nerve, cranial nerve VI or abducens nerve and cranial nerve XII or hypoglossal nerve
71
Muscles derived from the branchial or pharyngeal arches are innervated by which cranial nerves?
cranial nerve V or trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve VII or facial nerve, cranial nerve IX or glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve X or vagus nerve, and cranial nerve XI or spinal accessory nerve
72
What peripheral nerves contain visceral efferent pathways at their origin?
cranial nerve III or oculomotor nerve, cranial nerve VII or facial nerve, cranial nerve IX or glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve X or vagus nerve, as well as spinal nerves T1-T12, L1, L2, and S2-S4
73
Identify the type of motor pathway associated with each type of muscle
somatic and branchial motor pathways terminate on skeletal muscle
autonomic/involuntary/visceral pathways terminate on smooth and cardiac muscle
74
What are the subdivisions of the visceral division of the peripheral nerve system?
sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric
75
What is the region in the central nerve system where sympathetic efferent neuron cell bodies for spinal nerves are located?
lateral horn of T1-T12, L1, L2 cord levels
76
What is the comparative length of the axons associated with the sympathetic efferent pathway?
preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers are relatively short; postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers are relatively long
77
What cells derived from the neural crest were emphasized in class?
secondary sympathetic efferent neurons and adrenal medulla chromaffin cells
78
Primary parasympathetic efferent neurons will be associated with which cranial nerves?
cranial nerve III or oculomotor nerve, cranial nerve VII or facial nerve, cranial nerve IX or glossopharyngeal nerve, and cranial nerve X or vagus nerve
79
Primary parasympathetic efferent neurons will be associated with which spinal nerves?
spinal nerves S2-S4
80
What is the comparative length of the axons associated with parasympathetic efferent pathways?
preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are relatively long
postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are relatively short
81
What is the name given to and neuroactive substance associated with postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?
cholinergic fibers; acetylcholine
82
What types of efferent neurons form nuclei of origin in the brain?
somatic neurons, branchial neurons, and primary parasympathetic neurons
83
Will sympathetic efferent neurons be located in the brain?
no
84
What are the target organs for branchial efferent of somatic efferents?
skeletal muscles
85
What are the ultimate target organs for parasympathetic efferents?
smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glandular tissue, and specialized cells
86
Which cranial nerves have sensory pathways that are atypical or the majority of sensory pathways?
olfactory or cranial nerve I, optic or cranial nerve II, and trigeminal cranial nerve V
87
What do somatic afferents monitor?
pain, temperature, light touch, and proprioception
88
What do visceral afferents monitor?
baroreception, chemoreception, sensation from viscera
89
What do special visceral afferents monitor?
olfaction and taste
90
What do special sensory afferents monitor?
vision, hearing, equilibrium
91
Cranial nerve I is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?
special visceral afferent
92
What is the site for the detection of smell?
the olfactory mucosa of the nasal cavity
93
What is the morphological classification of the primary sensory neuron of the first cranial nerve?
bipolar neuron
94
What is unusual about the receptor ending of the primary olfactory neuron?
it is an olfactory knob covered with olfactory cilia
95
What do central processes of the first cranial nerve bundle together to form?
fila olfactoria
96
What forms the true olfactory nerve?
fila olfactoria
97
What forms the traditional classic first cranial nerve?
the olfactory bulb and olfactory tract
98
What is the exit site for the first cranial nerve?
cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
99
Secondary afferent neuron cell bodies of the first cranial nerve are primarily located in what structure?
olfactory bulb
100
What is the location for synapse between primary and secondary afferent neurons of the first cranial nerve?
olfactory glomerulus's
101
What is the name of the traditional secondary afferent neuron of the first cranial nerve?
mitral cell
102
At its apparent origin cranial nerve III conveys which classification of neural pathways?
somatic efferent pathway and visceral efferent pathway
103
What is the somatic efferent nucleus of origin for the third cranial nerve?
oculomotor nuclear complex
104
What is the location of the apparent origin of the third cranial nerve?
the midbrain
105
The apparent origin of the third cranial nerve is first observed in which cranial fossa?
the posterior cranial fossa
106
From which cranial fossa will the third cranial nerve exit the cranial vault?
middle cranial fossa
107
What is the exit from the cranial vault for the third cranial nerve?
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid bone
108
Which extrinsic muscle/s of the eye is/are innervated by the third cranial nerve?
medial rectus, inferior rectus, superior rectus, and inferior oblique
109
Which non-occular muscle is innervated by the third cranial nerve?
levator palpebrae superioris muscle of the eyelid
110
Which visceral efferent pathway is conveyed in the third cranial nerve?
a parasympathetic motor pathway
111
Visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the third cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?
accessory oculomotor nucleus of Edinger/Westphal
112
What is the location of synapse for preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve?
ciliary ganglion
113
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve are carried in which nerve?
short ciliary nerve
114
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve synapse in what targets?
sphincter pupillae and ciliaris intrinsic eye muscles
115
Does the apparent origin of cranial nerve III contain somatic afferent fibers?
no
116
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the third cranial nerve travel to pseudo unipolar sensory neuron cell bodies located in which ganglion?
Gasserian ganglion, semilunar ganglion, or trigeminal ganglion
117
Central sensory processes from the Gasserian ganglion, semilunar ganglion, or trigeminal ganglion are conveyed to the pons in what structure?
the sensory root of the trigeminal nerve
118
The sensory root of the trigeminal nerve will have an apparent origin from what part of the encephalon?
the pons
119
Typically, primary afferent neurons of the third cranial nerve located in the semilunar ganglion, Gasserian ganglion or trigeminal ganglion will synapse in what nucleus?
spinal trigeminal nucleus
120
Which of the cranial nuclei of termination contain primary afferent neurons?
mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
121
Cranial nerve II is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?
special sensory
122
What are the receptor neurons of the second cranial nerve?
rod and cone photoreceptor cells
123
What is the function of the rod cell?
provide vision in dim light conditions
124
What is the function of the cone cell?
provide vision in bright light conditions and mediate color vision
125
What is the most numerous photoreceptor cell?
rod cell
126
What is the primary afferent neuron of the second cranial nerve?
bipolar cell
127
Where are the primary sensory neurons of the second cranial nerve located?
the retina
128
What is the secondary sensory neuron of the second cranial nerve?
ganglion cell
129
What forms the optic nerve?
axons of ganglion cells
130
What is the exit site for the second cranial nerve?
optic canal of the sphenoid bone
131
The optic nerve will enter which fossa of the cranial vault?
middle cranial fossa
132
What occurs at the optic chiasma?
part of the optic nerve decussates
133
What part of the visual pathway connects the optic chiasma to the brian?
the optic tract
134
Axons carried in the second cranial nerve will synapse in what specific location?
lateral geniculate nucleus
135
What is the location for tertiary neurons of the visual pathway?
lateral geniculate nucleus
136
Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus will synapse in what specific location?
primary visual cortex, calcarine sulcus of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum
137
In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve III, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may snaps at what locations?
oculomotor nuclear complex or spinal trigeminal nucleus
138
At its apparent origin cranial nerve IV conveys which classification of neural pathways?
somatic efferent pathway
139
What is the location for multipolar somatic efferent neurons of the fourth cranial nerve?
trochlear motor nucleus
140
Somatic efferent fibers from the left nucleus of the fourth cranial nerve will have an apparent origin from which side?
right side
141
What are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve?
it is the only cranial with an apparent origin from the dorsal surface of the brain;
it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus
142
The right fourth cranial nerve will innervate which side target muscle?
the right side muscle
143
The fourth cranial nerve will originate in which cranial fossa?
the posterior cranial fossa
144
The fourth cranial nerve exits the cranial vault by way of which opening?
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid bone
145
Somatic efferent fibers from the fourth cranial nerve will innervate which muscle(s)?
superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye
146
Does the apparent origin of cranial nerve IV contain somatic afferent fibers?
no
147
What part of the fourth cranial nerve contains somatic afferent fibers?
only the sitar part of the nerve
148
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the fourth cranial nerve will communicate with which cranial nerve branch?
opthalmic division of trigeminal
149
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the fourth cranial nerve travel to pseudounipolar sensory neuron cell bodies located in which ganglion?
Gasserian ganglion, semilunar ganglion, or trigeminal ganglion
150
The fifth cranial nerve is functionally referred to as the
great sensory nerve of the face
151
The fifth cranial nerve arises from what part of the brain?
the pons
152
The apparent origin of the fifth cranial nerve is in which cranial fossa?
the posterior cranial fossa
153
Identify each branch of the fifth cranial nerve arising form its ganglion
opthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, mandibular nerve
154
What is the exit site from the baronial vault for each division of the fifth cranial nerve?
opthalmic nerve - superior orbital fissure
maxillary nerve - foramen rotundum
mandibular nerve - foramen ovale
155
What location will each branch of the fifth cranial nerve pass into upon exit form the cranial vault?
opthalmic nerve - orbit;
maxillary nerve - pterygopalatine region;
mandibular nerve - infratemporal region
156
The motor root of cranial nerve V will join which division?
mandibular nerve
157
At its apparent origin cranial nerve V conveys which classifications of neural pathways?
somatic afferent pathway and branchial efferent pathway
158
Which divisions of the trigeminal nerve contain somatic afferent pathways?
all three
159
Central sensory processes carried in the fifth cranial nerve synapse with secondary sensory neuron cell bodies in what location?
mainly in the principal sensory nucleus; some in the trigeminal spinal nucleus
160
Branchial efferent fibers arise from multipolar neurons in what nucleus?
trigeminal motor nucleus
161
The mandibular division of the fifth cranial nerve exits the cranial vault via which opening and enters into what region of the head?
the foramen oval; the infratemporal region
162
What muscles are innervated by branchial efferent fibers conveyed in the fifth cranial nerve?
temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor veil palatini
163
What are the names of the muscles of mastication?
temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid
164
Peripheral sensory processes from receptors located in the muscles of mastication are conveyed in which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?
mandibular division of trigeminal
165
Afferent neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus that are associated with sensation from the muscles of mastication will synapse at what locations?
trigeminal motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus
166
At its origin cranial nerve VI conveys which classification of neural pathways?
somatic efferent pathway
167
What is the name of the sixth cranial nerve?
abducent nerve or abducens nerve
168
What is the site of the apparent origin of the sixth cranial nerve form the brain?
the pons
169
What is the efferent nucleus for the sixth cranial nerve?
abducens motor nucleus or abducent motor nucleus
170
The sixth cranial nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via what opening?
superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone
171
The sixth cranial nerve will innervate what target organ(s)?
lateral rectus extrinsic muscle of the eye
172
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the sixth cranial nerve will communicate with which cranial nerve branch?
opthalmic division of trigeminal
173
Typically, primary afferent neurons of the sixth cranial nerve located in the semilunar ganglion, Gasserian ganglion, or trigeminal ganglion will synapse in what nucleus?
spinal trigeminal nucleus
174
Recently, peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the sixth cranial nerve have been shown to originate from primary afferent neurons in which location?
mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
175
Which of the cranial nuclei of termination contain primary afferent neurons?
mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
176
In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve VI, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?
abducent or abducens motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus
