Exam 3 Flashcards
(162 cards)
1
Q
Mycobacterium have a longer mycolic acid chain than Nocardia?
A
True
Mycobacterium> Nocardia> Corynebacterium
2
Q
Properties that are attributed to Mycolic Acid(4)
A
Acid fast staining,
drug, chemical, and environmental resistance
immunomodulating activities
prevents phagocytic killing
3
Q
Mycobacterium are strictly opportunistic pathogens? T/F?
A
False; some are obligate pathogens
- M. tuberculosis
- M.avium subsp paratuberculosis
- M. leprae
- M.lepraemurium
4
Q
What is the important cell protein antigen of Mycobacterium?
A
Tuberculin
5
Q
Mammalian tuberculosis, avian tuberculosis, leprosy, johne’s disease are attributed to which bacteria?
A
Mycobacterium
6
Q
Mycobacterium Bovis is responsible for which disease?
A
Zoonotic TB; more specifically bovine TB
indistinguishable from M. tuberculosis in humans
7
Q
while cattle are the main reservoirs of M. bovis what are two other ones?
A
badger and possum
8
Q
How is M. Bovis transmitted the most?
A
aerosol; followed by in milk and then at any site
9
Q
enlarged lymph nodes, cachexia, chronic cough are clinical signs of what disease?
A
TB
10
Q
What are lesions like in early stages? in late stages of TB?
A
abscess like; firm nodular lesions
11
Q
M. Bovis bacilli are phagocytosed by macrophages and destroyed via humoral immunity reaction? T/F.
A
False, cell mediated response
12
Q
If cell mediated response fails, then macrophages release cytotoxins and enzymes that can lead to caseous necrosis?
A
Yes.
13
Q
Tb lesions can appear granulomatous and in severe cases may form cavities?
A
True.
center=epitheloid macrophages or caseous necrosis
surrounded by epithelia cell and multinuclear giant cell and lymphocytes
14
Q
Diagnosis primarily via? what occurs if pops up positive?
A
PPD test; comparative cervical tuberculin skin test with double strength bovine + avium PPD.
15
Q
Primary drugs to treat active tuberculosis?
A
isoniazid, rifamycins, ethambutol, pyrazinamide
16
Q
M. tuberculosis caused what disease in what host
A
human Tb
but emerging zoonosis and anthropozoonosis
17
Q
DO MYCOBACTERIUM HAVE A CELL MEMBRANE?
A
NOPE
18
Q
Which of the following is not an acid fast staining method? Geimsa kinyouns zeihl-neelsen auramine rhodamine
A
geimsa
19
Q
Which of the mycobacterium is common cause of zoonotic TB?
A
M. Bovis
20
Q
Can mycobacterium infections cause granulomatous inflammation?
A
True
21
Q
T/F? Combination antimicrobial therapy is essential in the treatment of TB to kill multiple species of mycobacteria present in a lesion?
A
False, it is to make the treatment more effective and prevent resistance
22
Q
Regarding virulence factors, what makes Mycobacterium ulcerans unique?
A
they use cytotoxin-mycolactone
23
Q
Leprosy is caused by which bacteria?
A
Mycobacterium Leprae
24
Q
What does M. Leprae cause in humans with infection?
A
anesthetic lesions, peripheral neuropathy, and nerve thickening
25
Paucibacillary:
tuberculoid leprosy that have few AFB
26
Multibacillary:
lepromatous leprosy- severe disease with many AFB and no cell mediated response
27
M. Leprae caused leprosy in humans, cats, dogs and mice?
False, only humans?
| M. lepraemurium causes it in cats, mice and dogs
28
How dies M. lepraemurium present?
cutaneous granulomas
29
Johne's disease caused by what bacteria?
Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis
30
Johne's disease is characterized as what? in what hosts?
chronic, progressive granulomatous enteritis in cattle- diarrhea and weight loss
31
What diagnostic test is used to detect M. avian subsp paratuberculosis (johne's disease) in herds of cattle that have had confirmed cases or high infection prevalence?
ELISA
however false negatives result in advanced stages due to anergy
32
Lepto is a mycobacterium? T/F?
False, spirochete
33
Leptospira pathogenic species are maintained where in the body?
renal tubules
34
How does lepto manifest in humans and companion animals?
Flu like symptoms. complications from renal, pulmonary, hepatic and CNS disease
35
How does lepto manifest in livestock
disease of production and reproduction
36
Maintenance host or incidental hosts?
| Recovery with short term shedding in urine OR severe disease?
incidental host
37
Maintenance host or incidental host?
| Bacteria infect privileged sites (kidney or repro) for long term shedding?
Maintenance hosts
38
What is diagnostic method for lepto is considered the gold standard?
Microscopic agglutination test- paired sera
a four-fold increase in MAT titers is indicative of active infection
39
what samples do you want to collect for MAT?
Serum
40
If you choose to do PCR or FA to try to diagnose Lepto which samples would you collect to use?
Blood and urine
41
T/F? MAT is predictive of protection or urinary shedding?
False
42
T/F? Vaccines for Lepto are not necessary to be serovar specific to effectively prevent disease?
False, protective antibodies are serovar specific
43
Leptospira ________ Serovar _______ is host adapted in cattle resulting in reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding
borgpetersennii serovar hardjo
44
T/F? Lepto in horses is associated with abortions and systemic illness in foals?
True
45
Swine dysentery is caused by which bacteria?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
46
T/F? Swine dysentery causes disease in all pigs.
False, young growing pigs( 6-12 weeks)
47
What bacteria causes intestinal spirochetosis in animal and humans
Brachyspira pilosicoli
48
What virulence factors do brachyspira utilize to cause clinical signs?
cytotoxin, hemolysin and LPS
49
what is the pathogenesis that causes a piglet to die from B. hyodysenteriae?
Death from dehydration due to excess mucus production, edema and hemorrhage of the lamina propria of the large intestine.
Fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colitis
50
What disease does swine dysentery closely resemble?
salmonellosis
51
Treponema causes what diseases?
syphilis-treponema pallidum
Papillomatous digital dermatitis
rabbit syphilis= treponema paraluis cuniculi
52
How does treponema paroles cuniculi manifest?
perineal and facial lesions- epidermal hyperplasia with erosion, ulcers, infiltrates of plasma cells, heterophils and macrophages.
53
Borrelia bacteria is associated with what disease?
Lyme disease via ticks
54
what is essential for virulence of borrelia spirochetes in mammals?
up regulation of expression of outer surface lipoprotein
55
The vaccines against lyme disease contains the antibodies for Osp__, which are located where in the tick?
For the vaccine to be effective where do the antibodies need to be delivered to?
A, hindgut
to the tick
56
T/F? Chlamydiaceae are obligate intracellular bacteria?
True
57
What are the zoonotic species of chlamydophila?
C. abortus
C. felis
C. pneumoniae
C. psittaci
58
Which chlamydia is important cause of abortions in sheep and goats?
C. abortus
59
Which body of chlamydia is the metabolically active form?
reticulate body
60
How is C. felis transmitted?
ocular and nasal secretions
61
how is C. abortus transmitted?
reproductive part secretions, ingestion, aerosol, venereal
62
What animals does C. pneumoniae affect?
horses, dogs, koalas, rats, iguana and frogs
63
which chlamydias do reptiles and amphibians get?
C. abortus, C. felis, C. pneumoniae
lethargy, suppurative pneumonia, chronic nephritis, hepatitis, increased mortality rates
64
T/F? Diagnostics for chlamydia is species specific?
False
65
Psittacosis aka avian chlamydiosis is caused by what bacteria?
Clamydophila psittaci
66
What is the infectious body for chlamydia ?
Elementary body
67
Is psittacosis reportable?
YES
68
Mollicutes refer to which bacteria?
Mycoplasma
69
T/F? mollicutes (mycoplasma) stain very well because of their cell wall structure?
False. stain poorly bc they don't have a cell wall
70
"fried egg" morphology
mycoplasma
71
non hemotrophic mollicutes cause:
respiratory and urogenital tract infections
72
where is the reservoir of mollicutes?
mucosal surfaces of the host they infect,
| but can be transmitted by direct contact
73
Virulence factors of non hemotrophic mollicutes:
peroxide-to disrupt host cell integrity
urease-increase pH
proinflammatory molecules
74
Mycoplasma are reportable in what animals?
sheep and goats, bovines, avian
75
Mycoplasma gallisepticum:
chronic respiratory disease, sinusitis, decreased egg production,
76
Mycoplasma synoviae
synovitis, sternal bursitis
77
Mycoplasma meleagridis
airsacculitis, stunted growth in turkeys
78
Mycoplasma mycoids ssp mycoides causes what disease in what animal?
contagious bovine pleuropneumonia in cattle
mastitis, pneumonia, bursitis, arthritis in adult sheep and goats; septicemia in kids
79
Mycoplasma bovis causes what disease?
mastitis
80
Mycoplasma capricolum subsp capripneumoniae causes what disease
contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
81
Mycoplasma agalactiae and Mycoplasma putrefaciens causes what in sheep and goats?
contagious agalactia
82
Porcine enzootic pneumonia is caused by:
M. hyopneumoniae
83
M. hyohinis causes
polyserositis
84
M. felis affects cats but also.....
horses causing pleuritis
85
culture is better option for diagnosing mycoplasmas?
False, serological and molecular techniques more promising
86
Hemotrophic mollicutes aka red blood cell parasites cause
hemolytic anemia in young, immunocompromised or stressed animals.
87
hemotrophic mollicutes are transmitted via...
blood to blood contact or ectoparasites
88
M. haemofelis causes what disease
feline infectious anemia
usually you see the bacteria around the periphery of the RBC
89
clinical signs of hemotrophic mollicutes are:
icterus, splenomegaly, bone marrow hyperplasia
90
T/F? Ricketsia is an obligate intracellular gran negative bacteria?
True
91
Anaplasma live within cytoplasmic vacuoles of _______, _______ and ________.
myeloid cells, neutrophils, and erythrocytes
92
which species does anaplasma marginale infect?
wild and domestic ruminants
93
T/F? Even though anaplasma marginale is found in all continents, it is a reportable disease.
True
94
T/F? Anaplasma marginale is transmitted via hard ticks, especially boophilus?
True
95
Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes what in domesticated and wild ruminants
tick borne fever
96
infection of neutrophils and eosinophils is a pathogenesis that is associated with...?
tick borne fever aka anaplasma phagocytophilum
97
Infectious canine cyclic thrombocytopenia is associated with which bacteria?
Anaplasma platys
98
Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of what disease?
Rocky mountain spotted fever
99
T/F? transovarial and transtadial transmission of rickettsia rickettsii in ticks exist?
True
100
Clinical signs of rocky mountain spotted fever aka rickettsia rickettsii?
petechieae mucous membranes, tender lymph nodes, joints and muscles; severe necrosis in extremities in severe fatal diseases of dogs.
101
If you want to culture rickettsia, what needs to be in the culture?
glutamate as nutrient
102
Coxiella burnetti causes Q fever in humans that handle what animals?
sheep, goats and cattle
103
T/F? Even though the majority of Coxiella burnetti diseases are asymptomatic, is a reportable disease?
True
104
Phase 1 antibodies of Coxiella burnetti is indicative of acute or chronic infections?
chronic
Phase 2 is acute infection
105
What is tricky about treating Coxiella Burnetti?
bacteria resides in acidic phagolysosomes and antibiotics can't reach. must add alkalinizing agents
106
Where does Ehrlichiae bacteria live in hosts?
white blood cell obligate intracellular bacteria
107
T/F? Ehrlichiae can be transmitted transtradially and transovarially?
False, not transovarially.
108
What is the agent of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?
Ehrlichia canis via the brown dog tick
109
E. chaffeensis:
human monocytic ehrlichiosis
110
E. ewingii:
canine granulocytic ehrliciosis
111
African heartwater is caused by:
Ehrlichia ruminantium
112
Do you want to report African Heartwater?
You do indeed.
113
African heartwater has a peracute, acute and subclinical forms?
yes
the subclinical form has the hydropericardium
114
This bacteria is associated with reproductive and intestinal tract disease and gull-wing shapes
Campylobacteriaceae
115
Which bacteria are the leading causes of food borne bacterial gastroenteritis in humans? which food is most guilty?
Campylobacter jejuni and campylobacter coli
poulty
116
Campylobacter is referred to as ________, which mean that it requires 3-10% oxygen and 3-15% carbon dioxide
Microaerobic
117
Which campylobacter species is described as the bulls being the carriers but the cows express the clinical signs-abortions.
Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis
118
C. fetus ssp fetus is associated with:
intestinal tract and gall bladder of ruminants
119
T/F? When campylobacter species affect the reproductive tract, causing bovine genital campylobacteriosis, it is a reportable disease.
True
120
The donut shaped necrotic lesions in the fetal liver are considered pathonomonic for:
ovine campylobacter infections
121
When collecting sample for diagnosis of cattle reproductive disease from campylobacter, where would you collect the sample?
from the males- smegma or preputial scraping
122
When collecting sample for diagnosis of sheep reproductive disease from campylobacter, where would you collect the sample?
lung, liver, fluids from aborted fetus
123
when collecting sample for diagnosis of campylobacter enteric disease, where would you collect the sample?
feces
124
disease manifestation of mastitis, diarrhea, abortions and GI are associated with
arcobacter
125
What differentiates arcobacter from campylobacter?
the organisms are aerotolerant and can grow at a lower temperature - 37 degrees
126
What is a hallmark virulence factor for helicobacter?
Urease- converts urea to ammonium to neutralize gastric acids
This causes alterations to gastric physiology
127
T/F? Helicobacter can be found naturally in gastric mucus layer of many animals?
True
128
what kind of inflammation is associated with helicobacter infections?
Chronic
129
T/F? Lawsonia intracellularis is an obligate pathogen of enterocytes, mostly affecting porcines?
True
130
T/F? interaction of Lawsonia with unknown natural flora is required for disease?
True
| so recovered pigs are resistant to reinfection
131
Which antibody is specific to lawsonia infections?
IgA
132
T/F? in terms of fungal infections, immunity is mainly cell mediated and antibodies are protective?
False, antibodies are NOT protective
133
Microsporum, trichophyton and epidermophyton are causative agents of?
dermatophytosis
134
which macroconidia is: cylindrical or cigar shaped, smooth, thin or thick walled
Trichophyton
135
Which macroconidia is: large, spectate, rough, thick walled, fusiform or obovate
microsporum
136
in the parasitic state of dermatophyte only ______ and _____ are seen
hyphae; arthroconidia (arthrospores)
137
T/F? In contrast to dermatophytosis which has a granulomatous response, candida albicans has a more suppurative response?
true, usually neutrophil response
138
"terry toweling" and "sour crop" refer to?
candida albincans
139
the cells of this yeast is surrounded by a large mucoid polysaccharide capsule?
cryptococcus
140
If you get a cat that presents with rhinitis, nasal granolas, CNS involving symptoms and ocular/cutaneous infectious what yeast would you think it is?
cryptococcus neoformans
141
if you get a dog that presents with exhibits otitis externa or seborrheic dermatitis and after taking a swab you observe under the microscope peanut shaped organisms. what do you think it is?
malassezia pachydermatis
142
when you are trying to decide if you have cryptococus neoformans in a patient, why should you be careful when performing diagnosic test?
its zoonotic
143
what causes deep or systemic mycosis in animals or humans?
dimorphic fungi
144
Sporotichosis or "rose handlers disease" is caused by:
sporothrix schenkii
145
you grow a sample on sabdex agar and wrinkld white to cream colonies with aerial hyphae grow. you look at this under the microscope and see cigar shaped organisms. what is this organism?
sporothrix schenkii
146
infections of sporothrix schenkii causes cutaneous pyogranulomatous inflammation and possible ulcerations that follow lymph channels in the dog and horses. How does the infections present differently in cats?
starts off the same but disseminated disease may develop regardless of immune status
147
Blastomycosis is caused by:
blastomyces dermatitidis
148
what is the site of lesions for blastomyces dermatitis?
lungs, then can metastasis to skin and other organs
149
what is morphologically characteristic of bastomyces dermatitidis
broad based buds
150
"Valley fever" caused by coccidiodes immitis is found is which region?
southwest US
151
Microscopic appearance of coccidiodes immitis is:
spherules filled with endospores in tissues
152
how is disease pattern of "valley fever" similar and different in dog and cats?
Similar: disseminated disease with fever and anorexia
different: bone lesions in dogs and more visceral involvement in cats
153
Epizootic lymohangitis aka "african horse farcy" aka pseudoglander is caused by:
histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum
154
You get a horse patient that presents with ulcerated lesions along its neck and legs. It was just shipped in from the middle east and bought to be a racing horse. What do you think it is?
Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum
155
T/F? Histoplasma organisms have a microscopic appearance of small budding yeast cell that reside alongside phagocytes.
False, they are intracellular to phagocytes
156
what fungus do you associate the words "swamp cancer", "kunkers", and "leeches" with ?
Oomycetes
157
This is an aquatic organism that produce biflagellated, motile zoospores that produces pyogranulomatous lesions mostly in dogs or horses.
Oomycetes
158
This fungus attacks keratinized structures that lead to osmotic and respiratory problems in amphibians.
Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis
159
This rare fungi causes respiratory disease in dogs, late term abortion in bovines, and guttural pouch infections in equines.
aspergillus fumigatus
160
this rare fungus causes ulcerative mucocutaneous lesions in central and south america.
paracoccidioides brasiliensis
161
this rare fungus causes white nosed syndrome in bats.
geomyces destructans
162
this rare fungus causes cotton mold in fish
saprolengnia spp
