Exam 3 Flashcards
(409 cards)
1
Q
What is ATP used for?
A
- Each ratcheting action of each HMM head
- Re-polarization of the sacrolemma (and T tubules)
- Energy for the calcium pump (to pull Ca back into the lateral sacs)
2
Q
How much energy of muscle is actually used for contraction
A
1/4
3
Q
What is other 3/4 of energy of muscle used for
A
Generate heat
4
Q
What is first used if ATP is not freely available for muscle contraction
A
Creatine P
5
Q
Why is Creatine Phosphate so important
A
Donates phosphorous to make ATP
6
Q
What is creatine an indicator for?
A
Heart attack and muscle contraction
7
Q
What is the second process used if ATP is not freely available and if creatine was exhausted
A
Use Kreb Cycle
8
Q
is kreb cycle anaerobic or aerobic
A
aerobic
9
Q
Kreb cycle uses what to make ATP
A
oxygen
10
Q
What is the third process used if ATP is not freely available and if creatine was exhausted and if the kreb cycle was exhausted
A
Use glycolysis
11
Q
Is glycolysis anaerobic or aerobic
A
anaerobic
12
Q
Glycolysis creates ATP, but what does it also create
A
lactic acid
13
Q
Is lactic acid good for the muscles
A
No
14
Q
is lactic acid basic or acidic
A
acidic
15
Q
What happens when you die (hint: muscles still)
A
rigor mortis
16
Q
Why can’t your muscles contract during rigor mortis
A
Lateral sac can’t contain Ca so contractions begin until it uses all ATP once gone, cross bridging is locked into place
17
Q
This is excessive damage to skeletal muscle
A
Rhabodomyolsis
18
Q
What football team in 2011 got Rhabodomyolsis from an overachiever weight trainer
A
Iowa State
19
Q
The Iowa State football team had ___X amounts of kinase, which is bad for your what
A
5, kidneys
20
Q
Do myofibrils orient with each other
A
yes
21
Q
Name one muscle damage with myofibrils
A
Sometimes myofibrils do not line up and have wrong arrangement
22
Q
What is unique about the muscle fixing self
A
While fixing self, muscle is still working and contracting
23
Q
Is smooth muscle striated or unstriated
A
nonstriated
24
Q
Smooth muscle lacks what
A
myofibrils and sacromeres
25
In smooth muscle what is similar to the Z line in skeletal muscle
Dense bodies
26
the dense body attaches to what in smooth muscle cells
outer membranes
27
Thin filaments in Smooth muscle anchor to what
thin filaments
28
Are smooth muscles involuntary
yes
29
Do smooth muscles have T-tubules
no
30
Smooth muscle has a loose network of _______ compared to skeletal muscle
sacroplasmic reticulum
31
Why is smooth muscle the slowest muscle
Ca is extracellular instead of intracellular
32
In smooth muscle thick filament is scattered with more what
cross bridges
33
in smooth muscle actin: myosin =
| compared to skeletal's 2:1
10:1
34
In smooth muscle cells adjacent cells are bound where
dense bodies
35
In smooth muscle do they have many gap junctions between cells
yes
36
Do smooth muscle cells touch each other
yes
37
What is not present in SM (use different Ca binding system than skeltal)
troponin
38
Cardiac muscle has what compared to skeletal muscle
T tubules
39
CM has _____ but it is not as large as skeletal muscle
sacroplasmic reticulum
40
Belly button in utero goes where
liver
41
is your belly button functional after birth
no
42
What allows AP to pass in cardiac muscle
intercalated discs
43
What does cardiac muscle have many of
mitochondria
44
Mitochondria make up what percent of a cardiac cell
25-30
45
the mitochondria in heart muscle cells is what
unique
46
what is cardolite
lights up mitochondria in cardiac cell
47
what doubles cardiovascular mortality
for each 20/10 mmHg increase in BP
48
If BP increases the heart needs to work more which as a result does what
enlarges the heart
49
Do valves increase in size as the heart increases in size
no
50
What happens if valves do not increase in size
Get a gap in valves and will regurgitate. Blood tends to clot and block capillary beds
51
Define atrophy
muscles will diminish and bone density decreases
52
1/3 of skeletal system is made up of what
osteoid part
53
2/3 of skeletal system is made up of what
minerals
54
The skeletal system is made up of what
mass
55
Extracellular matrix sticking out of cells is the what
osteoid part of bone
56
What two molecules precipitate on the matrix and make up mineral part of bone
Calcium and phosphorous
57
Lateral part of skeletal system =
appendicular
58
Medial part of skeletal system=
axial skeletal
59
Name all the different names of vertebraes in spine
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal,
60
Birds have smaller total of what compared to mammals
bones
61
The eye socket in birds is called what
orbital
62
Orbitals are so large that they almost what
touch each other
63
What bone forms the beaks in birds
upper and lower jaw
64
How many cervical vertebraes do birds have
13-25
65
Why do birds have so many cervical vertebraes
need more flexible neck
66
this secretes lots of oil and is used to oil up feather
uropygial gland
67
This is the fusion of thoracic vertebrae
notarium
68
What do birds and dinosaurs have in common
both have notarium
69
what is a pectoral girdle in birds
furcula/wish bone, coracoid, and scapula fuse together
70
What does the criss crossing of ribs and the keeled sternum do to benefit the bird
aids in muscle attachment to breast bone
71
What is a result of the criss crossing of ribs and the keeled sternum
lungs do not expand and chest cavity doesn't move as much
72
birds do not have a consistency of what
phalaynx and digits
73
What do birds have an open pelvis
ovipostion
74
The pelvis of a bird is not attached where
ventrally
75
What hormone relaxes the pelvis and makes pelvis open up in mammals
relaxin
76
Birds have what in their bones
air spaces (sinuses)
77
Marine birds have what type of bones
buoyant
78
Name the function of bones in mammals
1. Support
2. Protection
3. Movement
4. Mineral reservoir
5. Hemopoiesis
79
Females when pregnant and don't consume enough Ca get Ca from where
Ca reservoir in bones
80
70% of total minerals in the body are what
Calcium and phosphorous
81
99% of Ca and 80% of P in body are present where
bones and teeth
82
What age group of animals are most efficient with Ca reservoir
young animals
83
___ % of Ca will be removed from Ca reservoir in older animals, ____ % in younger animals
18, 100
84
This is making of RBS inside the bone
hemopoiesis
85
What are the 2 methods to describe bone
morphology/ shape or compact/ cancellous
86
Cancellous bone =
medullary, spongy
87
what type of bone compact or cancellous has trabecula
cancellous
88
With age of animal they lose what
trabecula
89
What is in between trabecula and what is made there
fatty tissue, makes RBC
90
this when a needle punctures medullary cavity in cancellous bone
intraosseous infusion
91
Compact bones have a line in it called what
conversion
92
circles in compact bone are called waht
osteon
93
osteons are a solid what
tube
94
the compact bone wall is made up of what
osteons
95
blood vessels run up and down in compact bone in what
haversian central canal
96
conversion canal =
central canal
97
each ring in compact bone is called what
lamellae
98
In the lamina of compact bone it has small spaces called what
lacunae
99
osteocyte sits inside what and needs capillaries
lacunae
100
a small ___, capillaries/ interstitial fluid extend to the lacuae
candicule
101
connective tissue on the outside of bone =
periosteum
102
connective tissue on the inside of the bone=
endosteum
103
Periosteum does not cover what
where the bones articulate
104
Bones grow how?
in length and diameter
105
When bones grow in diameter they grow where
shaft
106
What bone cell is found in both the periosteum and endosteum
osteoblast
107
osteoblast in periosteum makes what
new bone
108
the osteoblast in endosteum do what
stay dormant until fracture
109
As bone grow it captures osteoblast and then becomes what
osteocyte
110
Osteocytes are found where
in lacunae
111
this bone cell sits under the endosteum
osteoclast
112
what is the function of osteoclast
digest bone (break down bone)
113
Osteoclasts are what type of cell
multinuclear
114
Ostoclasts are a fusion of what
fused macrophages
115
Osteoclasts tend to be classified as what
immune cells
116
Osteocytes sit in where and what surrounds it
lacunae, extracellular fluid
117
what protein sticks out of bone cells
glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
118
GAGs is a protein with a lot of what
sugar
119
GAGs extends through what
extracellular fluid and hardness of bone
120
Ca and P _____ on matrix and make up mineral part of bone
precipitate
121
Extracellular matrix sticking out of cells makes what part of bone
osteoid part
122
Name of rounded end of long bone
epiphysis
123
Metaphysis is what
flare ends of shaft
124
The shaft in a long bone is called what
diaphysis
125
this is the joint end of a long bone
articular
126
Growth of long bone is out of what
growth plate
127
the growth plate in long bones is known as what
epiphyseal plate
128
What cells are found in cartilage
chondrocytes
129
What is the function of chondrocytes
produce and maintain cartilangineous matrix
130
cartilangineous matrix consists of what
collagen and proteoglycans
131
Name an example of a long bone
femur
132
what are the functions of long bones
motion and movement
133
Short bones are _____ in shape
cuboidal
134
an example of a short bone is what
carpus
135
functions of short bones
cushion complex joints
136
flat bones are what in dimension
2-D
137
an example of a flat bone is
parietal bone
138
functions of a flat bone
protection and hemopoiesis
139
name of cancellous bone in short bones is what
diploe
140
What will you find in short bones
red bone marrow
141
Seasmoid bones are ___ in shape
seasmed seed shaped
142
and example of a seasmoid bone is
patella
143
functions of a seasmoid bone are
change or alter ligaments
144
these bones have air spaces
pneumatic bones
145
an example of a pneumatic bone is
frontal bone
146
function of pneumatic bone is
phonation and keeps skull light
147
sinuses in skull extend to what
pneumatic bones
148
an example of irregular bones
vertebrae
149
function of irregular bones
muscle attachment and protection
150
what hormone increases Ca in blood and increases bone break down
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
151
PTH uses what 2 bone cells
osteocytes and osteoclast
152
what hormone decreases Ca in blood so among other things it increases bone formation
calcitonin
153
calcitonin uses what 2 bone cells
osteocytes and osteoblasts
154
Name four hormones that form bones
growth hormone
calcitonin
androgens
insulin
155
Bone formation uses what bone cell
osteoblasts
156
name four homens that have bone reabsorption
PTH
cortisol
T3/T4
prostaglandins
157
bone reabsorption uses what bone cell
osteoclasts
158
too much of what hormone makes animals become huge and giant
growth hormone
159
What hormone maintains appropriate ratio between bone forming osteoblasts and bone reabsorbing osteoclasts
estrogen
160
how does estrogen keep ratio of osteoblasts and osteoclasts
through induction of osteoclast apoptosis
161
Women in menopause have an increase chance of what
risk of heart attack
162
What drugs were given to women to them during menopause (estrogen)
raloxifene and tamoxifene
163
why were the studies giving supplemental estrogen to women going through menopause stopped
began to form cancer
164
this is the decrease in bone mass/ microarchitecture
osteoporosis
165
this is the decrease in bone mass in children (Rickets)and older people
osteomalacia
166
osteomalacia is caused by what
vitamin D deficiency
167
this type of ossification of bone is intracartilogenous
endochondral
168
an example of endochondral ossification is what
growth plate
169
This type of ossification is under the peristeum (no cartilage)
intramembraneous
170
Examples of intramembraneous ossification
flat bones, active osteoblasts
171
This type of ossification is outside of the skeleton
heteroplastic
172
name some examples of heteroplastic ossification
1. gall or kidney stones
2. Os penis
3. Os cordis
173
What animals have an Os penis
dogs, raccoon, bear, whale
174
what animal has Os cordis and what is an Os cordis
cattle, hardened stomach
175
simple fracture is what
skin intact
176
open fracture is what
bone breaks through skin
177
This a fracture on one side and bending on other side
green stick fracture
178
this fracture is a break along the growth plate
ehipiseal
179
What is a comminuted break
break in mini pieces
180
a fracture bleeds then what and then callus (calcified clot) and then what happens
clot, trimmed down callus
181
What needs to happen to repair a fracture
apposition and immobilization
182
what cell makes new bone and makes calcified clot
osteoblast
183
this cell trims down the bone back to shape
osteoclast
184
pharmacology is the study of what
drugs
185
Define drug
Not normally found in body but when given will change an animals system or change something
186
in older days ____ extracts were used as drugs
plant
187
an example of a plant extract drug is
dropsy
188
dropsy had what drug in it
digitalis
189
this is the effect of drug on the body
pharmodynamics
190
this is the effect of the body on the drug
pharmcokinetics
191
drugs entering the body
absorption
192
drug delivery throughout the body
distribution
193
this the biotransformation of drugs
metabolism
194
this is the excretion of drugs
elimination
195
this route of administration utilizes the GI tract
anteral
196
anteral route examples are
oral, sublingual, and rectal
197
This route of administration does not utilize the GI tract
Parentral
198
intrademeral injection goes where
just into skin
199
this injection is just under the tissue/skin
Subcutaneous
200
this injection is directly into vein (immediate absorption)
intravenous
201
an epidural injection goes where
epidural space around the spinal cord
202
an intrathecal injection goes where
around cerebrospinal fluid
203
This new type of injection uses pressure to vaccinate by jet ejector
pyrofast
204
Why do some people not use a pyrofast injection
Don't know if pressure changes the drug
205
list the rates of absorption
IV>IM>SC>Oral
206
list the rates of drug duration
Oral>SC>IM>IV
207
this is the time after injection when drug appears
t-max
208
C-max is what
concentration of blood when it reaches peak
209
duration of action is what on drug disposition curve
above MTC
210
what does the area under the curve on the drug disposition curve show
gives idea on how long drug is in blood
211
What does MTC stand for
max tolerated concentration
212
what does MEC stand for on the drug disposition curve
Minimum effective concentration
213
what is one problem with extra label drug usuage
resistant of the drug
214
absorption enters the what
blood
215
What system distributes the drug
circulatory system
216
name the three types of capillaries
- Continous
- fenestrated
- discontinous
217
this is the most common type of capillary
continous
218
This capillary is found in the skin, lungs, muscle, CNS
Continous
219
Pericytes and astrocytes form what
blood brain barrier
220
what makes it hard for drugs to get into brain
blood brain barrier
221
the astrocytes form what
additional layer on capillaries
222
why is their a BBB
brain is the most important and needs protection
223
this capillary is found in secretory glands, and kidneys
fenestrated
224
this capillary has gaps in the endothelial cells
fenestrated
225
in fenestrated capillaries drug only has to pass what
basement lamina
226
hydrophilic drugs are what
water soluble
227
water soluble drugs are injected in what
water carrier
228
hyprophobic drugs are what
fat soluble
229
fat soluble drugs are injected in what
oil carrier
230
what organ is most likely to alter structure of drugs
liver
231
estradiol goes to liver then what
eliminated
232
Estriadiol benzoate to liver then what
estradiol
233
this is easy to leave body because excretions are water based
hydrophilic
234
this drug takes longer to the leave body because must pass through liver to become water soluble via conjugation
hydrophobic
235
this is the time it takes for concentration of drug to decrease by 1/2
half life
236
in general ____ half life of a drug is considered eliminated
10
237
FDA is well beyond the 10 half lives and then approval over what
dissection of injection site for residues
238
how do we determine how much of a drug we give an animal
through animal/people trials to establish "dose response" curves
239
the more potent a drug is the ____ you need of it
less
240
sometimes the physiology of the animals causes the dose response to curve to what
shift
241
An example of the shift of the dose response curve due to change in animal's physiology
pregnancy
242
this is a dose that gives an equal response
equipotent dose
243
what two drugs do producers use to drench sheep to kill internal parasites
levamisole and ivermectin
244
this is the percentage of the population that dies after dosage
lethal dose
245
What are the three main functions of the urinary system
excretory
regulatory
endocrine
246
the excretory function of the urinary system excretes what
water
K and other ions
Urea
Medicines/some drugs
247
the regulatory function of the urinary system regulates what
blood volume
electrolytes
(pH) acidosis
248
the endocrine function of the urinary system does what
vitamin D
| erythropoiesis
249
Kidneys are what percent of the body weight
1 percent
250
where do the kidneys sit in the body
under the vertebral/ loin area
251
are the left and right kidneys symmetrical
no
252
blood vessels going in and out of kidneys
hilus
253
in the hilus it has what three things
renal artery, renal vein, and ureter
254
blood in kidneys have a lot of what due to what
pressure due to closeness of aorta
255
this is the tough outer covering of the kidney
capsule
256
this is the tubular part of nephron
cortex
257
loop part of the nephron
medulla
258
inner most part; fills with urine and flows into ureter
pelvis
259
kidney is made up of many what
lobes
260
urine goes to the ureter then to ___ then it contracts and dillate and then urine goes to ___
bladder, urethra
261
urination =
micturition
262
this collects urine then flows into the pelvis
collecting duct
263
the collecting ducts collects from many what
nephron
264
what makes the medulla look striated
nephron
265
bowmans capsule is called what
glomerulus capillary
266
fluid is filtered and captured in what
bowmans capsule
267
this is a capsule that surrounds the first capillary bed
bowman's capsule
268
the first capillary is
glomerus
269
the glomerus is fed by what artery and what artery comes out of the glomerus
afferent; efferent
270
what artery is the portal vein connecting the 2 capillaries
efferent artery
271
the bowman's capsule has lots of what
filtration
272
why is there a lot of filtration in bowman's capsule
plasma is leaving glomerus
273
where does plasma go when it leaves the glomerus
into spaces of Bowman's capsule
274
what is GFR
much filtration over time
275
endothelia line what
lines blood vessels
276
epithelia cells line what
interface with inside and outside environments
277
Bowman's capsule has what two layers
parietal and visceral
278
glomerulus is what kind of capillary
fenestrated capillary
279
podocytes line what layer of the bowman's capusle
visceral
280
what are the finger projections on the podocytes called
pedicels
281
the pedicels wrap around what
artery
282
the gaps in the endothelial layer is similar to what capillary
fenestrated capillary
283
What causes the bowman's capsule to be one basement lamina
the tightness
284
this is the space between pedicels
filtration slit
285
what is only between the blood and urine
basal lamina
286
what passes through the basal lamina in kidneys is dependent on what
size of molecules
287
what can't pass through kidney's basal lamina
cells
288
what can filter through the basal lamina easily
sugars
289
how much urine is produced in one day
180 L
290
what causes kidney failure
destruction of epithelium
291
what capillary sits next to the proximal tubule capillary
peritubular capillary
292
PTC sits in what part of the kidney
cortex
293
why does the PTC sit in the cortex of the kidney
cortex has many capillaries
294
Are some molecules secreted in the PTC
yes
295
the molecules being secreted come from the blood into what
urine
296
what is an example of a molecule being secreted
toxins
297
what type of cell lines the PCT
epithelia
298
are the epithelia cells of PCT polarized
yes
299
basal part of the PCT is near what
basal lamina
300
PCT uses what to secrete things into the urine
ATP
301
this part of the PCT has lots of surface area
apical
302
active transport of toxins directly into urine form what to the PTC
peritubular capillary
303
what percent of water leaves the PTC and back into the blood
60-80%
304
what molecules go back into the blood in the PTC
sugar
amino acids
chlorine
bicarbonate
305
what are the functions of PCT
active transport of toxins and foreign substances
306
name the two characteristics of renal blood flow
1. High blood flow. 120 mL/ min or 21 % of cardiac output. 94% of cortex
2. Two capillary beds. High hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillary (60 mmHg) and low hydrostatci pressure in peritubular capillaries (13-10 mmHg)
307
descending portion of the loop of henule is what
thin walled
308
the ascending portion of the loop of henule is what
first thin walled and then thick walled
309
loop of henule is immpermeable to what
water
310
why is the medulla salty
Counter current and not many capillaries
311
the function of the distal tubule is similar to what portion of the loop of henule
ascending (thick)
312
how does the body's blood volume decrease
through urine
313
this sits close to the glomerus
jurtaglomerular appartus
314
JGA is made up what two types of cells
macula densa cells and JG cells
315
JG cells are around what
afferent and efferent arteries
316
macula dense cells monitor what
kidney isn't filtering enough blood and if osmolarity of blood is correct
317
Name the four things that macula cells monitor
1. Low Glomercular filtration rate (GFR)
2. Low BP in afferent artery
3. When concentration of Na gets too low is afferent artery (blood)
4. Low osmolarity of fluid going thru distal tubule
318
Macula dense stimulate what
JG cells
319
Rennin is released into blood by what
JG cells
320
Angiotensinogen is found always in what and is made where
blood and liver
321
Cleaves by renin to what
angiotensinal
322
where is angiotensin converting enzyme/ACE
lungs
323
ACE cleaves angiotensin I to what
angiotensin II
324
angiotensin II is a what
vasoconstricter
325
aldosterone is called what
mineral corticoid
326
this is the steroid hormone from adrenal cortex
aldosterone
327
what responds to angio II and produces aldosterone
Zona glomerulosa
328
RAAS stands for what
renin angiotensin aldosterone system
329
aldosterone works in what parts of a nephron
distal tubule and collecting duct
330
what is the major target of aldosterone
distal tubule
331
Na loss in urine decreases when
aldosterone is in stimulation
332
when aldosterone increases what also increases
blood volume
333
what causes a log of constriction in the efferent artery
angiotension II
334
why are aldosterone levels high in cattle
since they need more Na
335
why is an ACE inhibitor given when someone has a heart attack
once BP is lower kidneys work to increase blood pressure which is the opposite of what we want to happen
336
What is between the left and right pituitary gland
a stalk
337
what is the structure of aldosterone
steroid
338
where is the aldosterone made
adrenal
339
what is the function of aldosterone
turns on Na pump and sodium and water retention. Also works on DCT
340
where are the receptors of Aldosterone found
DCT
341
what controls aldosterone
angiogentension II
342
ADH is what
nanopeptide
343
the post pitutiary is called what
neurohyophysis
344
the axons of the hypothalamus stop where in the post pit
capillary
345
where is the hormone made in the nerve that extends to the pit
soma
346
what is released from the axon in the post pit
hormone
347
whats causes the hormones in the post pit
neurons synapsing with other neurons
348
what are the 2 hormones released in the post pit
1. oxytocin
| 2. ADH
349
what is the purpose of oxytocin
to let milk down
350
this hormone causes both male and female repro tracts to contract
oxytocin
351
ADH=
vasopressin
352
anterior pit is called what
adenohypophysis
353
what is the rathke's pouch
outgrowth from roof of mouth
354
the portal system is between what
hypothalamus and anterior pit
355
Factors are released into what first and then it travels where
1st cap and then travels to 2nd cap
356
The 2nd cap in portal system triggers the anterior pit to produce what
hormones
357
those hormones released from the 2nd cap are then receipted where and creates what
endocrine cell and a new hormone that will travel around body
358
why is there a portal system
higher concentration
359
the growth hormone releasing hormone is made where
the soma of neuron
360
the endocrine cell in anterior pit has receptors for what
GHRH
361
the endocrine cells that have receptors for GHRH are called what
somatotroph
362
what does the GH act directly on
fat; decreases fat in body
363
once GHRH is received to the endocrine cell what is then released
growth hormone
364
GH acts on the what
liver
365
the liver once acted on by GH releases what
IGF 1: Insulin like Growth factor 1
366
IGF 1 acts directly on what
muscle and bone: makes them grow
367
the growth hormone=
somatotropin
368
IGF 1=
somatomedin
369
hGH is what
human growth hormone
370
rhGH is what
recomb. human GH
371
the growth hormone is what structure
polypeptide
372
CH has how many aa
191 aa
373
GHRH has how many aa
44
374
IGF 1 has how many aa
83
375
Newborn animals have roughly 60% of hormones coming out of the anterior pit is what
Growth hormone
376
there are 5 types of endocrine cells in the anterior pit with how many hormones
six
377
this sits lows in the neck and wraps slightly around the trachea
thyroid
378
follicles in they thyroid are filled with what
fluid
379
what surrounds the follicles
epithelial cells
380
Does the thryoid easily enlarge
yes
381
what happens if the thyroid is less active
enlarges
382
does the thyroid have lobes
yes
383
what are additional endocrine glands in the thyroid
parathyroid glands
384
what is the connection between left and right lobes in the thyroid
isthmus
385
follicles are filled with what
colloid
386
what is the protein in the colloid fluid
thyroglobin
387
what makes up the wall of follicles/thyroid
thyrocytes
388
thryroglobin always has what sticking out
tyrosine
389
what takes in iodine
thyrocytes
390
What is concentrated and locialized in the thyroid
iodine
391
this stores MIT, DIT, and when epithelia lining follicles get stimulated
thyroglobin
392
TSH stands for what
Thyroid stimulating hormone
393
this endocrine cell has TRH receptors and then releases TSH
thyrotroph
394
Thyroxine is what
amine
395
The thyroid releases what
T3 and T4
396
TRH to TSH to T3/T4 is called what
hypothalamo pituitary thyroid axis
397
What is negative feedback
when body has enough T3/T4 in blood and tells neurons in hypothalamus
398
this is what the body makes
endogenous
399
this comes from outside source/ body
erogenous
400
what does thyroxine do
metabolic hormone
401
Name the functions of thyroxine
1. Increases basal metabolic rate
2. Increases heat production by cells
3. Increases glucose uptake and utilization
4. Increases protein synthesis
5. Increases cholesterol synthesis
402
have of the energy used for maintenance comes from what
thyroxine
403
why does thyroxine have a long half life
TBP
404
this is when one is very active, nervous, irritable
hyperthyroidism
405
what is the condition of bulging eyes
eropthalamic
406
graves disease is what kind of disorder
immune disorder
407
name the symptoms of hypothyroidism
sleep for 14-16 hours/day
sluggish muscle activity
tend to overeat
myxedema
408
What is hypothyroidism
low thyroid activity
409
hypothyroidism is common in what species
dogs
