Exam 3 Flashcards
(428 cards)
1
Q
This is the pinna of the ear and the auditory canal. It consists of integument overlying elastic cartilage. The integument is thin, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Hair follicles can be observed in the dermis.
A
Auricle
2
Q
In this structure, the outer third of the ear canal is composed of ______ cartilage. The inner two thirds is composed of _____.
A
External auditory meatus; Elastic; Bone
3
Q
This is also known as the eardrum, and separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear.
A
Tympanic membrane
4
Q
The core of the tympanic membrane is formed from vascularized, innervated _______ tissue.
A
Connective
5
Q
The external surface of the tympanic membrane is covered by (THICK/THIN) skin, and the internal surface is covered by simple (SQUAMOUS/CUBOIDAL) epithelium.
A
Cuboidal
6
Q
The lining of the ear canal is composed of stratified squamous epithelium with _________ and _______ glands.
A
Sebaceous; Ceruminous
7
Q
The middle ear (tympanic cavity) contains the auditory ossicles, made up of 3 bones called…
A
Malleus (hammer)
Incus (anvil)
Stapes
8
Q
This bone in the middle ear attaches to the tympanic membrane. It is so-named because it articulates with the “anvil”.
A
Malleus (hammer)
9
Q
This bone in the middle ear is an intermediate bone between the stapes and the malleus. It is where the “hammer strikes”.
A
Incus (anvil)
10
Q
This bone in the middle ear is the third in the series. It is so-named because it is shaped like a stirrup due to the opening for the stapedial artery. It inserts into the oval window.
A
Stapes
11
Q
The 2 openings in the middle ear (tympanic cavity) include the _____ window and _____ window.
A
Oval; Round
12
Q
This opening in the middle ear has the stapes attached to its membrane that covers it. It also opens into the scala vestibuli.
A
Oval window
13
Q
This opening in the middle ear is a membrane-covered region at the end of the scala tympani.
A
Round window
14
Q
There are 2 muscles in the middle ear, which are…
A
Tensor tympani
Stapedius
15
Q
This muscle in the middle ear inserts on the malleus and contracts reflexively in response to loud sounds in order to dampen the vibrations of the auditory ossicles.
A
Tensor tympani
16
Q
This muscle in the middle ear inserts on the stapes and contracts reflexively in response to loud sounds in order to dampen the vibrations of the auditory ossicles.
A
Stapedius
17
Q
The inner ear consists of 4 regions, which are…
A
Bony labyrinth
Membranous labyrinth
Vestibular organ
Auditory organ
18
Q
This region of the inner ear is a complex system of canals and chambers embedded in the petrous portion of the temporal bone. It is filled with high-sodium content perilymph and consists of the semicircular canals, cochlea, scala vestibuli, and scala tympani.
A
Bony labyrinth
19
Q
What 4 things does the bony labyrinth of the inner ear consist of?
A
Semicircular canals
Cochlea
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani
20
Q
This region of the inner ear is a complex system of membranous structures embedded within the chambers of the bony labyrinth. It is filled with high-potassium content endolymph.
A
Membranous labyrinth
21
Q
This region of the inner ear are patches of sensory structures that respond to changes in position. It consists of the maculae of the saccule and utricle, and the cristae ampullaris of the semicircular canals.
A
Vestibular organs
22
Q
There are 2 small sacs within the inner ear called the ________ and _______ that have a sensory structure called maculae attached to it.
A
Saccule; Utricle
23
Q
The epithelium of the maculae of the saccule and utricle is made up of columnar supporting cells and vestibular hair cells – numerous stereo cilia and a single _______. The hair cells are in contact with afferent nerve endings.
A
Kinocilium
24
Q
In the maculae, this is a gelatinous layer containing calcium carbonate crystals called otoliths that overlies the epithelium. Stereocilia of the vestibular hair cells are embedded in this gelatinous layer. Movements of the head displaces this and causes a sensory impulse.
A
Otolithic membrane
25
The cristae ampullaris of semicircular ducts are made of columnar supporting cells and hair cells similar to those of the _______.
Maculae
26
In the cristae ampullaris, this is a gelatinous layer (similar to the otolithic membrane in maculae but without the otoliths). Movement of the head creates shear force between the semicircular canals and the contained fluid. Movement of the fluid displaces this gel layer and causes the stereocilia to bend.
Cupula
27
This region of the inner ear consists of the cochlear duct (scala media) and the organ of corti.
Auditory organ
28
The cochlear duct (scala media) divides the bony cochlea into scala ________ and scala ________.
Vestibuli; Tympani
29
The cochlear duct is associated with 5 components, which are...
```
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani
Vestibular membrane
Basilar membrane
Stria vascularis
```
30
The vestibular membrane forms the (ROOF/FLOOR) of the cochlear duct, and the basilar membrane forms the (ROOF/FLOOR).
Roof; Floor
31
This component of the cochlear duct forms the lateral aspect and participates in the formation of the endolymph (high potassium content).
Stria vascularis
32
The organ of corti lies on the (VESTIBULAR/BASILAR) membrane.
Basilar
33
In this type of immunity, it lacks immune specificity and memory. The response is inflammation and neutrophils are the first responders. We are born with this.
Innate immunity
34
In this type of immunity acquisition, there is temporary immunity due to donated antibodies (i.e., transplacental passing of maternal antibodies to fetus).
Passive immunity
35
This type of immunity develops in response to antigens. It is more powerful than innate immunity and takes longer to develop. It displays specificity and memory (develops over time).
Acquired immunity
36
This type of immunity acquisition is long-lasting/permanent immunity due to self exposure to antigen resulting in memory T cells and B cells specific for antigen. Goes hand-in-hand with acquired immunity.
Active immunity
37
This type of immunity is antibody-mediated and deals with plasma cells. It's a type of adaptive or acquired immunity.
Humoral immunity
38
This type of immunity deals with T cells, B cells, and antigen-presenting cells. It's a type of adaptive or acquired immunity.
Cell-mediated immunity
39
Lymphocytes are developed and mature in the primary lymphoid organs, _______ and _____ _____. Precursor cells mature into immunocompetent cells. Each cell is programmed to recognize a specific antigen.
Thymus; Bone marrow
40
Lymphocytes take up residence in secondary lymphoid organs once they have matured. These organs are ______ ______, ______, and ______.
Lymph nodes; Spleens; Tonsils
41
Lymphoid ______ or ______ are not enclosed within a capsule and occur singly or in aggregates. They are the sites of B cell localization and proliferation and are transient. They can either be primary or secondary.
Follicles; Nodules
42
(PRIMARY/SECONDARY) follicles (nodules) are spherical, tightly packed accumulations of virgin B cells and dendritic reticular cells that have not been exposed to antigens.
Primary
43
(PRIMARY/SECONDARY) follicles (nodules) are derived from primary follicles that have been exposed to non-self antigens and are not present at birth.
Secondary
44
The structure of a secondary lymph follicle consists of a _______ and ______ ______.
Corona (cortex)
| Germinal center
45
This structure of the secondary lymph follicle is a darker peripheral region. It is composed of densely packed B lymphocytes.
Corona (cortex)
46
This structure of the secondary lymph follicle is the central, lighter stained region. It is composed of B lymphocytes, memory B cells, plasma cells, dendritic reticular cells which function as antigen-presenting cells.
Germinal center
47
The secondary lymph follicle vascular supply is from an _______ and _______ for the cortex, and a separate pair of each for the germinal center. Lymph capillaries are NOT present.
Arteriole; Venule
48
This type of lymphoid tissue is made up of scattered clusters of plasma cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes located in the connective tissue storm and various other sites.
Diffuse lymphoid tissue
49
In diffuse lymphoid tissue, subcutaneous-associated tissue is found in the _______ layer of the dermis.
Papillary
50
In diffuse lymphoid tissue, lamina propria-associated tissue includes 3 types which are...
MALT (mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue)
BALT (bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue)
GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue)
51
This type of lymphoid tissue is beneath and in contact with the epithelium. It includes various tonsils and Peyer's patches in the ileum.
Aggregated lymphoid tissue
52
In lymphopoiesis, all immune system cells originate in the ______ ______. Immature T cells travel to the thymus and B cells travel to specific regions in lymphoid tissue.
Bone marrow
53
The maturation of (B/T) cells involves the appearance of certain cell surface receptors, which are --
IgM and IgD
MHC class II proteins
Complement receptors
Ig Fc receptors
B cells
54
There are 5 classes of antibodies, which are...
```
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE
IgM
```
55
The antibody structure consists of _____ and _____ chains, highly variable regions (fab fragment - recognizes antigen), and less variable regions (Fc fragment - binds antibody to cells).
Heavy; Light
56
This antibody is found in saliva, milk, GU and respiratory tracts.
IgA
57
This antibody is found on the surface of B cells traveling to lymphoid organs.
IgD
58
This antibody is the major Ig in blood. It's responsible for most antibody activity.
IgG
59
This antibody is associated with allergic responses.
IgE
60
This antibody is the first antibody class expressed by developing B cells.
IgM
61
In this complex, the main function is to use its gene products for the presentation of antigenic peptides to T cells.
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
62
There are two classes of MHC gene products, which are...
MHC I
| MHC II
63
This class of MHC gene products is expressed on the surface of all cells except trophoblast and red blood cells.
MHC I
64
This class of MHC gene products is expressed on the surface of B cells and antigen-presenting cells.
MHC II
65
_____ + T cells recognized peptide fragments of foreign proteins bound to MHC class I on the surface of cells. Both the _____ and the T cell antigen receptor are required for the binding of MHC class I protein fragments.
CD8; CD8
66
_____ + T cells recognize peptide fragments of foreign proteins bound to MHC class II proteins on the surface of APCs.
CD4
67
Pre-T cells develop in bone marrow and travel to the ______ to complete maturation.
Thymus
68
CD4+ T cells recognize antigens bound to (MHC I/MHC II) molecules. Helper cells assist CD8+ cell differentiation and B cell differentiation.
MHC II
69
CD8+ T cells contain cytolytic T cells. They bind to an antigen presenting cell and undergo mitosis. The cells release ______ and _____ ligands. It also recognizes antigens bound to MHC class I molecules and are mediators of cellular immunity.
Perforins; Fas
70
CD16+ T cells contain _______ ______ T cells. They are activated by tumor cell antigens and release cytokines.
Natural Killer (NK)
71
This is used to stimulate the proliferations of NK cells.
Interleukin-2
72
This is used to activate NK cells.
Interferon-y
73
This is used by CD16+ T cells to activate macrophages.
Macrophage activating factor (MAF)
74
CD16+ T cells use chemotactic factor and ______ necrosis factor (TNF-B) to kill tumor cells directly.
Tumor
75
In T cell-mediated immunity, macrophage phagocytizes foreign material. Foreign proteins are then broken down into fragments, some of which have antigenic properties (epitopes). Antigens are expressed on the surface of macrophage bound to MHC-II. The MHC-II/antigen complex is then presented to activated helper T cell and the activated T cell undergoes _______.
Mitosis
76
When an activated T cell undergoes mitosis, some daughter cells become _______ cells and some secrete _______.
Memory; Interleukins
77
In T cell-mediated immunity, T cells attract ____ cells.
B
78
B cells have access to free _______, and B cells undergo mitosis. Some daughter cells become ______ cells and secrete the appropriate antibodies, while some become memory cells.
Antigens; Plasma
79
The _________ system is an array of about 20 serum proteins which are synthesized in the liver and found in the blood. It consists of classic and alternate pathways.
Complement
80
This pathway of the complement system is a cascade activated by antibody binding to a pathogen.
Classic
81
This pathway of the complement system is a cascade directly activated by the pathogen.
Alternate
82
The complement system facilitates _________ responses.
Inflammatory
83
The complement cascade (either pathway) involves coating the ________ with complement initiating the cascade.
Pathogen
84
____ is the first complement factor in the cascades and is made up of three subcomponents -- _____, _____, and ____.
C1; C1q; C1r; C1s
85
In the complement pathway, immunoglobulins bind to the surface of the pathogen. _____ binds to the Fc region of the Ig. This in turn activates _____, which activates _____, and initiates the complement cascade.
C1q; C1r; C1s
86
Once activated, C1s then goes on to activate _____, which splits into ____ and ____. The latter binds to the surface of the pathogen.
C4; C4a; C4b
87
Once activated, C1s also goes on to activate _____, which splits into _____ and _____. The latter binds to C4b to create a complex.
C2; C2a; C2b
88
C2b binds to C4b to create a C4b-2b complex, which is called ______ ______.
C3 convertase
89
Once we have C3 convertase, it leads to the cleavage of C3 into _____ and _____.
C3a; C3b
90
C3b is considered the most important ______. This is what "butters" your pathogens to make them more palatable for macrophages.
Opsonin
91
Multiple C3b will bind to C3 convertase, creating a C4b-2b-3b complex. This complex is also know as _____ _____.
C5 convertase
92
C5 convertase will cleave C5 into _____ and _____.
C5a; C5b
93
This complement factor is responsible for recruiting leukocytes to the infection site.
C3a
94
When ____, ____, ____, and ____ are added to the complement complex, they form pores in the membrane of the pathogen (membrane attack complex).
C6; C7; C8; C9
95
The "final opsonization" consists of ____, ____, ____, and ____.
C5b-4b-3b-2b
96
The complement cascade results in -- 1) the activation of the _______ ______ ______ on the pathogen leading to perforations and lysis, 2) production of opsonins (coatings that make antigens more palatable to phagocytes), and 3) the release of chemotactic agents (chemokine) which attract phagocytes (chemotaxis) to the areas of infection or inflammation.
Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
97
This consists of the cells that typically pack areas of the lymphoid organ. Mostly lymphocytes.
Parenchyma
98
This consists mostly of reticular fibers and cells, including undifferentiated cells and fixed and free macrophages.
Stroma
99
This is considered the entry and exit point for vessels in the lymph node.
Hilus
100
(EFFERENT/AFFERENT) lymphatic vessels as well as arteries and veins enter/leave through the hilus. (EFFERENT/AFFERENT) lymphatic vessels enter the convex side of the node.
Efferent; Afferent
101
This component of the lymph node is composed of dense collagen fibers, some elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers.
Capsule
102
The lymph node outer ______ contains lymph follicles (nodules).
Cortex
103
The lymph follicles contain B cells, follicular dendritic cells, and migrating dendritic cells. These are all _______ presenting cells.
Antigen
104
There are 2 types of lymph follicles, _______ and ______.
Primary; Secondary
105
This type of lymph follicle contains a mantle and germinal center (in process of handling antigen).
Secondary
106
This type of lymph follicle lacks a mantle and germinal center.
Primary
107
The (INNER/OUTER) cortex contains Th cells, macrophages, and HEVs (high endothelial venules).
Inner (deep)
108
These are the port of entry for circulating differentiated lymphocytes to seed lymph node. It adds lymphocytes from other spaces.
HEVs (high endothelial venules)
109
The ________ is an irregular arrangement of loose medullary sinuses and dense medullary cords.
Medulla
110
The medullary _______ are lined with macrophages, and the medullary _______ consist of blood vessels, lymphoblasts and plasma cells.
Sinuses; Cords
111
The medulla is the site of ________ reentry into the lymph stream.
Lymphocyte
112
This component of the thymus contains blood vessels, efferent lymphatics but NOT afferent lymphatics, and extends trabeculae (septa) into the parenchyma.
Capsule
113
Since the thymus does not contain afferent lymphatics, ______ does not circulate through it.
Lymph
114
This component of the thymus is made of delicate CT and divides the thymus into incomplete lobules. It stops at the medulla.
Trabeculae (septa)
115
Each ______ of the thymus is composed of an outer, darker staining cortex and an inner, lighter staining medulla.
Lobule
116
The cortex of the thymus is stained densely with basic dyes such as...
H and E
117
The cortex of the thymus is composed of epithelial reticular cells, which secrete _______, and T cells in various stages of differentiation.
Thymosin
118
________ migrate from cortical areas to medullary areas in the thymus.
Thymocytes
119
In the thymus, blood vessels are surrounded by continuous epithelial barrier. This allows the thymus to maintain _________ while segregated from antigens.
Lymphopoeisis
120
The _______ of the thymus is specialized to allow entry channel into the blood stream of mature lymphocytes. Capillary beds are not sheathed by epithelial cells. It also contains Hassall's corpuscles.
Medulla
121
_______ _______ are in the medulla of the thymus and are whorls of highly keratinized medullary epithelial cells, which produce cytokine thymic stromal lymphopoietin. This stimulates thymic dendritic cells needed for the maturation of single positive T cells.
Hassall's corpuscles
122
Double (POSITIVE/NEGATIVE) T cells lack cell surface molecules typical of mature T cells. They enter the cortex from blood vessels and proliferate in the subcapsular area.
Negative
123
Double (POSITIVE/NEGATIVE) T cells move to the outer cortex. They are confronted with epithelial cells with cell surface MHC classes I and II for clonal selection. They express both CD4 (helper T cells) and CD8 (cytolytic T cells) receptors and TCR receptors.
Positive
124
Single _______ T cells move to the inner cortex. These express TCR receptors and either CD4 (helper T cells) or CD8 (cytolytic T cells) co-receptors.
Positive
125
In the thymus, clonal deletion is completed in the ______.
Medulla
126
The _____-_____ barrier is located in the thymic cortex and prevents antigens in the blood from reaching developing T cells in the cortex. It is leaky during fetal life to allow for development of immunologic tolerance to self-antigen.
Blood-thymic
127
The _______ is composed of red and white pulp.
Spleen
128
This is the only lymphatic organ specialized to filter blood. It stores and removes worn-out RBCs and recycles iron. It also converts hemoglobin bilirubin and is responsible for blood formation in the fetus.
Spleen
129
The spleen's immunological functions include screens for foreign material in the ______. It produces lymphocytes and plasma cells. Removal least overwhelming bacterial infections in infants, children, and young adults.
Blood
130
(RED/WHITE) pulp of the spleen consists of elongated, branched strands that are always associated with arteries. The B cell area contains secondary follicles in which the central arteriole is off center. T cells are found in the areas surrounding the central artery near its center.
White (appears purple in photomicrographs)
131
In white pulp of the spleen, T cells are found in the areas surrounding the central artery near the center of the pulp. This forms the _______ _______ _______.
Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
132
This forms the sinusoidal interface between red pulp and white pulp in the spleen. It has an abundance of antigen-presenting cells. Lymphocytes first encounter antigens here. Activated T-helper cells activate B cells here.
Marginal Zone
133
The (RED/WHITE) pulp surrounds the other pulp and makes up about 80% of the spleen. It functions to filter the blood and contains large numbers of RBCs and other blood elements.
Red
134
_______ cords form the red pulp parenchyma. This contains various blood cells, plasma cells, and antigen presenting cells. Terminal capillaries open directly into substance of cords (open circulation). Macrophages destroy worn-out or defective red blood cells.
Billroth
135
______ ______ are endothelial-lined with a discontinuous basement membrane. Contain storage sites for healthy red blood cells.
Venous sinusoids
136
The ______ artery enters through the hilus to supply the spleen. Trabecular arteries branch off of this.
Splenic
137
The veins of the spleen drain into pulp veins which unite with trabecular veins, which forms the ______ vein and exits at the hilus.
Splenic
138
After capillaries form, supplying white pulp, central arteries lose their white pulp investment and enter red pulp to form a _________. This is composed of pulp arteriole, sheathed arteriole, and terminal capillary. This drains into the venous sinuses, which leads to veins.
Penicillus
139
The four general components of the integument from superficial to deep include...
1) Epidermis
2) Basement membrane
3) Dermis
4) Subcutaneous tissue (superficial fascia)
140
The (PRIMARY/SECONDARY) dermal ridge is related to finger prints. It's found everywhere except the forehead, external ear, perineum, and scrotum. Subdivided into two secondary dermal ridges by interpapillary peg.
Primary
141
The (PRIMARY/SECONDARY) dermal ridges occur in double rows and are branched. They have thin collagenous, reticular, and elastic fibers.
Secondary
142
This is the downward growth of the epidermis along the crest.
Interpapillary peg
143
These are upward projections from each secondary dermal ridge.
Dermal papillae
144
(THIN/THICK) skin occurs only on palms and soles and is hairless. (THIN/THICK) skin occurs over the rest of the body. It is thicker on extensor surfaces than flexor surfaces.
Thick; Thin
145
The epidermis is made up of what kind of epithelial tissue?
Stratified squamous
146
List the 5 layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep.
1) Stratum corneum
2) Stratum lucidum
3) Stratum granulosum
4) Stratum spinosum
5) Stratum basale (germinativum)
147
Which epidermal layer is absent in thin skin?
Stratum lucidum
148
The stratum basale (germinativum) is the deepest epidermal layer and consists of columnar to high cuboidal keratinocytes. Keratins 5 and 14 (low-molecular weight keratins). They are a single layer of cells held together by _________ and __________ hold the layer to the basal lamina.
Desmosomes; Hemidesmosomes
149
The stratum basale (germinativum) is an area of high _______ activity. It produces stem cells differentiating keratinocytes.
Mitotic
150
The stratum spinosum contains polyhedral-shaped cells, which are called _______ cells. This layer contains Keratins 1 and 10, lamellar bodies, and tonofibrils.
Prickle
151
This layer of the epidermis is multilayered and contains Keratins 2e and 9. It has flattened nucleated keratinocytes, keratohyalin aggregates, lamellar bodies, and tonofilaments.
Stratum granulosum
152
This layer of the epidermis is considered the "ghost" layer. It contains flat keratinocytes lacking nuclei and organelles. It is only found in thick skin and contains eleiden.
Stratum lucidum
153
This layer of the epidermis is multilayered, thicker in thick skin, and has enucleated, flattened, dead keratinocytes. The cytoplasm is replaced by keratin.
Stratum corneum
154
The ________ cell envelope has a multi-lamellar lipid layer covalently linked to involucrine on the extracellular side. Intracellularly it contains involucrine, small proline-rich proteins, loricrin, and fillagrin and keratin complexes.
Cornified
155
This layer is loose connective tissue that underlies the dermis. It's not considered part of the integument. May contain fat cells that can form a thick layer called panniculus adiposus.
Hypodermis
156
The dermis is composed two layers called the...
Papillary layer
| Reticular layer
157
This layer of the dermis is composed of loose CT and is closest to the epidermis. It is separated from the epidermis by the basal lamina and is a network of fine elastic fibers and abundant capillaries.
Papillary layer
158
This layer of the dermis is composed of dense irregular CT. It includes fibrocytes, macrophages, and adipocytes.
Reticular layer
159
________ cells (dendritic cells) are from monocytes. They are antigen-presenting cells and are located primarily in the stratum spinosum. They migrate from the epidermis to lymph nodes. They also interact with Birbeck granules, which contain the proteins langerin and CD1a involved in the uptake and delivery of antigens.
Langerhans
160
______ cells are mechanoreceptors that also act as diffuse neuroendocrine cells. Usually in stratum germinativum. Contain catecholamine-like granules.
Merkel
161
_______ are derived from melanoblasts. Do not form desmosome attachments in the epidermis. Inject melanin granules into keratinocytes.
Melanocytes
162
The epidermis starts as a single layer of ectodermal cells. It divides during the sixth week to form the _______, which sloughs off for form vernix caseosa, and the inner cuboidal germinal layer. This layer continues to proliferate to form adult layers of the epidermis and derivatives such as fingernails, toenails, and hair buds.
Periderm
163
The dermis is derived from the _______.
Mesoderm
164
________ glands are a type of holocrine gland with branched acinar glands with short ducts. They found everywhere except palms and soles. Continuously produce sebum, which is released into the hair follicle. Growth is stimulated at puberty by sex hormones.
Sebaceous
165
These type of glands can be both merocrine and apocrine glands. The merocrine has cholinergic endings and the apocrine secretions are thicker and more viscous and have adrenergic innervation. Special types of apocrine are ceruminous glands and Glands of Moll.
Sudoriferous (sweat)
166
Hair follicles develop from the epidermis as elastic, keratinized threads. It has 3 parts, which are...
Root sheaths (internal and external)
Hair shaft
Hair bulb
167
Sebaceous glands and ______ ______ muscles are associated with hair follicles.
Arrestor pili
168
This part of the hair follicle is an expanded lower part. It has a matrix and vascularized dermal papilla.
Hair bulb
169
This part of the hair follicle is a down growth of the epidermis.
External root sheath
170
This part of the hair follicle is generated by the bulb matrix. It has 3 layers, including Henle's layer (outermost), Huxley's layer, and the cuticle. The cuticle interlocks with the cuticle of the hair shaft.
Internal root sheath
171
This part of the hair follicle has 3 layers, the medulla (innermost), cortex, and cuticle.
Hair shaft
172
These cells can reestablish epidermis in severely burned patients.
Keratinocyte stem cells
173
What are the 3 possible migration pathways of the keratinocyte stem cells?
Bulb-epidermis stem cell pathway
Bulb-sebaceous gland stem cell pathway
Bulb-hair stem cell pathway
174
What are the 2 signaling pathways of keratinocyte stem cells?
Wnt signaling pathway
| Notch signaling pathway
175
What type of stimulation do Meissner's corpuscles respond to?
Light touch
176
What type of stimulation do Merkel cells and Ruffini cells respond to?
Touch pressure
177
What type of stimulation does Pacini corpuscles respond to?
Vibration
178
This type of merocrine gland cell secretes glycoproteins.
Apical dark secretory cells
179
This type of merocrine gland cell secretes water and electrolytes.
Basal clear cells
180
The cardiovascular system is made up of 3 layers or tunics. These tunics are...
Endocardium (innermost)
Myocardium
Epicardium
181
This tunic of the cardiovascular system lines the atria and ventricles. It consists of an endothelium and subendothelial connective tissue. It's continuous with the tunica intima of the blood vessels entering and leaving the heart.
Endocardium
182
This layer is located between the endocardium and the myocardium and contains nerves and Purkinje fibers.
Subendocardium
183
These are large, specialized cardiac muscle cells. They carry impulses to ordinary cardiomyocytes.
Purkinje fibers
184
This cardiac tunic is the middle layer and consists of cardiac muscle cells.
Myocardium
185
This cardiac tunic is on the external surface and covered by simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium). Mesothelium overlies fibroelastic CT containing adipose cells, nerves, and coronary vessels.
Epicardium
186
The cardiac _______ is made of dense collagenous CT. Myocardial fibers originate and insert into it.
Skeleton
187
The walls of all blood vessels, except capillaries, are characterized by three layers (tunics). These are...
Tunica intima
Tunica media
Tunica adventitia
188
This blood vessel tunic is the innermost layer and has an endothelium and its basal lamina, subendothelial CT, and internal elastic membrane.
Tunica intima
189
This blood vessel tunic is made up of circular smooth muscle tissue and fibroblasts. It contains collagen and elastic fibers.
Tunic media
190
This blood vessel tunic is the outermost layer and is lacking in arterioles. It consists of loose areolar tissue and contains irregular fibroelastic tissue with adipocytes. Has small vessels (vasa vasorum) and nerves (nervi vasorum).
Tunica adventitia
191
There is an (INCREASE/DECREASE) in pressure as arteries leave the heart and become progressively smaller.
Decrease
192
When arteries become smaller, the structure of the tunic (especially the tunica media) changed from that of an _______ tunic to that of a _______ tunic.
Elastic; Muscular
193
The more elastic arteries are ________ arteries, and the more muscular arteries are _______ arteries.
Conducting; Distributing
194
_______ arteries are called conducting arteries. They stretch during systole and recoil during diastole. The tunica media consists of layers of elastic fibers organized into elastic laminae. It includes aorta, pulmonary trunk, and large branches of the aorta.
Elastic
195
_______ arteries are called distributing arteries. The tunica media consists of smooth muscle that responds to autonomic stimulation and hormones. It includes all named arteries of the body except elastic arteries.
Muscular
196
The internal elastic membrane of blood vessels is incomplete in (ELASTIC/MUSCULAR) arteries but thick and complete in (ELASTIC/MUSCULAR) arteries.
Elastic; Muscular
197
These are considered small arteries. Their tunic media consists of one to three layers of smooth muscle cells.
Arterioles
198
Arterioles give rise to ________, which have a discontinuous layer of smooth muscle tissue.
Metarterioles
199
What are the 3 types of capillaries?
Continuous
Fenestrated
Discontinuous
200
This type of capillary is found in the muscle, brain, thymus, bone, lung, and other tissues. The basal lamina is continuous.
Continuous
201
This type of capillary is present in tissues with substantial fluid transport, such as intestinal villi, choroid plexus, ciliary processes of the eyes, and kidneys. The basal lamina is continuous.
Fenestrated
202
This type of capillary has an incomplete basal lamina. Can be found in the liver and spleen.
Discontinuous
203
Compared to arteries, veins have a larger lumen, thinner walls, and ______ are present in many of them.
Valves
204
Larger veins have a layer of longitudinal smooth muscle in the inner aspect of the tunica ________.
Adventitia
205
The respiratory system consists of a ________ portion and a _____ _____ portion.
Conducting; Gas exchange
206
Respiratory mucosa lines the respiratory passageway and consists of what kind of epithelium (considered "respiratory epithelium") that lines most of the conducting structures?
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
207
Respiratory mucosa lines the respiratory passageway and consists of respiratory epithelium, ______ ______ (thin layer of loose connective tissue), and ______ (dense irregular connective tissue).
Lamina propria; Submucosa
208
This part of the nose is made of stratified squamous epithelium continuous with the epidermis. It contains sebaceous glands, sudoriferous glands, and hair follicles.
Nares
209
This part of the nose begins at the level of the nasal septum, and includes respiratory epithelium, basement membrane, and lamina propria.
Mucosa
210
Olfactory glands of _______ are located in the lamina propria. They secrete odorant-binding protein. Odorant-binding protein binds to odorant molecule in nasal cavity
Bowman
211
Olfactory cells contain cilia with ________ linked odor-specific receptors.
G-protein
212
The nasopharynx consists of the mucosa, submucosa, and ________ ring.
Waldeyer's
213
Submucosa of the nasopharynx consists of loose CT and ______.
MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
214
Waldeyer's ring is a ring of lymphoid tissue around the nasopharynx and includes the _______ and adenoids.
Tonsils
215
The _______ consists of the epiglottis, false vocal cords (vestibular folds), true vocal cords, and the remainder covered with pseudo stratified ciliated epithelium.
Larynx
216
The epiglottis has a lingual surface, pharyngeal surface, and its core consists of _______ cartilage.
Elastic
217
This surface of the epiglottis is covered with stratified squamous epithelium and its lamina propria with loose CT and elastic fibers.
Lingual surface
218
This surface of the epiglottis is covered with pseudostratified ciliated epithelium and its lamina propria with tubuloacinar seromucous glands.
Pharyngeal surface
219
The larynx is made up of what 2 types of cartilage?
Elastic and hyaline
220
The larynx consists of what type of muscle?
Skeletal muscle
221
The trachea consists of mucosa, submucosa, and ________.
Adventitia
222
This part of the trachea consists of respiratory epithelium with a thick basement membrane and lamina propria with delicate FECT and lymphatic tissue.
Mucosa
223
This part of the trachea consists of many sero-mucous glands.
Submucosa
224
This part of the trachea consists of 16-20 horseshoe-shaped cartilages interconnected by FECT, with the opening between the arms of the horseshoe-shaped cartilages closed by FECT, mucous membrane, and smooth muscles (trachealis muscles). It also has mixed glands and capillaries.
Adventitia
225
The trachea divides into two primary ______, one to each lung. These lie outside the lung and are referred to as extra pulmonary.
Bronchi
226
Each primary bronchus divides into three (to the right lung) and two (to the left lung) ________ bronchi, also referred to as _______ bronchi.
Secondary; Lobar
227
Lobar (secondary) bronchi are mostly (EXTRAPULMONARY/INTRAPULMONARY).
Intrapulmonary
228
Secondary bronchi are reinforced by circular rings of _______ cartilage that transition to irregular plates.
Hyaline
229
As the bronchi become smaller there is a(n) (DECREASE/INCREASE) in the height of the epithelium, a(n) (DECREASE/INCREASE) in cartilage and glands, and a(n) (DECREASE/INCREASE) in the proportion of elastic fibers and smooth muscles.
Decrease; Decrease; Increase
230
In the _______ of the intrapulmonary bronchi, it is similar to the trachea and extrapulmonary bronchi. Mucosal folds may be present due to smooth muscles and elastic fibers are prominent.
Mucosa
231
In the _______ of the intrapulmonary bronchi, it is characterized by loose CT and lymphatic tissue. It contains mixed glands and mucous glands.
Submucosa
232
In the _______ of the intrapulmonary bronchi, it contains hyaline cartilage plates surrounded by dense FECT.
Adventitia
233
The smallest bronchioles are the ________ bronchioles.
Terminal
234
Bronchioles are absent of _______ , absent of ______, have sparse goblet cells (especially in terminal bronchioles) and have a large amount of smooth muscle tissue.
Cartilage; Glands
235
In bronchioles, epithelium transitions from ciliated _______ with a few goblet cells to ciliated ______ with no goblet cells (terminal bronchioles).
Columnar; Cuboidal
236
Each terminal bronchiole branches to form two or more ________ bronchioles.
Respiratory
237
Because _____ _____ may occur here for the first time in the respiratory tree, these bronchioles are referred to as respiratory bronchioles.
Gas exchange
238
These are cone-shaped continuations of respiratory bronchioles. They have squamous epithelium and their walls consist of smooth muscle with FECT.
Alveolar ducts
239
A cluster of alveoli are called...
Alveolar sacs
240
The alveolar ducts branches into what?
Alveoli (alveolar sacs)
241
These are openings that allow gas exchange between adjacent alveoli.
Pores of Kohn
242
Alveoli within alveolar sacs are separated by ______ ______.
Alveolar septa
243
The walls of alveoli and septa are thin and composed of what 3 types of cells?
Type I alveolar cells (Type I Pneumocytes)
Type II alveolar cells (Type II Pneymocytes)
Macrophages (Dust cells)
244
These type of alveolar cells cover the largest surface area and are less numerous than the other cells.
Type I alveolar cells (Type I Pneumocytes)
245
These type of alveolar cells are cuboidal or rounded and serve as stem cells for type I and type II pneumocytes.
Type II alveolar cells (Type II Pneumocytes)
246
This is secreted by Clara cells and type II alveolar cells and reduces surface tension on alveolar surface. Type II alveolar cells contain numerous lamellar bodies which contain lecithin and combines with proteins from Clara cells.
Surfactant
247
Type (I/II) alveolar cells phagocytize old surfactant.
II
248
This type of pneumocyte has a very thin cytoplasm and covers about 95% of the alveolar surface. It has tight junctions that connect with other cells of the same type. The basal lamina may be fused with basal lamina of nearby capillaries.
Type I pneumocytes
249
This type of pneumocyte has rounded cells that bulge into the alveolar lumen and covers about 5% of the alveolar surface. It can divide and replace type I pneumocytes and produces phospholipid-protein surfactant that coats alveolar walls.
Type II pneumocytes
250
These cells are found ONLY in bronchioles and can be identified by an apical surface that bulges into the lumen of the airway. It secretes surface-active lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation.
Clara cells (club cells)
251
These cells are macrophages derived from monocytes. They phagocytize particles such as pollutants, bacteria, and surfactant that are not trapped in the mucous and expectorated.
Dust cells
252
In CHF, fluid containing the breakdown products of hemoglobin (iron-containing hemosiderin) leak into alveolar spaces and are phagocytize by the _____ cells.
Dust
253
In CHF, the iron-containing dust cells are referred to as _____ _____ cells.
Heart failure
254
The presence of what type of cell is an indicator of CHF (congestive heart failure)?
Dust cells
255
This barrier consists of thin capillary endothelium (continuous endothelium), thin epithelium of pneumocyte, and an intervening basal lamina produced by both cell types. It permits gas exchange but does not allow fluids or cells to enter alveoli (normally).
Blood-air barrier
256
The urinary systems consists of two _______ and ______ and the urinary bladder and urethra.
Kidneys; Ureters
257
What type of epithelium is the urinary system composed of?
Transitional (urothelium)
258
Each kidney is fed by a large renal artery branching directly off the abdominal ______.
Aorta
259
The _______ is the functional unit of the kidney. There are approximately one million of these units per kidney.
Nephron
260
Each nephron consists of a renal _______ and a renal ______ that is a continuation of the Bowman's capsule.
Corpuscle; Tubule
261
The renal corpuscle is composed of a cup-shaped capsule referred to as ________ capsule, and a capillary knot situated between two arterioles that lies within the indentation of the capsule referred to as a ________.
Bowman's; Glomerulus
262
Nephrons empty into collecting ducts which, in turn, empty into the renal ______.
Pelvis
263
There are two types of nephrons, which are...
Cortical; Juxtamedullary
264
In this type of nephron, the renal corpuscles are located in the cortex.
Cortical nephrons
265
In this type of nephron, the glomeruli empty into peritubular capillary networks that surround the proximal and distal convoluted tubules of their own nephrons and those of surrounding nephrons.
Cortical nephrons
266
In this type of nephron, they have short loops of Henle that do not extend deeply into the medulla.
Cortical nephrons
267
In this type of nephron, the renal corpuscles are located in the cortex next to the cortical-medullary junction.
Juxtamedullary nephrons
268
In this type of nephron, the glomeruli empty into vasa recta consisting of long, straight arterioles and venules that run parallel to the loops of Henle and collecting ducts.
Juxtamedullary nephrons
269
In this type of nephron, they have long loops of Henle that extend deeply into the medulla.
Juxtamedullary nephrons
270
List the sequence of the renal artery branches within the kidney up until the glomeruli.
Interlobar arteries -- Arcuate arteries -- Interlobular arteries -- Afferent arterioles -- Glomeruli
271
List the sequence of the renal artery branches from the glomeruli to the renal vein.
Glomeruli -- Efferent arterioles -- Vasa recta OR Peritubular capillaries -- Interlobular veins -- Arcuate veins -- Interlobar veins -- Renal vein
272
The glomerulus is a capillary bed inserted between two arterioles, the _______ and _______ arterioles. (A typical capillary bed is inserted between an arteriole and a venule)
Afferent; Efferent
273
The efferent arteriole feeds into either a capillary loop, the _____ _____, or a capillary network, the _______ capillaries.
Vasa recta; Peritubular
274
The afferent arteriole contains ________ cells, which are circular smooth muscles at vascular pole.
Juxtaglomerular cells
275
Juxtaglomerular cells secrete ______, a hypertensive factor.
Renin
276
The Bowman's capsule is a double-layered, cup-shaped dilation of the nephron. It consists of an inner layer called the ______ layer, and an outer layer called the ______ layer.
Visceral; Parietal
277
This layer of the Bowman's capsule is an outer layer of simple squamous epithelium. The squamous epithelium is continuous with the simple cuboidal epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule.
Parietal layer
278
This layer of the Bowman's capsule is the inner layer of podocytes in contact with the endothelium of the glomerular capillaries.
Visceral layer
279
Bowman's _______ is located between the parietal and visceral layers and is continuous with the lumen of the proximal convoluted tubule.
Space
280
The renal corpuscle is involved in producing a filtrate of ______.
Blood
281
The rest of the nephron, including the convoluted portions and the loop of Henle, as well as the collecting tubules, is involved in modifying the _______.
Filtrate
282
The formation of urine involves three processes, which are...
Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion
283
Filtration of urine occurs in the renal _______ and reabsorption/secretion occurs in the renal ______.
Corpuscle; Tubule
284
Whatever is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed forms the excretory product of the kidneys, called _____.
Urine
285
The _______ is formed by mesangial cells embedded in a mesangial matrix. It is part of the glomerulus.
Mesangium
286
(INTRA/EXTRA)-glomerular mesangial cells are located between nearby capillaries in the glomerulus and cover endothelium not covered by podocytes.
Intraglomerular
287
(INTRA/EXTRA)-glomerular mesangial cells are located between the afferent and efferent arterioles at the vascular pole and are associated with the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Extraglomerular
288
Mesnagial cells are ________ to modify blood flow through glomerular capillaries, ______ to take up worn out glomerular basal lamina for recycling, proliferative, etc.
Contractile; Phagocytic
289
The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of what 3 components?
Macula densa
Extraglomerular mesangial cells
Juxtaglomerular cells
290
This part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by elongated, densely packed cells in the wall of the convoluted tubule. It signals renin release from juxtaglomerular cells. Involved in regulation of fluid-electrolyte balance and blood pressure regulation.
Macula densa
291
This component of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are modified smooth muscle cells associated with the macula dense and afferent arteriole. They secrete renin into the blood when stimulated by the macula dense. They are innervated by sympathetic nerve endings which increase renin release.
Juxtaglomerular cells
292
The simple (SQUAMOUS/CUBOIDAL) epithelium of Bowman's capsule becomes continuous with the simple (SQUAMOUS/CUBOIDAL) epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule. The proximal convoluted tubule is the first part of the renal tubule.
Squamous; Cuboidal
293
The parts of the renal tubule (in order) are...
Proximal convoluted tubule
Descending limb of Henle (thick and thin portions)
Loop of Henle
Ascending limb of Henle (thick and thin portions)
Distal convoluted tubule
294
The (PROXIMAL/DISTAL) convoluted tubule is continuous with the collecting duct.
Distal
295
This barrier is composed of fenestrated endothelium of capillaries; basal lamina composed type IV collagen, fibronectin, laminin, and heparin sulfate; and filtration slits created by adjacent pedicels of podocytes.
Renal filtration barrier
296
In the renal filtration barrier, water, glucose, and most ions pass through filter into Bowman's space. ______ are typically excluded from passing across the filter, and molecules with a large negative charge are excluded.
Proteins
297
The (PROXIMAL/DISTAL) convoluted tubule extends from the urinary pole of the renal corpuscle to the beginning of the loop of Henle.
Proximal
298
This tubule will reabsorb most of the filtrate, including water. It removes essentially all the glucose and amino acids from the filtrate. Reabsorbs most of the sodium and chloride ions.
Proximal convoluted tubule
299
Thick segments of the loop of Henle are composed of simple low _______ epithelium.
Cuboidal
300
Thin segments of the loop of Henle are composed of simple _______ epithelium.
Squamous
301
The ascending limb of Henle is impermeable to ______.
Water
302
The (ASCENDING/DESCENDING) thin limb of Henle is permeable to water and sodium and chloride ions.
Descending
303
The (ASCENDING/DESCENDING) thin limb of Henle is impermeable to water and actively pumps chloride ion out of the tubule, allowing sodium ions to follow.
Ascending
304
The major function of the loop of Henle is to establish the counter-current exchange-system which creates the osmotic conditions necessary to pull water out of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct in the presence of _____.
ADH
305
In the distal convoluted tubule, the lumen is larger than that of the proximal convoluted tubule and there is no _____ _____.
Brush border
306
The collecting duct has a different embryological origin than that of the nephron. Its wall consists of simple cuboidal epithelium. Two major specialized cell types are associated with the collecting duct, _______ cells and _______ cells.
Principal cells; Intercalated cells
307
This cell in the collecting duct will reabsorb sodium ions and water and secrete potassium via ATPase pump.
Principal cells
308
This cell in the collecting duct will secrete either hydrogen ion or bicarbonate ion.
Intercalated cells
309
The 3 excretory passages of the urinary system include the...
Renal pelvis
Ureter
Urinary bladder
310
The male urethra consists of a ______ section and ______ section.
Prostatic; Cavernous
311
The ends of the GI tract consist of this epithelium, for protection and resisting friction.
Stratified squamous
312
Most of the length of the GI tract consists of this type of epithelium along with glands.
Simple columnar
313
The ends of the GI tract consist of _______ muscle, while most of the length includes ______ muscle.
Skeletal; Smooth
314
The GI tract possesses an intrinsic rhythmicity, mostly due to presence of an ______ nervous system. It exists independently of external influences including ANS. Also receives input from sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Enteric
315
Lymphoid tissue in the GI tract is composed of MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue), referred to as _____ in the gut tube.
GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
316
Peptide neurotransmitters of the GI tract are...
Bombesin
Motilin
Vasoactive intestinal peptide
317
The protective mechanisms of the GI tract include production of large amount of ______. This assists in lubrication and friction reduction. There is also rapid turnover of epithelial cells in harsh environments such as stomach and small intestine.
Mucous
318
Unicellular endocrine cells in the GI tract are derived from endoderm unlike intrinsic nerve fibers, which are derived from neural crest. They secrete ________.
Neuropeptides
319
The oral cavity is lined with a mucous membrane lying a vascular FECT layer; this mucosa consists of ______ _____ epithelium, basement membrane, and lamina propria.
Stratified squamous
320
The lip is composed of a core of (SMOOTH/SKELETAL) muscle cells (obicularis oris) embedded in FECT and covered externally by skin.
Skeletal
321
The dermis of the lips has a rich plexus of _______ which are prominent at the free margin of the lip.
Capillaries
322
Cheek structure is similar to lips, except it is abundant in ______ fibers present in the submucosa.
Elastic
323
The oral cavity contains ______ and ______.
Teeth; Tongue
324
The internal limb of the tooth is the _____ _____.
Dental lamina
325
In the development of a tooth, the epithelial bud becomes ______ organ, which forms enamel. This organ caps the _____ _____, which is condensation of mesenchyme that gives rise to dentin and pulp.
Enamel; Dental papilla
326
The ______ ______ (follicle) is a CT sac that surrounds the enamel organ and dental papillae and forms cementum and the periodontal membrane.
Dental sac
327
These tooth cells form the dentin matrix throughout the life of the tooth. They form a single layer of cells lining pulp cavity. Involved with Tomes' dentinal fibers and increment lines (of Ebner and Owen).
Odontoblasts
328
______ is similar to bone but harder. 20% of matrix is organic (compared to about 35% in bone) and composed mostly of collagen type I.
Dentin
329
These tooth cells form enamel which covers only the tooth crown.
Ameloblasts
330
_______ is the hardest substance in the body.
Enamel
331
Enamel is laid down in _____, each one is formed by one ameloblast.
Prisms
332
Enamel is 96% (ORGANIC/INORGANIC) salts, about 90% of which is calcium phosphate in the form of apatite crystals and 4% (ORGANIC/INORGANIC) matter and water.
Inorganic; Organic
333
The secreting apical domains of ameloblasts form the _____ _____.
Tomes' processes
334
In ameloblasts, specific organic components are unique to enamel and are removed after calcification. These are...
Amelogenins
| Enamelins
335
This component of teeth originates form the dental papilla containing condensed mesenchyme. It consists of fibroblasts, macrophages, peripheral odontoblasts, reticular fibers, nerve fibers, and blood vessels that pass via the apical foramen.
Pulp
336
This component of teeth are cells of the dental sac that differentiate into cementoblasts which deposit cementum on the dentin of the root from neck to apex. Cementum has coarse collagen fibers (Sharpey's) in a bone-like calcified matrix.
Cementum
337
This absorbs pressure of mastication and prevents this pressure from damaging alveolar bone. It also allows limited movement, has highly metabolic active tissue, and binds cementum to bony socket.
Periodontal membrane
338
The ______ is composed primarily of a core of skeletal muscle and glands, and is covered by a mucous membrane.
Tongue
339
The anterior two-thirds of the upper oral portion is separated from the posterior one-third by the ______ ______.
Sulcus terminalis
340
_____ _____ appear on the oral portion as surface projections; they are formed of a central core of CT lamina propria covered by stratified squamous epithelium.
Lingual papillae
341
These are a type of lingual papillae. They are the most numerous of all the papillae with a conical appearance. They're evenly distributed over the entire oral upper portion and lack taste buds.
Filiform papillae
342
These are a type of lingual papillae. They are relatively few in number and interspersed singly among the parallel rows of filiform papillae. They have a mushroom appearance and taste buds are present.
Fungiform papillae
343
This type of lingual papillae are rudimentary in humans, but well developed in lower animals. The pharyngeal portion is free of papillae but contains the lingual tonsils.
Foliate papillae
344
This type of lingual papillae is located along the sulcus terminals as projections surrounded by a moat (circular furrow). Taste buds are present on the lateral walls and Ducts of von Exner's glands (serous) open into the moat.
Circumvallate papillae
345
The tongue taste buds contain two types of cells derived from a single stem cell, which are called...
Sustentacular cells
| Taste cells
346
This type of taste bud cell has spindle-shaped support cells and arranged like barrel-staves to surround the inner taste pore at the base.
Sustentacular cells
347
This type of taste bud cell consists of long and slender cells with elongated central nucleus and terminates as a short taste hair which projects into the external opening called the outer taste pore. Possess apical microvilli with taste receptors. Basal part of cell releases neurotransmitters. They are distributed between the supporting cells.
Taste cells
348
The digestive tube consists of 4 layers, which are (from inner to outer)...
Mucosa; Submucosa; Muscularis externa; Serosa and Adventitia (both make outermost layer)
349
The innermost layer of the digestive tube, the mucosa, consists of three separate layers itself. These are...
Epithelium; Lamina propria; Muscularis mucosa
350
This layer of the mucosa is made up of stratified squamous transition to simple columnar and may have secretory, absorptive, and/or protective functions.
Epithelium
351
This layer of the mucosa is made up of loose areolar CT associated with the epithelium and contains various glands and GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
Lamina propria
352
This layer of the mucosa is made up of one to three layers of smooth muscle.
Muscularis mucosa
353
This layer of the digestive tube is made up of dense, irregular CT and is vascularized. It contains a nerve plexus called the Meissner's plexus (interacts with autonomic nervous system).
Submucosa
354
This layer of the digestive tube is an inner circular layer of smooth muscle and an outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle. Between these two layers lies the Myenteric (Auerbach's) nerve plexus. This layer functions to regulate the size of the lumen and regulates the rhythmic movement of the GI tract.
Muscularis externa
355
The outermost layer of the digestive tube consists of two components. This particular one is composed of dense irregular CT, a mesothelial lining and a layer of submesothelial CT. It forms the visceral peritoneum and covers the intraperitoneal portions of abdominal organs.
Serosa
356
The outermost layer of the digestive tube consists of two components. This particular one is composed of dense irregular CT with adipose tissue. It covers the retroperitoneal portions of the digestive system.
Adventitia
357
In the gut wall, _________ postganglionic fibers pass through to glands and smooth muscle for innervation.
Sympathetic
358
In the gut wall, ________ innervation involves preganglionic fibers synapsing with postganglionic fibers in ganglia within the gut wall itself. It innervates the Meissner's plexus which regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption. It also innervates Auerbach's plexus, which coordinates muscular activity of the gut wall.
Parasympathetic
359
In GALT, ____ is the first line of defense and is found coating the luminal surface of the mucosal epithelium.
IgA
360
Isolated lymph follicles are found in the _____ _____: specialized squamous epithelial cells (M cells) in the gut lumen serve to transport food antigens to the lymph follicles. Antigen-stimulated B cells in the follicle secrete IgA.
Lamina propria
361
Diffuse lymphoid tissue in the lamina propria includes _______, _______, and IgA-secreting plasma cells.
Lymphocytes; Macrophages
362
Aggregated lymphoid follicles form the tonsils of the oropharynx (Waldeyer's ring) and Peyer's patches in the submucosa of the ______.
Ileum
363
This part of the GI tract functions in digestion (initiated in the mouth) and the addition of mucous to food bolus.
Esophagus
364
This layer of the esophagus contains stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium and mucous glands are found in the lamina propria and submucosa.
Mucosa
365
This layer of the esophagus undergoes transition from skeletal muscle in the upper third to a mixture of skeletal and smooth in the middle third to smooth muscle only in the lower third.
Muscularis externa
366
The esophageal-stomach epithelial transition zone consists of the stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus moving to the simple columnar epithelium of the stomach. This is a frequent site for _______.
Cancer
367
The epithelial lining of the stomach consists of gastric mucosa with simple columnar epithelium and mucous columnar cells. The surface mucous cells secrete a protective insoluble mucous. _____ are longitudinal mucosal folds that are most prominent in an empty stomach.
Rugae
368
In the stomach, gastric glands open into gastric ____.
Pits
369
The stomach's muscularis external has three layers of smooth muscles. The third layer is an inner _______ layer.
Oblique
370
The stomach has 4 regions, which are...
Cardia
Fundus
Body
Pylorus
371
This region of the stomach contains mostly mucous glands.
Cardia
372
This region of the stomach contains gastric glands, which are long tubular glands extending down to the muscularis mucosae. It's composed of mucous neck cells, parietal cells, chief cells, stem cells, and enteroendocrine cells.
Fundus
373
This region of the stomach contains gastric glands.
Body
374
This region of the stomach contains mucous glands and hormone-secreting enteroendocrine cells.
Pylorus
375
Gastric glands contain _____ cells which secrete pepsinogen, ______ cells which manufacture Hal and secrete intrinsic factor, and _______ cells which diffuse neuroendocrine cells that secrete hormones.
Chief; Parietal; Enteroendocrine
376
Gastric glands also contain mucous _____ cells that secrete soluble mucous. Stem cells in _____ replace other cells of the gastric pit.
Neck; Neck
377
______ cells are a unique cell of the gastric gland. They are large, pyramidal shaped, eosinophilic cell.
Parietal
378
This cell of the gastric gland are small with secretory vesicle polarized toward basal surface in proximity to blood vessels. They produce peptide hormones and serotonin.
Enteroendocrine
379
There are three levels of folding that increase the surface area in the small intestine. These levels are...
Plicae; Crypt-villus sytem; Microvilli
380
Small intestine consists of...
Duodenum; Jejunum; Ileum
381
The duodenum is ___ ft., the jejunum is ___ ft., and the ileum is ___ ft. Total the small intestine is ___ ft.
1; 8; 12; 22
382
What are the layers of the intestinal wall (from inside to outside)?
Mucosa with lamina propria and muscularis mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis layers
Serosa
383
This part of the small intestine contains the characteristics of villi with wide spatulate or "leaflike" distal shape, deep crypts of Lieberkuhn, and Brunner's glands with excretory ducts in submucosa.
Duodenum
384
This cell of the Crypts of Lieberkuhn is made of columnar epithelial cells with a basal nucleus, perinuclear Golgi, and apical brush border. Produce disaccharides and is involved in absorption of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.
Enterocytes
385
This cell of the Crypts of Lieberkuhn is a basal crypt cell. It has prominent eosinophilic granules and produces lysozyme to control intestinal flora.
Paneth cells
386
This cell of the Crypts of Lieberkuhn is stained with chromium and agyrophilic. It produces peptide hormones and serotonin. May produce paracrine or autocrine secretions. Analogous to unicellular goblet cells.
Enteroendocrine cells
387
The glands of ______ are found in submucosa of duodenum. It's responsible for the formation of bicarbonate and mucus. Supplements bicarbonate from the pancreas and is necessary to neutralize gastric acid.
Brunner
388
This part of the small intestine has characteristics of longer and narrow villi, Crypts of Lieberkuhn, and no glands in the submucosa.
Jejunum
389
This part of the small intestine has characteristics of narrow and shorter villi, Crypts of Lieberkuhn, and no glands in the submucosa.
Ileum
390
The (LARGE/SMALL) intestine has simple columnar epithelium with crypts but no villi. Its functions are secretion of mucous for lubrication, absorption of fluid, formation of fecal mass, and continuation of digestion.
Large
391
The prominent cell of the large intestine is the ______ cell.
Goblet
392
_______ disease is caused by mutations of the RET (receptor tyrosine kinase) gene that prevents the migration and differentiation of neural crest cells into neurons of the enteric nervous system. Congenital aganglionic megacolon.
Hirschsprung's
393
Epithelial cells of the GI tract are held together by ________ junctions containing the transmembrane proteins claudins and occludins, which function to prevent paracellular transport.
Occluding
394
The mucosal layer coats intestinal epithelial luminal surface. It is secreted by ______ cells and made up of two layers. Outer layer contains microorganisms and the inner layer contains antimicrobial proteins that resist microbial penetration.
Goblet
395
Toll-like receptors are found on surface of ________. It's a type of pattern recognition receptor that recognizes structurally conserved molecules broadly shared by pathogens but distinguishable from host molecules (pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)).
Enterocytes
396
The bulk of the body's immune defenses is centered in the _____. Components include transitory aggregations of lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils and permanent structures such as the appendix, Peyer's patches, and Mesenteric lymph nodes.
GALT
397
In the anal canal, the epithelium returns to _______ ______ epithelium. ______ muscle returns as external anal sphincter.
Stratified squamous; Skeletal
398
This organ is a lobulated, compound, tubule-alveolar gland with both an exocrine and endocrine secretory function.
Pancreas
399
Duct of ______ is the main excretory duct of the pancreas while the duct of ______ is the smaller accessory duct.
Wirsung; Santorini
400
Exocrine secretions of the pancreas include _______ enzymes and ________ ions.
Digestive; Bicarbonate
401
In the pancreas, these are endodermal-derived cell aggregations which are interspersed irregularly among the acini. Its cell types include A-cells, B-cells, and D-cells.
Islets of Langerhans
402
This cell type in the Islets of Langerhans have fine cytoplasmic granules and are presumed to form glucagon.
A-cells (alpha cells)
403
This cell type in the Islets of Langerhans have coarse cytoplasmic granules and produce insulin.
B-cells (beta cells)
404
This cell type in the Islets of Langerhans secrete somatostatin, which helps to control levels of insulin and glucagon.
D-cell (delta cells)
405
This organ functions to remove bile pigments from the blood and secrete pigments into the bile. Stores glycogen, converts fats to carbs, maintains blood glucose level, synthesizes plasma proteins, and detoxifies from drugs and other things.
Liver
406
In the liver, epithelial parenchyma is composed of ______ cells irregularly arranged as plates seen on edge as cell cords and radially arranged around the central vein.
Hepatic
407
In the liver, this separates the hepatic cells from endothelial cells. It's active in the transfer between blood and parenchyma.
Space of Disse
408
In this liver, this is continuous with the space of Disse and drains into the lymphatics.
Space of Mall
409
In this hepatic lobule, the central venue is in the center and portal triads are at the angles.
Classic
410
In this hepatic lobule, three central venues of adjacent lobules form a triangle. Portions of the bile canaliculi of the three lobules drain into the same bile duct.
Portal
411
In this hepatic lobule, it includes three zones defined by hepatic tissue receiving blood from a branch of the hepatic artery conducting blood to opposite central veins. Metabolic gradient extends from hepatic triad to central vein.
Liver acinus
412
The _____ _____ is found at the angles (corners) of classic lobule.
Portal triad
413
The portal triad consists of what three things?
Branch of hepatic artery
Branch of portal vein
Bile duct
414
This liver cell is polyhedral in form and has a central nucleus with one or more nucleoli. Cytoplasm may contain glycogen, fat droplets, and pigment granules. The basolateral domain has microvilli and faces the space of Disse. The apical domain borders the bile canaliculus.
Hepatocyte
415
Hepatic sinusoids lining have __________ endothelial cells with a discontinuous basal lamina.
Fenestrated
416
The bile canaliculus is an extracellular canal located between two rows of hepatocytes that receives bile from hepatocytes. The canal of _______ receives bile from the canaliculus and carries bile to bile ductule.
Hering
417
In the gall bladder, the mucosal folds form the spiral valve of _______.
Heister
418
(AFFERENT/EFFERENT) blood vessels (give off interlobular branches) include the portal vein and hepatic artery.
Afferent
419
Branches from the portal vein enter the lobule and empty into the hepatic sinusoids, which converge toward the center to empty into the central vein. This is an (AFFERENT/EFFERENT) vessel.
Efferent
420
In the liver, alcohol is oxidized to ________ in the cytoplasm and then is converted to ______ in mitochondria. An excess of H+ and ________ causes mitochondrial damage, disrupts microtubules, and alters proteins that can induce autoimmune responses leading to hepatocyte injury.
Acetaldehyde; Acetate; Acetaldehyde
421
Hepatic bile is produced and secreted by the (LIVER/GALLBLADDER). Bile from the (LIVER/GALLBLADDER) is hepatic bile that has been stored and concentrated.
Liver; Gallbladder
422
Bile acids synthesized by hepatocytes include ________ and _________ acids. Acids converted by bacteria include __________ acid and __________ acid.
Cholic; Chenodeoxycholic; Deoxycholic acid; Lithocholic acid
423
Bile components include bile acids, water and __________, cholesterol and phospholipids, and pigments and organic molecules.
Electrolytes
424
The major pigment in bile is...
Bilirubin
425
This final product in bilirubin formation is oxidized into excreted products OR reabsorbed into the blood and carried back to the liver TO BE re-excreted by the liver OR excreted in the urine.
Urobilinogen
426
In bilirubin formation, ___________ is released from damaged RBCs. It is then phagocytized by macrophages and split into _______ and _______.
Hemoglobin; Globin; Heme
427
In bilirubin formation, once the hemoglobin is split into globin and heme then the heme ring is opened to free _______. Heme is transported in the blood by ___________. Straight chain of pyrrole nuclei is formed. Heme is concerted by heme oxygenase into _________. This is free (unconjugated) bilirubin.
Iron; Transferrin; Biliverdin
428
In bilirubin formation, biliverdin (free bilirubin) is transported attached to plasma ________ to liver hepatocytes. It is released within the liver cells and conjugated. Conjugated bilirubin is secreted (active transport) into the intestine. There, it is converted by bacterial action into ___________.
Albumin; Urobilinogen
