Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Med Surg > Exam 3: Cellular Function (Cancer) > Flashcards

Exam 3: Cellular Function (Cancer) Flashcards

(93 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Incidence and death rates of cancer higher in what population? (2)

A

Higher in males than females

Higher in black people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cancer with the highest incidence for women

Cancer with the highest death rate for women

A

Highest incidence = breast cancer

Highest death rate = lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cancer with the highest incidence for men

Cancer with the highest death rate for men

A

Highest incidence = prostate cancer

Highest death rate = lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Another term for cancer

A

“Malignant neoplasms”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Metastasis definition

A

Cancer cells infiltrate lymph and blood vessels, which carry the mutant cells to other parts of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Surface epithelial tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Papiloma
Malignant: Squamous Cell Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glandular epithelial cell tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Adenoma

Malignant Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fibrous tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Fibroma
Malignant: Fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adipose tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign:Lipoma
Malignant: Liposarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cartilage tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Chondroma

Malignant Chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bone tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Osteoma

Malignant Ostemosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blood vessel tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Hemagioma
Malignant: Hemagiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lymph Vessel tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Lymphangioma

Malignant Lymphangiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lymph tissue tumor
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign —–

Malignant: Lymphosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nerve cell tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Neuroma
Malignant: Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Glial tissue tumor:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Glioma
Malignant: Glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tumor shape:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Regular shape, cells are well-differentiated
Malignant: Irregular shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tumor spread to adjacent tissues:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Non-invasive: Does not invade surrounding tissue
Malignant: Invasive: Invades surrounding tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tumor metastasis:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Localized
Malignant: Metastasizes to distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tumor encapsulation:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Encapsulated (usually by fibrous capsule)
Malignant: Not encapsulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tumor potential for growth:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Decreased potential for growth
Malignant: Increased potential for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tumor recurrence after surgical excision:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Decreased recurrence
Malignant: Increased recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tumor as the cause of death:
Benign
Malignant

A

Benign: Doesn’t usually cause death unless location interferes with vital function
Malignant: Usually causes death unless growth can be controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Three mechanisms of cancer spread:

A

1) Metastasis
2) Invasion
3) Seed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
4 Risk categories for cancer
1) Environmental 2) Genetic / familial 3) Hormonal agents 4) Age
26
___% of cancer cases are idiopathic
40%
27
25% of all cancer deaths...
are associated with ONE chemical in cigarettes!
28
Two genes that increase the risk of ovarian cancer
Broncho1 | Broncho2
29
What family history should you take when looking at cancer
Immediate relatives (parents, siblings)
30
Three factors that correlate with a higher incidence of breast cancer
* Early onset menses * Late menopause * Have never given birth
31
Recommended fruit and vegetable intake
5-9 per day
32
Standard guidelines to detect/screen BREAST CANCER (2)
- Mammogram q 2 years - Clinical breast exam: q 4 years 20-39 q 1 year age 40+
33
Standard guidelines to detect/screen COLON AND RECTAL CANCER (2)
If 50 years or older: Yearly fecal occult blood test and one of the following: - Sigmoidoscopy every 5 years OR - Colonoscopy every 10 years
34
Standard guidelines to detect/screen PROSTATE CANCER (2)
- Yearly digital rectal exam | - PSA as needed
35
Standard guidelines to detect/screen CERVICAL CANCER
- Yearly GYN exam | - PAP test yearly 21+ (earlier if sexually active) -- q 3 years after 3 or more negative PAPs
36
Five general cancer symptoms (Greenfield)
- Unexplained weight loss - Unexplained fever - Fatigue - Pain - Skin clues
37
Seven common cancer symptoms (American Cancer Society)
1) Change in bowel / bladder function 2) Sores that do not heal 3) Unusual bleeding or discharge 4) Thickening, lump 5) Indigestion or difficulty swallowing 6) Recent change or difficulty swallowing 7) Nagging cough or hoarseness
38
How do tumor markers work?
The higher the number, the greater the likelihood of cancer -- not definitive. Often used to determine treatment efficacy
39
Tumor markers: | - Prostate
PSA
40
Tumor markers: | - Ca 125
Ovarian cancer
41
Tumor markers: | - Ca 15-3
Breast cancer
42
Tumor markers: | - Ca 19-9
Pancreas, liver
43
Tumor markers: | - Alpha-fetoprotein
Hepatic, testicular
44
Computed Tomography: Mechanism
Very narrow beam of x-ray in successive layers
45
What test would be given before an MRI? Why?
CT Scan, shorter duration
46
What does nuclear medicine imaging look at? (3)
Looks at oxygen uptake, glucose transport, blood flow
47
What color would a Nuclear Medicine Imaging be? - If cancerous: - If non-cancerous
* Cancerous: Areas of high metabolic rates → GLOW RED | * Non-cancerous: Non-malignant will glow blue, green
48
What test helps observe if a tumor is shrinking?
PET scan
49
Two cytology tests
- PAP smear | - Sputum sample
50
What is a biopsy?
Physically removing a piece of tissue
51
What is the most definitive way to diagnose cancer?
Biopsy
52
What should you do before treating a tumor?
Diagnostic surgery ie biopsy
53
Purpose of staging a tumor
Determines the size of tumor and metastasis
54
Three classifications when staging
T: Primary tumor N: Lymph node involvement M: Metastasis is present
55
Purpose of grading a tumor
Classification that predicts the prognosis
56
Four classifications of grading
o I: Small, no metastasis o II: Large, without lymph spread o III: Larger cancer with lymph node involvement o IV: Aggressive and less responsive to treatment
57
What type of surgery is the gold standard?
LOCAL EXCISION
58
What type of surgery is not really done anymore?
Wide or radical treatment, where large portions of the muscle or other tissue are removed.
59
Another term for palliative surgery
Debulking
60
Patients who have _____ prior to surgery are at greater risk for complications post-op
Chemotherapy and/or | Radiation
61
Three cancer surgery complications
* Infection, wound healing * Pulmonary or renal issues * DVT
62
What are the benefits of intra-op radiation? (4)
o Lower dose o Less toxicity o Precisely target radiation o No localized tissue problems
63
What is pancytopenia?
Decreased WBC, RBC and platelets.
64
Radiation toxicity: Digestive ADEs (7)
- NVD - Stomatitis - Loss of taste - Dry mouth - Decreased salivation - Trouble swallowing - Reflux
65
Where are needles / seeds / beads used?
Interstitial compartments, such as breast, prostate
66
Benefit of needles / seeds / beads
Less likely to become dislodged
67
First two weeks of needles / seeds / beads
Can't be around children or pregnant women
68
What is chemotherapy?
Antineoplastic agents
69
Mechanism of chemotherapy | 6 categories
- Can be cell-cycle specific - Can be phase specific - Alkalating agents - Antimetabolites - Antitumor - ABX - Hormonal agents
70
What do cell-cycle specific cancer drugs do?
Destroy cells that are actively reproducing
71
What portion of the cell cycle does phase specific chemotherapy target?
S-PHASE: DNA synthesis
72
Three common side-effects of chemo
- Alopecia - Stomatitis - Bone marrow suppression
73
What does "Dose-limiting" mean
More doses increases effects
74
Six dose-limiting side-effects of chemo
``` o Hepatotoxicity o Pneumonitis o Hemorrhagic cystitis: Affects bladder o Tubular necrosis: Renal failure o Cardiotoxicity, pericarditis o Cumulative: Neurotoxicity, numbness, tingling, “chemo-brain” – Can last about a year after treatment ```
75
What is a "vesicant"?
Blister agent
76
Name an estrogen receptor blocker
Tamoxafin
77
When is Herceptin given?
If tumor is positive for HER2/nue receptors
78
Another term for Bone Marrow Transplatn
HEmatopoitic Stem cell transplant
79
Bone marrow transplant is indicated for ______
Bone cancers
80
Three sources of bone marrow transplant -- which is the most common?
1) Allogenic ** Most common 2) Autologous 3) Synergic
81
What does allogenic mean?
Transplant from a selected donor
82
What does autologous mean?
Transplant from self
83
What does synergic mean?
Transplant from identical twin
84
Before receiving an allogenic transplant, a patient will receive (2):
1) Ablative chemo | 2) Possibly a total body radiation
85
After receiving ablative chemo / radiation before a bone marrow transplant, patient is at higher risk for (3)
* Infection * Respiratory issues * Bleeding
86
What is happening with graft-versus-host disease?
The donor t-lymphocytes can recognize the recipient as "foreign and attack the recipient
87
What is the most critical time for Graft-versus-Host disease?
First 100 days
88
Is Graft-versus-host disease acute or chronic?
Can be either
89
Prophylactic immunosuppressant drugs for graft-versus-host disease (2)
- Immuran | - High dose steroids
90
How is a patient prepared for an autologous bone marrow transplant? (3)
1) Patient's marrow is harvested, preserved and treated for chemo 2) After harvest, patient is treated with chemo and possibly full-body radiation 3) Patient's own marrow is infused, must undergo engraftment
91
Benefit of stem cell transplatn
Engraftment occurs faster
92
What type of nursing care is used in a stem cell transplant?
REVERSE ISOLATION -- isolation to protect the patient from the healthcare team's germs, not the other way around
93
What does a patient receive before receiving a stem cell transplant?
Chemo | Hematopoitic growth factors

Med Surg (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions