Exam 3 Lewis Review Questions Flashcards

Question

When teaching a patient about dietary management of stage 1 hypertension, which instruction is appropriate? a) Increase water intake. b) Restrict sodium intake. c) Increase protein intake. d) Use calcium supplements.

Answer 1

b) Restrict sodium intake. Rationale: The patient should decrease intake of sodium. This will help to control hypertension, which can be aggravated by excessive salt intake, which in turn leads to fluid retention. Protein intake does not affect hypertension. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower blood pressure.

Answer 2

b) Limit beef consumption. c) Limit sodium and fat intake. d) Increase fruits and vegetables. e) Exercise 30 minutes most days. Rationale: Primary prevention of hypertension is to make lifestyle modifications that prevent or delay the increase in BP. Along with exercise for 30 minutes on most days, the DASH eating plan is a healthy way to lower BP by limiting sodium and fat intake, increasing fruits and vegetables, and increasing nutrients that are associated with lowering BP. Beef includes saturated fats, which should be limited. Weight loss may or may not be necessary, depending on the person.

Answer 3

a) Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg/sec Rationale: The cuff should be deflated at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg/sec. The arm should be supported at the level of the heart for accurate blood pressure measurements. Using a cuff that is too small causes a falsely high reading and too large causes a falsely low reading. If the maximum size blood pressure cuff does not fit the upper arm, the forearm may be used. Orthostatic blood pressures should be taken within 1 to 2 minutes of repositioning the patient.

Answer 4

d) Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications. Rationale: Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator medication. A blood pressure of 234/118 mm Hg would have a calculated MAP of 177 mm Hg. Subtracting 25% (or 44 mm Hg) = 133 mm Hg. The initial treatment goal is to decrease MAP by no more than 25% within minutes to 1 hour. For this patient, the goal MAP would be around 133 mm Hg. Minimal MAP required to perfuse organs is around 60 to 65 mm Hg. Lowering the blood pressure too rapidly may decrease cerebral, coronary, or renal perfusion and could precipitate a stroke, myocardial infarction, or renal failure. The priority is to stop the nitroprusside infusion and then use fluids only if necessary to support restoration of MAP.

Answer 5

b) Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. This elevated level indicates target organ damage to the kidneys. The other laboratory results are within normal limits.

Answer 6

b) Roasted duck Rationale: Roasted duck is high in fat, which should be avoided by the patient with hypertension. Weight loss may slow the progress of atherosclerosis and overall cardiovascular disease risk. The other meats are lower in fat and are therefore acceptable in the diet.

Answer 7

a) Systolic blood pressure increases with aging. b) White coat syndrome is prevalent in older patients. c) Volume depletion contributes to orthostatic hypotension. d) Blood pressures should be maintained near 120/80 mm Hg. e) Blood pressure drops 1 hour after eating in many older patients. Rationale: Systolic blood pressure increases with age and patients older than age 60 years should be maintained below 150/90 mm Hg. Older adults are more likely to have elevated blood pressure when taken by health care providers (white coat syndrome). Older patients have orthostatic hypotension related to dehydration, reduced compensatory mechanisms, and medications. One hour after eating, many older patients have a drop in blood pressure. Lower doses of medications may be needed to control blood pressures in older adults related to decreased absorption rates and excretion ability.

Answer 8

c) Take BP and HR with patient standing. Rationale: The vital signs taken do not reflect orthostatic changes, so the UAP will continue with the measurements while the patient is standing. There is no need to repeat or delay the readings. The patient does not need to return to the supine position. When assessing for orthostatic changes, the UAP will take the BP and pulse in the supine position, then place the patient in a sitting position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings, and then reposition to the standing position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings. Results consistent with orthostatic changes would have a decrease of 20 mm Hg or more in systolic BP, a decrease of 10 mm Hg or more in diastolic BP, and/or an increase in HR of greater than or equal to 20 beats/min with position changes.

Answer 9

b) Bumetanide (Bumex) Rationale: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of this medication. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone is an aldosterone-receptor blocker. Hyperkalemia is an adverse effect of both amiloride and spironolactone. Clonidine is a central-acting α-adrenergic antagonist and does not cause electrolyte abnormalities.

Answer 10

a) Assess his adherence to therapy. Rationale: A long-acting calcium-channel blocker such as nifedipine causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation, resulting in decreased systemic vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure and related side effects. The patient data the nurse has about this patient is very limited, so the nurse needs to begin by assessing adherence to therapy.

Answer 11

c) “I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco.” Rationale: Nicotine contained in tobacco products (smoking and chew) cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Persons with hypertension should restrict sodium to 1500 mg/day by avoiding foods high in sodium and not adding salt in preparation of food or at meals. Weight loss can decrease blood pressure between 5 to 20 mm Hg. Following dietary recommendations (e.g., the DASH diet) lowers blood pressure, and these decreases compare with those achieved with blood pressure–lowering medication.

Answer 12

b) Pulse 48 beats/min Rationale: Because metoprolol is a β1-adrenergic blocking agent, it can cause hypotension and bradycardia as adverse effects. The nurse should withhold the dose and consult with the health care provider for parameters regarding pulse rate limits.

Answer 13

a) Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries. Rationale: Hypertension is a major risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis by mechanisms not yet fully known. However, when atherosclerosis develops, it damages the walls of arteries and reduces circulation to target organs and tissues.

Answer 14

d) “If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor.” Rationale: Benazepril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The medication inhibits breakdown of bradykinin, which may cause a dry, hacking cough. Other adverse effects include hyperkalemia. Swelling in the face could indicate angioedema and should be reported immediately to the prescriber. Patients taking drug therapy for hypertension should also attempt lifestyle modifications to lower blood pressure such as a reduced sodium diet.

Answer 15

c) Assist the patient to a sitting position with arms on the overbed table. Rationale: The nurse should place the patient with ADHF in a high Fowler’s position with the feet horizontal in the bed or dangling at the bedside. This position helps decrease venous return because of the pooling of blood in the extremities. This position also increases the thoracic capacity, allowing for improved ventilation. Pursed-lip breathing helps with obstructive air trapping but not with acute pulmonary edema. Restricting fluids takes considerable time to have an effect.

Answer 16

b) Hypotension and tachycardia Rationale: Dopamine is a β-adrenergic agonist whose inotropic action is used for treatment of severe heart failure accompanied by hemodynamic instability. Such a state may be indicated by tachycardia accompanied by hypotension. PND, anxiety, edema, and weight gain are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, but these do not necessarily warrant the use of dopamine.

Answer 17

a) “The medication prevents blood clots from forming in your heart.” Rationale: Chronic HF causes enlargement of the chambers of the heart and an altered electrical pathway, especially in the atria. When numerous sites in the atria fire spontaneously and rapidly, atrial fibrillation occurs. Atrial fibrillation promotes thrombus formation within the atria with an increased risk of stroke and requires treatment with cardioversion, antidysrhythmics, and/or anticoagulants. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors.

Answer 18

a) “I will limit the amount of milk and cheese in my diet.” Rationale: Milk products should be limited to 2 cups per day for a 2500-mg sodium-restricted diet. Salt should not be added during food preparation or at the table. Diuretics should be taken as prescribed (usually daily) and not based on sodium intake. Foods labeled as reduced sodium contain at least 25% less sodium than regular.

Answer 19

c) Blood pressure Rationale: Although all identified assessments are appropriate for a patient receiving IV nesiritide, the priority assessment would be monitoring for hypotension, the main adverse effect of nesiritide.

Answer 20

d) Cardiac vasculopathy Rationale: Beyond the first year after a heart transplant, cancer (especially lymphoma) and cardiac vasculopathy (accelerated coronary artery disease) are the major causes of death. During the first year after transplant, infection and acute rejection are the major causes of death. Immunosuppressive therapy will be used for posttransplant management to prevent rejection and increases the patient’s risk of an infection.

Answer 21

c) Loss of appetite Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, blurred or yellow vision, and dysrhythmias are all signs of digitalis toxicity. The nurse would become concerned and notify the health care provider if the patient exhibited any of these symptoms.

Answer 22

a) Avoid drugs to treat erectile dysfunction. Rationale: The use of erectile drugs concurrent with nitrates creates a risk of severe hypotension and possibly death. NSAIDs do not pose a risk in combination with nitrates. There is no need to take an H2-receptor blocker or increase the dietary intake of high-potassium foods.

Answer 23

b) Withhold the dose and report the potassium level. Rationale: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. The patient is hyperkalemic, which makes the patient more prone to digoxin toxicity. For this reason, the nurse should withhold the dose and wait for the potassium level to normalize. The provider may order the digoxin to be given once the potassium level has been treated and decreases to within normal range.

Answer 24

a) Take medications as prescribed. Rationale: The goal for the patient with chronic HF is to avoid exacerbations and hospitalization. Taking the medications as prescribed along with nondrug therapies such as alternating activity with rest will help the patient meet this goal. If the patient needs to use oxygen at home, it will probably be used all the time or with activity to prevent respiratory acidosis. Many HF patients are monitored by a care manager or in a transitional program to assess the patient for medication effectiveness and monitor for patient deterioration and encourage the patient. This nurse manager can be asked questions or can contact the health care provider if there is evidence of worsening HF.

Answer 25

d) Blood pressure Rationale: The nurse should evaluate the blood pressure before dangling the patient on the bedside because the blood pressure can decrease as blood pools in the periphery and preload decreases. If the patient’s blood pressure is low or marginal, the nurse should put the patient in the semi-Fowler’s position and use other measures to improve gas exchange.

Answer 26

c) Serum potassium level Rationale: Serum potassium should be monitored because hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Changes in prothrombin time, urine specific gravity, and hemoglobin or hematocrit would not require holding the digoxin dose.

Answer 27

c) Right-sided HF Rationale: An MI is a primary cause of heart failure. The jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and increased heart rate are manifestations of right-sided heart failure.

Answer 28

a) Left ventricular function is documented d) Prescription for angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor at discharge e) Education materials about activity, medications, weight monitoring, and what to do if symptoms worsen Rationale: The Joint Commission has identified these 3 core measures for heart failure patients. Although controlling dysrhythmias will improve CO and workload, it will not eliminate HF. Prescribing digoxin for all HF patients is no longer done because there are newer effective drugs and digoxin toxicity occurs easily related to electrolyte levels and the therapeutic range must be maintained.

Answer 29

d) Choose interventions to promote comfort and prevent suffering. Rationale: The central focus of hospice care is the promotion of comfort and the prevention of suffering. Patient education should continue, but providing comfort is paramount. Medications should be continued unless they are not tolerated. Experimental therapies and surgeries are not used in the care of hospice patients.

Answer 30

a) Administer ordered morphine sulfate. b) Position patient in a semi-Fowler’s position. d) Instruct patient on the use of relaxation techniques. e) Use a calm, reassuring approach while talking to patient. Rationale: Morphine sulfate reduces anxiety and may assist in reducing dyspnea. The patient should be positioned in semi-Fowler’s position to improve ventilation that will reduce anxiety. Relaxation techniques and a calm reassuring approach will also serve to reduce anxiety.

Answer 31

b) Reduction of preload. Rationale: Diuretics such as furosemide are used in the treatment of heart failure to mobilize edematous fluid, reduce pulmonary venous pressure, and reduce preload. They do not directly influence afterload, contractility, or vessel tone.

Answer 32

b) Severe dyspnea and blood-streaked, frothy sputum Rationale: Manifestations of pulmonary edema include anxiety, pallor, cyanosis, clammy and cold skin, severe dyspnea, use of accessory muscles of respiration, a respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths/min, orthopnea, wheezing, and coughing with the production of frothy, blood-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs may reveal crackles, wheezes, and rhonchi throughout the lungs. The heart rate is rapid, and blood pressure may be elevated or decreased.

Answer 33

a) Ventricular fibrillation Rationale: Defibrillation is always indicated in the treatment of ventricular fibrillation. Drug treatments are normally used in the treatment of uncontrolled atrial fibrillation and for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse (if the patient is stable). Otherwise, synchronized cardioversion is used (if the patient has a pulse). Pacemakers are the treatment of choice for third-degree heart block.

Answer 34

d) “I can expect redness and swelling of the incision site for a few days.” Rationale: Patients should be taught to report any signs of infection at incision site (e.g., redness, swelling, drainage) or fever to their primary care providers immediately. Teach patients to inform TSA airport security of the presence of the ICD because it may set off metal detectors. If a handheld screening wand is used, it should not be placed directly over the ICD. Teach patients to avoid standing near antitheft devices in doorways of stores and public buildings and to walk through them at a normal pace. Caregivers should learn cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Answer 35

b) Adenosine Rationale: IV adenosine is the first drug of choice to convert supraventricular tachycardia to a normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is administered IV rapidly (over 1 or 2 seconds) followed by a rapid, normal saline flush. The nurse should monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram continuously because a brief period of asystole after adenosine administration is common and expected. Atropine sulfate increases heart rate, while lanoxin and metoprolol slow the heart rate.

Answer 36

d) “The device delivers a current through your skin that can be uncomfortable.” Rationale: Before initiating transcutaneous pacing therapy, it is important to tell the patient what to expect. The nurse should explain that the muscle contractions created by the pacemaker when the current passes through the chest wall are uncomfortable. Pacing for complete heart block will not convert the heart rhythm to normal. Overdrive pacing is used for very fast heart rates. Transcutaneous pacing is delivered through pacing pads adhered to the skin.

Answer 37

c) Rate 200 beats/min; P wave not visible Rationale: VT is associated with a rate of 150 to 250 beats/min; the P wave is not normally visible. Rate and rhythm are not measurable in ventricular fibrillation. P wave inversion and a normal QRS complex are not associated with VT.

Answer 38

c) 100 beats/min Rationale: Because each small block on the ECG paper represents 0.04 seconds, 1500 of these blocks represents 1 minute. By dividing the number of small blocks (15, in this case) into 1500, the nurse can calculate the heart rate in a patient whose rhythm is regular (in this case, 100).

Answer 39

b) Synchronized cardioversion Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is planned for a patient with supraventricular tachydysrhythmias (atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response). Defibrillation or AEDs are the treatment of choice to end ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT). An ICD is used with patients who have survived sudden cardiac death, have spontaneous sustained VT, and are at high risk for future life-threatening dysrhythmias.

Answer 40

c) Assessing the incision for any redness, swelling, or discharge Rationale: After pacemaker insertion, it is important for the nurse to observe signs of infection by assessing for any redness, swelling, or discharge from the incision site. The nonpressure dressing is kept dry until removed, usually 24 hours postoperatively. It is important for the patient to limit activity of the involved arm to minimize pacemaker lead displacement.

Answer 41

b) Third-degree heart block Rationale: Third-degree heart block represents a loss of communication between the atrium and ventricles from atrioventricular node dissociation. This is depicted on the rhythm strip as no relationship between the P waves (representing atrial contraction) and QRS complexes (representing ventricular contraction). Whereas the atria are beating totally on their own at 70 beats/min, the ventricles are pacing themselves at 40 beats/min. Sinus dysrhythmia is seen with a slower heart rate with exhalation and an increased heart rate with inhalation. In Wenckebach heart block, there is a gradual lengthening of the PR interval until an atrial impulse is nonconducted and a QRS complex is blocked or missing. Premature ventricular contractions are the early occurrence of a wide, distorted QRS complex.

Answer 42

c) The length of time for the electrical impulse to travel from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the Purkinje fibers. Rationale: The electrical impulse in the heart must travel from the SA node through the AV node and into the Purkinje fibers in order for synchronous atrial and ventricular contraction to occur. When measuring the PR interval (the time from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS), the nurse is identifying the length of time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the Purkinje fibers. The P wave represents the length of time it takes for the impulse to travel from the SA node through the atrium, causing depolarization of the atria (atrial contraction). Atrial repolarization occurs during ventricular depolarization and is hidden by the QRS complex. The length of time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node is the flat line between the end of the P wave and the beginning of the Q wave on the ECG and is not usually measured.

Answer 43

b) Atrial fibrillation Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is represented on the cardiac monitor by irregular R-R intervals and small fibrillatory (f) waves. There are no normal P waves because the atria are not truly contracting, just fibrillating. Sinus tachycardia is a sinus rate above 100 beats/min with normal P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is seen on the ECG without a visible P wave; an unmeasurable heart rate, PR or QRS; and the rhythm is irregular and chaotic. Ventricular tachycardia is seen as three or more premature ventricular contractions that have distorted QRS complexes with regular or irregular rhythm, and the P wave is usually buried in the QRS complex without a measurable PR interval.

Answer 44

c) Too much hair under the electrodes Rationale: Artifact is caused by muscle activity, electrical interference, or insecure leads and electrodes that could be caused by excessive chest wall hair. Disabled automaticity would cause an atrial dysrhythmia. Electrodes in the wrong lead will measure electricity in a different plane of the heart and may have a different wave form than expected. Stimulation of the vagus nerve fibers causes a decrease in heart rate, not artifact.

Answer 45

a) Sinus tachycardia Rationale: This rhythm strip shows sinus tachycardia because the rate on this strip is above 101 beats/min, and it displays normal P wave, PR interval, and QRS complex. Sinus bradycardia would look similar to sinus tachycardia but with a rate less than 60 beats/min. Ventricular fibrillation does not have a measureable heart rate, PR interval, or QRS. The P wave is not visible, and the rhythm is irregular and chaotic. Ventricular tachycardia has a rate of 150 to 250 beats/min, with a regular or irregular rhythm and P waves occurring independently of the QRS complex.

Answer 46

c) A 52-yr-old man with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) at a rate of 12 per minute Rationale: Frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) (>1 every 10 beats) may reduce the cardiac output and precipitate angina and heart failure, depending on their frequency. Because PVCs in CAD or acute myocardial infarction indicate ventricular irritability, the patient’s physiologic response to PVCs must be monitored. Frequent PVCs may be treated with oxygen therapy, electrolyte replacement, or antidysrhythmic agents.

Answer 47

a) First-degree AV block Rationale: In first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, there is prolonged duration of AV conduction that lengthens the PR interval above 0.20 seconds. In type I second-degree AV block, the PR interval continues to increase in duration until a QRS complex is blocked. In type II, the PR interval may be normal or prolonged, the ventricular rhythm may be irregular, and the QRS is usually greater than 0.12 seconds. PACs cause an irregular rhythm with a different-shaped P wave than the rest of the beats, and the PR interval may be shorter or longer. PVCs cause an irregular rhythm, and the QRS complex is wide and distorted in shape.

Answer 48

c) Turn the synchronizer switch to the “off” position and recharge the device. Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation produces no effective cardiac contractions or cardiac output. If during synchronized cardioversion the patient becomes pulseless or the rhythm deteriorates to ventricular fibrillation, the nurse should turn the synchronizer switch off and initiate defibrillation. Fluids, additional assessment, or treatment of pain alone will not restore an effective heart rhythm.

Answer 49

b) “I cannot fly because it will damage the ICD.” Rationale: The patient statement that flying will damage the ICD indicates misunderstanding about flying. The patient should be taught to inform TSA security screening agents at the airport about the ICD because it may set off the metal detector and if a hand-held screening wand is used, it should not be placed directly over the ICD. The other options indicate the patient understands the teaching.

Answer 50

a) Preparing to assist with a head-up tilt-test Rationale: In patients without structural heart disease, the head-up tilt-test is a common component of the diagnostic workup after episodes of syncope. IV β-blockers are not indicated, although an IV infusion of low-dose isoproterenol may be started in an attempt to provoke a response if the head-up tilt-test did not have a response. Addressing pacemakers is premature and inappropriate at this stage of diagnosis. Patient teaching surrounding antiplatelet aggregators is not directly relevant to the patient’s syncope at this time.

Answer 51

c) Epinephrine or vasopressin Rationale: Normally, the patient in asystole cannot be successfully resuscitated. However, administration of epinephrine or vasopressin may prompt the return of depolarization and ventricular contraction. Lidocaine and amiodarone are used for ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin and procainamide are used for ventricular rate control. β-Adrenergic blockers are used to slow heart rate, and dopamine is used to increase heart rate.

Answer 52

b) Myocardial ischemia Rationale: The ST depression and T wave inversion on the ECG of a patient diagnosed with ACS indicate myocardial ischemia from inadequate supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Myocardial injury is identified with ST-segment elevation. Myocardial infarction is identified with ST-segment elevation and a widened and deep Q wave. A pacemaker’s presence is evident on the ECG by a spike leading to depolarization and contraction.

Answer 53

d) Positron emission tomography (PET) Rationale: PET is used to distinguish benign and malignant pulmonary nodules. Because malignant lung cells have an increased uptake of glucose, the PET scan (which uses an IV radioactive glucose preparation) can demonstrate increased uptake of glucose in malignant lung cells. This differentiation cannot be made using CT, a pulmonary angiogram, or thoracentesis.

Answer 54

b) Pneumothorax Rationale: Because thoracentesis involves the introduction of a catheter into the pleural space, there is a risk of pneumothorax. Thoracentesis does not carry a significant potential for causing bronchospasm, pulmonary edema, or respiratory acidosis.

Answer 55

b) Artifact Rationale: Motion is the most likely cause of the low SpO2 for this patient with Parkinson’s disease. Anemia, dark skin color, and thick acrylic nails as well as low perfusion, bright fluorescent lights, and intravascular dyes may also cause an inaccurate pulse oximetry result. There is no mention of these or reason to suspect these in this question.

Answer 56

c) Coarse crackles Rationale: Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds caused by air passing through an airway intermittently occluded by mucus, an unstable bronchial wall, or a fold of mucosa. Coarse crackles are evident on inspiration and at times expiration. Stridor is a continuous crowing sound of constant pitch from partial obstruction of larynx or trachea. Vesicular sounds are relatively soft, low-pitched, gentle, rustling sounds. They are heard over all lung areas except the major bronchi. Bronchovesicular sounds are normal sounds heard anteriorly over the mainstem bronchi on either side of the sternum and posteriorly between the scapulae with a medium pitch and intensity.

Answer 57

a) Fingernails Rationale: Clubbing, a sign of long-standing hypoxemia, is evidenced by an increase in the angle between the base of the nail and fingernail to 180 degrees or more, usually accompanied by an increase in the depth, bulk, and sponginess of the end of the finger.

Answer 58

d) Decreased respiratory defense mechanisms Rationale: Aspiration occurs more easily in the older patient related to decreased respiratory defense mechanisms (e.g., decreases in immunity, ciliary function, cough force, sensation in pharynx). Changes of aging include a decreased response to hypercapnia, decreased number of functional alveoli, and increased calcification of costal cartilage, but these do not increase the risk of aspiration.

Answer 59

a) Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis Rationale: With inadequate oxygenation, early manifestations include restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, decreased urinary output, and unexplained fatigue. Unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis; combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased urinary output; coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue are later manifestations of inadequate oxygenation.

Answer 60

b) 5 minutes Rationale: After obtaining blood for an arterial blood gas measurement, the nurse should hold pressure on the puncture site for 5 minutes by the clock to be sure that bleeding has stopped. An artery is an elastic vessel under much higher pressure than veins, and significant blood loss or hematoma formation could occur if the time is insufficient.

Answer 61

a) Cyanosis d) Accessory muscle use Rationale: Tripod position and accessory muscle use indicate moderate to severe respiratory distress. Cyanosis may be related to anemia, decreased oxygen transfer in the lungs, or decreased cardiac output. Therefore, it is a nonspecific and unreliable indicator of only respiratory distress. Kussmaul respirations occur when the patient is in metabolic acidosis to increase CO2 excretion. Increased AP diameter occurs with lung hyperinflation from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, cystic fibrosis, or with advanced age.

Answer 62

b) atelectasis. Rationale: After surgery, there is an increased risk for atelectasis from anesthesia as well as restricted breathing from pain. Without deep breathing to stretch the alveoli, surfactant secretion to hold the alveoli open is not promoted. Pneumonia will occur later after surgery. Pleural effusion occurs because of blockage of lymphatic drainage or an imbalance between intravascular and oncotic fluid pressures, which is not expected in this case.

Answer 63

b) Cough sound, sputum production, pattern Rationale: The sound of the cough, sputum production and description, and the pattern of the cough’s occurrence (including acute or chronic) and what its occurrence is related to are the first assessments to be made to determine the severity. Frequency of the cough will not provide a lot of information. Family history can help to determine a genetic cause of the cough. Hematemesis is vomiting blood and not as important as hemoptysis. Smoking is an important risk factor for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and lung cancer and may cause a cough. Medications may or may not contribute to a cough as does residence location. Weight loss, activity intolerance, and orthopnea may be related to respiratory or cardiac problems but are not as important when dealing with a cough.

Answer 64

a) Monitor the patient for laryngeal edema. Rationale: Priorities for assessment are the patient’s airway and breathing, both of which may be compromised after bronchoscopy by laryngeal edema. These assessment parameters supersede the importance of loss of consciousness (LOC), pain, heart rate, and blood pressure, although the nurse should also be assessing these.

Answer 65

a) Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds Rationale: Important assessments obtained during a focused respiratory assessment include auscultation of lung (breath) sounds. Assessment of tactile fremitus has limited value in acute respiratory distress. It is not necessary to assess for both anterior and posterior chest expansion. Percussion of the chest wall is not essential in a focused respiratory assessment.

Answer 66

c) Arterial blood gases Rationale: Arterial blood gases are used to assess the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung and tissue oxygenation as is pulse oximetry. Thoracentesis is used to obtain specimens for diagnostic evaluation, remove pleural fluid, or instill medication into the pleural space. Bronchoscopy is used for diagnostic purposes, to obtain biopsy specimens, and to assess changes resulting from treatment. Pulmonary function tests measure lung volumes and airflow to diagnose pulmonary disease, monitor disease progression, evaluate disability, and evaluate response to bronchodilators.

Answer 67

a) Bases of the posterior chest area Rationale: Baseline data with the most information is best obtained by auscultation of the posterior chest, especially in female patients because of breast tissue interfering with the assessment or if the patient may tire easily (e.g., shortness of breath, dyspnea, weakness, fatigue). Usually auscultation proceeds from the lung apices to the bases unless it is possible the patient will tire easily. In this case, the nurse should start at the bases.

Answer 68

c) A 72-yr-old patient who has four new premature ventricular contractions per minute. Rationale: Early clinical manifestations of hypoxemia include dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions), unexplained decreased level of consciousness (e.g., disorientation), dyspnea on exertion, and unexplained decreased urine output.

Answer 69

d) Increased respiratory rate Rationale: When a patient with type 1 diabetes has hyperglycemia and ketonemia causing metabolic acidosis, the physiologic response is to increase the respiratory rate and tidal volume to blow off the excess CO2. Vomiting and increased urination may occur with hyperglycemia, but not as physiologic responses to metabolic acidosis. The heart rate will increase.

Answer 70

c) “Fine crackles posterior right and left lower lung fields.” Rationale: Fine crackles are described as a series of short-duration, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of inspiration.

Answer 71

c) 11-mm area of induration at the TST injection site Rationale: An area of induration 10 mm or larger would be a positive reaction in a person with end-stage renal disease. Reddened, flat areas do not indicate a positive reaction. A wheal appears when the TST is administered that indicates correct administration of the intradermal antigen. Presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum indicates active tuberculosis.

Answer 72

c) Tracheal deviation to the left Rationale: Tracheal deviation is a medical emergency when it is caused by a tension pneumothorax. Tactile fremitus increases with pneumonia or pulmonary edema and decreases in pleural effusion or lung hyperinflation. Diminished chest movement occurs with barrel chest, restrictive disease, and neuromuscular disease.

Answer 73

a) Is it hard for you to fall asleep? b) Do you awaken abruptly during the night? d) Do you need to sleep with the head elevated? Rationale: A patient with obstructive sleep apnea may have insomnia, abrupt awakenings, or both. Patients with cardiovascular disease (e.g., heart failure that may affect respiratory health) may need to sleep with the head elevated on several pillows (orthopnea). Sleeping more than 8 hours per night or needing to urinate during the night is not indicative of impaired respiratory health.

Answer 74

a) Sudden onset of confusion Rationale: Confusion or stupor (related to hypoxia) may be the only clinical manifestation of pneumonia in an older adult patient. An elevated temperature, coarse crackles, and pleuritic chest pain with guarding may occur with pneumonia, but these symptoms do not indicate hypoxia.

Answer 75

c) Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing Rationale: If the dressing at the CT insertion site is loose, an air leak will occur and will need to be sealed. The water-seal chamber usually has 2 cm of water. Having more water will not contribute to an air leak, and it should not be drained from the CDS. No new drainage does not indicate an air leak but may indicate the CT is no longer needed. If there is a pneumothorax, the chest tube should remove the air.

Answer 76

b) Mucociliary clearance Rationale: Smoking decreases the ciliary action in the tracheobronchial tree, resulting in impaired clearance of respiratory secretions and particles, chronic cough, and frequent respiratory infections.

Answer 77

c) Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. Rationale: A sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain to identify the organism should be obtained before beginning antibiotic therapy. However, antibiotic administration should not be delayed if a specimen cannot be readily obtained because delays in antibiotic therapy can increase morbidity and mortality risks.

Answer 78

c) Obtain a provider’s order for supplemental oxygen. Rationale: An oxygen saturation level that drops below 90% with activity indicates that the patient is not tolerating the exercise and needs to use supplemental oxygen. The patient will need to rest to resaturate. ABGs or moving the probe will not be needed as the pulse oximeter was working at the beginning of the walk.

Answer 79

b) “The medicine will be prescribed for 10 days.” Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is administered for 10 to 14 days and prevents future clotting but does not dissolve existing clots. Fibrinolytic agents (e.g., tissue plasminogen activator or alteplase) dissolve an existing clot. Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously by injection into the abdomen.

Answer 80

c) Positioning patient with “good lung” down Rationale: Therapeutic positioning identifies the best position for the patient, thus assuring stable oxygenation status. Research indicates that positioning the patient with the unaffected lung (good lung) dependent best promotes oxygenation in patients with unilateral lung disease. For bilateral lung disease, the right lung down has best ventilation and perfusion. Increasing fluid intake and performing postural drainage will facilitate airway clearance, but positioning is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation.

Answer 81

a) IV antibiotic therapy will be started as soon as possible. Rationale: IV antibiotics are used until the patient and radiographs show evidence of improvement. Then oral antibiotics are used for a prolonged period of time. Culture and sensitivity testing is done during the course of antibiotic therapy to ensure that the infecting organism is not becoming resistant to the antibiotic as well as at the completion of the antibiotic therapy. Lobectomy surgery is only needed when reinfection of a large cavitary lesion occurs or to establish a diagnosis when there is evidence of a neoplasm or other underlying problem.

Answer 82

a) Maintain adequate fluid intake. c) Splint the chest when coughing. e) Teach the patient to cough at end of exhalation. Rationale: Maintaining adequate fluid intake liquefies secretions, allowing easier expectoration. The nurse should teach the patient to splint the chest while coughing. This will reduce discomfort and allow for a more effective cough. Coughing at the end of exhalation promotes a more effective cough. Incentive spirometry promotes lung expansion. The patient should be positioned in an upright sitting position (high Fowler’s) with head slightly flexed.

Answer 83

a) Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. Rationale: The patient has a sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax). Air enters the pleural space through the chest wall during inspiration. Emergency treatment consists of covering the wound with an occlusive dressing that is secured on three sides. During inspiration, the dressing pulls against the wound, preventing air from entering the pleural space. During expiration, the dressing is pushed out and air escapes through the wound and from under the dressing.

Answer 84

b) A 26-yr-old patient with continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube Rationale: Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and nasogastric intubation with or without enteral nutrition. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Dysphasia is difficulty with speech. Absent bowel sounds and coarse crackles do not increase the risk for aspiration.

Answer 85

d) Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Rationale: Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions.

Answer 86

d) “I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia’s resolution.” Rationale: The follow-up chest x-ray examination will be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate pneumonia resolution. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. It may be important for the patient to continue with coughing and deep breathing exercises for 6 to 8 weeks, not 12 weeks, until all the infection has cleared from the lungs. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions.

Answer 87

b) Sputum culture and sensitivity Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering the cefuroxime because this is community-acquired pneumonia. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before the antibiotic takes effect. The test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, orthostatic blood pressures, pulmonary function evaluation, and serum laboratory tests will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics.

Answer 88

a) Pneumococcal Rationale: The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 years or older, or living in a long-term care facility. A S. aureus vaccine has been researched but not yet been effective. The H. influenzae vaccine would not be recommended as adults do not need it unless they are immunocompromised. The BCG vaccine is for infants in parts of the world where tuberculosis is prevalent.

Answer 89

d) Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress. Rationale: Because the patient is having respiratory difficulty, the nurse should ask specific questions about this episode and perform a physical assessment of this system. Further history taking and physical examination of other body systems can proceed when the patient’s acute respiratory distress is being managed.

Answer 90

c) Increased vocal fremitus on palpation Rationale: A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased vocal fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include bronchial breath sounds, egophony, and crackles in the affected area. With pleural effusion, there may be dullness to percussion over the affected area.

Answer 91

d) Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity. Rationale: The VATS procedure uses minimally invasive incisions that cause less discomfort and allow faster healing and return to normal activity as well as lower morbidity risk and fewer complications. Many surgeries can be done for lung cancer, but pneumonectomy via thoracotomy is the most common surgery for lung cancer. The incision for a thoracotomy is commonly a medial sternotomy or a lateral approach. A chest tube will be needed postoperatively for VATS.

Answer 92

a) Antibiotic Rationale: Pertussis, unlike acute bronchitis, is caused by a gram-negative bacillus, Bordetella pertussis, which must be treated with antibiotics. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are not helpful in reducing symptoms. Cough suppressants and antihistamines are ineffective and may induce coughing episodes with pertussis.

Answer 93

d) Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen. Rationale: The patient’s clinical picture is most likely pulmonary embolus, and the first action the nurse takes should be to assist with the patient’s respirations. For this reason, the nurse should sit the patient up as tolerated and apply oxygen before notifying the health care provider. The nitroglycerin tablet would not be helpful, and the oxygenation status is a bigger problem than the slight chest pain at this time.

Answer 94

d) Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS) Rationale: BOS is a manifestation of chronic rejection and is characterized by airflow obstruction progressing over time with a gradual onset of exertional dyspnea, nonproductive cough, wheezing, and/or low-grade fever. Pulmonary infarction occurs with lack of blood flow to the bronchial tissue or preexisting lung disease. With pulmonary hypertension, the pulmonary pressures are elevated and can be idiopathic or secondarily due to parenchymal lung disease that causes anatomic or vascular changes leading to pulmonary hypertension. CMV pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection 1 to 4 months after lung transplant.

Answer 95

a) A temperature of 101.4° F b) Heart rate of 120 beats/min d) A productive cough with yellow sputum Rationale: A fever is an inflammatory response related to the infectious process. A productive cough with discolored sputum (which should be clear) is an indication that the patient has pneumonia. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is within normal range. Inability to have a bowel movement is not related to a diagnosis of pneumonia. A heart rate of 120 beats/min indicates that there is increased metabolism due to the fever and is related to the diagnosis of pneumonia.

Answer 96

c) “I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won’t get it.” Rationale: The patient with an opportunistic fungal infection does not need to be isolated because it is not transmitted from person to person. This immunocompromised patient will be likely to have a serious infection so it will be treated with IV amphotericin B. The effectiveness of the therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers.

Answer 97

a) Cancer b) Obesity d) Cigarette smoking e) Prolonged air travel Rationale: An increased risk of pulmonary embolism is associated with obesity, cancer, heavy cigarette smoking, and prolonged air travel with reduced mobility. Other risk factors include deep vein thrombosis, immobilization, and surgery within the previous 3 months, oral contraceptives and hormone therapy, heart failure, pregnancy, and clotting disorders.

Answer 98

a) Basilar crackles Rationale: The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with impaired airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with other lower respiratory problems.

Answer 99

a) Asbestos exposure b) Exposure to uranium d) History of cigarette smoking Rationale: Non–small cell cancer is associated with cigarette smoking and exposure to environmental carcinogens, including asbestos and uranium. Chronic interstitial fibrosis is associated with the development of adenocarcinoma of the lung. Exposure to cancer-causing substances in the geographic area where the patient has lived for some time may be a risk but not necessarily where the patient was born.

Answer 100

a) Albuterol Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that should be given initially when the patient has an asthma attack. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist, which is not used for acute asthma attacks. Beclomethasone (Qvar) is a corticosteroid inhaler and not recommended for an acute asthma attack. Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic agent that is less effective than β2-adrenergic agonists. It may be used in an emergency with a patient unable to tolerate short-acting β2-adrenergic agonists (SABAs).

Answer 101

c) Increased peak flow readings Rationale: Ipratropium is a bronchodilator that should result in increased peak expiratory flow rates.

Answer 102

b) Venturi mask Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers precise concentrations of oxygen and should be selected whenever this is a priority concern. The other methods are less precise in terms of amount of oxygen delivered.

Answer 103

a) “Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly.” Rationale: The patient should be instructed to tightly close the lips around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly to ensure the medicine moves down deeply into the lungs. Dry powder inhalers do not require spacer devices. The patient may not taste or sense the medicine going into the lungs.

Answer 104

d) LPN/VN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results. Rationale: It is not within the LPN scope to change oxygen devices based on analysis of lab results. It is within the scope of practice of the RN to assess, teach, and evaluate. The LPN provides care for stable patients and may adjust oxygen flow rates depending on desired oxygen saturation levels of stable patients. The UAP may obtain oxygen saturation levels, assist patients with comfort adjustment of oxygen devices, and report changes in patient’s level of consciousness or difficulty breathing.

Answer 105

b) A decreased exhaled nitric oxide Rationale: Nitric oxide levels are increased in the breath of people with asthma. A decrease in the exhaled nitric oxide concentration suggests that the treatment may be decreasing the lung inflammation associated with asthma and adherence to treatment. An increase in CO2 levels, decreased white blood cell count, and increased serum bicarbonate levels do not indicate a positive response to treatment in a patient with asthma.

Answer 106

a) Work of breathing Rationale: When the patient does not have sufficient gas exchange to engage in activity, the etiologic factor is often the work of breathing. When patients with asthma do not have effective respirations, they use all available energy to breathe and have little left over for purposeful activity. Fear of suffocation, effects of medications or anxiety, and restlessness are not etiologies for activity intolerance for a patient with asthma.

Answer 107

c) Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing (PLB) prolongs exhalation and prevents bronchiolar collapse and air trapping. PLB is simple and easy to teach and learn. It also gives the patient more control over breathing. Evidence from controlled studies does not support the use of diaphragmatic breathing in patients with COPD. Diaphragmatic breathing results in hyperinflation because of increased fatigue and dyspnea and abdominal paradoxical breathing rather than with normal chest wall motion. Chest physiotherapy (percussion and vibration) is used primarily for patients with excessive bronchial secretions who have difficulty clearing them. Huff coughing is a technique that helps patients with COPD to use a forced expiratory technique to clear secretions.

Answer 108

b) Keep track of the number of inhalations used. Rationale: It is no longer appropriate to see if a canister floats in water or not because this is not an accurate way to determine the remaining inhaler doses. The best method to determine when to replace an inhaler is by knowing the maximum puffs available per MDI and then replacing it after the number of days when those inhalations have been used (100 puffs/2 puffs each day = 50 days).

Answer 109

c) Effective and productive coughing Rationale: Airway clearance is most directly evaluated as successful if the patient can engage in effective and productive coughing. Absence of dyspnea, improved mental status, and PaO2 within normal range for the patient show improved respiratory status but do not evaluate airway clearance.

Answer 110

c) Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. Rationale: The patient must take pancreatic enzymes before each meal and snack and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins should be eaten. Fat-soluble vitamins are needed because they are malabsorbed with the excess mucus in the gastrointestinal system. Insulin may be needed, but there is no longer a diabetic diet, and this is not priority information at this time. DIOS develops in the terminal ileum and is treated with balanced polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (MiraLAX) to thin bowel contents.

Answer 111

a) “Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF.” Rationale: The diagnostic criteria for CF involve a combination of clinical presentation, sweat chloride testing, and genetic testing to confirm the diagnosis. Values above 60 mmol/L for sweat chloride are consistent with the diagnosis of CF. However, a second sweat chloride test is recommended to confirm the diagnosis, unless genetic testing identifies a CF mutation. Genetic testing is used if the results from a sweat chloride test are unclear.

Answer 112

d) “You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia.” Rationale: Long-term oxygen therapy in the home will not be considered until the oxygen saturation is less than or equal to 88% and the patient has signs of tissue hypoxia, such as cor pulmonale, erythrocytosis, or impaired mental status. PaO2 less than 55 mm Hg will also allow home oxygen therapy to be considered.

Answer 113

c) Systemic corticosteroids Rationale: Systemic corticosteroids speed the resolution of asthma exacerbations and are indicated if the initial response to the β-adrenergic bronchodilator is insufficient. IV fluids may be used but not to improve ventilation. Biofeedback therapy and pulmonary function testing may be used after recovery to assist the patient and monitor the asthma.

Answer 114

b) More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing.” Rationale: A spacer assists more medication to reach the lungs, with less being deposited in the mouth and the back of the throat. It does not affect the cost or increase the speed of using the inhaler.

Answer 115

b) Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls Rationale: In COPD, structural changes include hyperinflation of alveoli, destruction of alveolar walls, destruction of alveolar capillary walls, narrowing of small airways, and loss of lung elasticity. An autosomal recessive deficiency of antitrypsin may cause COPD. Not all patients with COPD have excess mucus production by the increased number of goblet cells.

Answer 116

a) Anxiety Rationale: An early manifestation of an asthma attack is anxiety because the patient is acutely aware of the inability to get sufficient air to breathe. He will be hypoxic early on with decreased PaCO2 and increased pH as he is hyperventilating. If cyanosis occurs, it is a later sign. The pulse and blood pressure will be increased.

Answer 117

d) “If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily.” Rationale: The patient should not just keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler to make breathing easier. Excessive treatment could trigger paradoxical bronchospasm, which would worsen the patient’s respiratory status. Rinsing the mouth after the puffs will eliminate a bad taste. Waiting 1 to 2 minutes between each puff will facilitate the effectiveness of the administration. Ipratropium is not used in an emergency for COPD.

Answer 118

c) Fluid volume excess from cor pulmonale Rationale: Cor pulmonale is a right-sided heart failure caused by resistance to right ventricular outflow resulting from lung disease. With failure of the right ventricle, the blood emptying into the right atrium and ventricle would be slowed, leading to jugular venous distention and pedal edema.

Answer 119

c) Evaluating the use of intercostal muscles Rationale: The nurse physically inspects the chest wall to evaluate the use of intercostal (accessory) muscles, which gives an indication of the degree of respiratory distress. The other options may also occur, but they are not the primary reason for inspecting the chest wall of this patient.

Answer 120

c) Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Rationale: Adequate hydration helps to liquefy secretions and thus make it easier to remove them. Unless there are contraindications, the nurse should teach the patient to drink at least 3 L of fluid daily. Although nutrition, breathing exercises, and antibiotics may be indicated, these interventions will not liquefy or thin secretions. Antitussives may reduce the urge to cough and clear sputum, increasing congestion. Expectorants may be used to liquefy and facilitate clearing secretions.

Answer 121

a) Exercise b) Allergies c) Emotional stress e) Upper respiratory infections Rationale: Although the exact mechanism of asthma is unknown, there are several triggers that may precipitate an attack. These include allergens, exercise, air pollutants, upper respiratory infections, drug and food additives, stress, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

Answer 122

b) Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Rationale: Because the patient with COPD needs to use greater energy to breathe, there is often decreased oral intake because of dyspnea. A full stomach also impairs the ability of the diaphragm to descend during inspiration, thus interfering with the work of breathing. For these reasons, the patient with COPD should eat 6 small meals per day taking in a high-calorie, high-protein diet, with nonprotein calories divided evenly between fat and carbohydrate. The other interventions will not increase the patient’s caloric intake.

Answer 123

a) Wheezing becomes louder. Rationale: The primary problem during an exacerbation of asthma is narrowing of the airway and subsequent diminished air exchange. As the airways begin to dilate, wheezing gets louder because of better air exchange. Vesicular breath sounds will increase with improved respiratory status. After a severe asthma exacerbation, the cough may be productive and stringy. Coughing after aerosol bronchodilators may indicate a problem with the inhaler or its use.

Answer 124

c) Decreased alveolar macrophage function. Rationale: The damage to the lungs includes alveolar macrophage dysfunction that increases the incidence of infections and thus increases patient discomfort and cost to treat the infections. Other lung damage that contributes to infections includes cilia paralysis or destruction, increased mucus secretion, and bronchospasms that lead to sputum accumulation and increased cough. The patient may already be aware of respiratory mucosa damage with hoarseness and decreased sense of smell and taste, but these do not increase the incidence of pulmonary infection.

Answer 125

c) Narrowing of the airway Rationale: Narrowing of the airway by persistent but variable inflammation leads to reduced airflow, making it difficult for the patient to breathe and producing the characteristic wheezing. Laryngospasm, pulmonary edema, and overdistention of the alveoli do not produce wheezing.

Answer 126

b) Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Rationale: Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness are common adverse effects from the use of inhaled corticosteroids because the medication can lead to overgrowth of organisms and local irritation if the patient does not rinse the mouth following each dose.

Answer 127

d) Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min. Rationale: The patient will benefit from mild aerobic exercise that does not stress the cardiorespiratory system. The patient should be encouraged to walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 75% to 80% of maximum heart rate (220—patient’s age).

Answer 128

d) Rinse the mouth with water after the second puff of medication. Rationale: Because beclomethasone is a corticosteroid, the patient should rinse the mouth with water after the second puff of medication to reduce the risk of fungal overgrowth and oral infection.

Answer 129

c) Pulse rate of 72 beats/min Rationale: Albuterol is a β2-agonist that can sometimes cause adverse cardiovascular effects. These would include tachycardia and angina. A pulse rate of 72 beats/min indicates that the patient does not have tachycardia as an adverse effect.

Answer 130

c) Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation Rationale: The purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to slow down the exhalation phase of respiration, which decreases bronchial collapse and subsequent air trapping in the lungs during exhalation. It does not affect secretions, inhalation, or increase the rate of breathing.

Answer 131

b) Daily weight Rationale: Corticosteroids such as prednisone can lead to weight gain. For this reason, it is important to monitor the patient’s daily weight. The drug should not affect the apical pulse, bowel sounds, or deep tendon reflexes.

Answer 132

b) “Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler.” Rationale: It is important to breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler. This allows the patient to take a deeper breath while inhaling the medication, thus enhancing the effectiveness of the dose. The inhaler should be shaken well. A spacer may be used. Holding the breath after the inhalation of medication helps keep the medication in the lungs, but 30 seconds will not be possible for a patient with COPD.

Answer 133

a) Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. Rationale: It is important to keep track of peak flow readings daily, especially when the patient’s symptoms are getting worse. The patient should have specific directions as to when to call the provider based on personal peak flow numbers. Peak flow is measured by exhaling into the flowmeter and should be assessed before and after medications to evaluate their effectiveness.

Answer 134

a) Increasing dyspnea Rationale: The significant manifestations to report to the health care provider include increasing dyspnea, fever, chills, increased sputum production, bloody sputum, and chest pain. Although drinking at least 3 L of low-sodium fluid will help liquefy secretions to make them easier to expectorate, the health care provider does not need to be notified if the patient cannot do this one day.

Answer 135

c) High Fowler’s Rationale: The patient experiencing an asthma attack should be placed in high Fowler’s position and may need to lean forward to allow for optimal chest expansion and enlist the aid of gravity during inspiration. The supine, lithotomy, and reverse Trendelenburg positions will not facilitation ventilation.

Answer 136

a) Arterial pH 7.26 Rationale: The patient’s pH shows acidosis that supports an exacerbation of COPD along with the worsening dyspnea. The PaCO2 has improved from baseline, the tripod position helps the patient’s breathing, and the increase in sputum expectoration will improve the patient’s ventilation.

Answer 137

b) “I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler.” Rationale: Fluticasone may cause oral candidiasis (thrush). The patient should rinse the mouth with water or mouthwash after use or use a spacer device to prevent oral fungal infections. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid and it may take 2 weeks of regular use for effects to be evident. This medication is not recommended for an acute asthma attack.

Answer 138

b) Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Rationale: The nurse should not expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe because it should be injected to clear the needle of medication and avoid leaving medication in the needle track in the tissue.

Answer 139

c) Improved finger perfusion Rationale: Raynaud’s phenomenon is an episodic vasospastic disorder of small cutaneous arteries, most frequently involving the fingers and toes. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes smooth muscles of the arterioles by blocking the influx of calcium into the cells, thus reducing the frequency and severity of vasospastic attacks. Perfusion to the fingertips is improved, and vasospastic attacks are reduced. Diltiazem may decrease heart rate and blood pressure, but that is not the purpose in Raynaud’s phenomenon. Skin turgor is most often a reflection of hydration status.

Answer 140

a) Ramipril (Altace) c) Simvastatin (Zocor) d) Clopidogrel (Plavix) f) Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (e.g., ramipril [Altace]) are used to control hypertension. Statins (e.g., simvastatin [Zocor]) are used for lipid management. Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet agent. Clopidogrel may be used if the patient cannot tolerate aspirin. Cilostazol (Pletal) is used for intermittent claudication, but it does not reduce CVD morbidity and mortality risks. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) are not recommended to prevent cardiovascular disease events in PAD patients.

Answer 141

a) Leg pain at rest Rationale: Rest pain occurs as peripheral artery disease (PAD) progresses and involves multiple arterial segments. Compression stockings should not be used on patients with PAD. Elevated blood glucose, possibly indicating uncontrolled diabetes, and hypertension may or may not indicate arterial problems. Dry, itchy, flaky skin indicates venous insufficiency. The RN should be the one to obtain the order and instruct the UAP to apply compression stockings if they are ordered.

Answer 142

a) Vitamin K Rationale: Coumadin is a vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant that could cause excessive bleeding during surgery if clotting times are not corrected before surgery. For this reason, vitamin K is given as the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin).

Answer 143

b) Patient says muscle leg pain occurs with continued exercise. Rationale: Intermittent claudication is an ischemic muscle ache or pain that is precipitated by a consistent level of exercise, resolves within 10 minutes or less with rest, and is reproducible. Angina is the term used to describe chest pain with exertion. Paresthesia is the term used to describe numbness or tingling in the toes or feet. Reactive hyperemia is the term used to describe redness of the foot; if the limb is in a dependent position, the term is dependent rubor.

Answer 144

a) A 70-yr-old man with high cholesterol and hypertension Rationale: The most common cause of descending abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is atherosclerosis. Male gender, age 65 years or older, and tobacco use are the major risk factors for AAAs of atherosclerotic origin. Other risk factors include the presence of coronary or peripheral artery disease, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol.

Answer 145

c) Paresthesia Rationale: The provider must be notified immediately if any of the six Ps of acute arterial ischemia occur to prevent ischemia from quickly progressing to tissue necrosis and gangrene. The six Ps are paresthesia, pain, pallor, pulselessness, and poikilothermia, with paralysis being a very late sign indicating the death of nerves to the extremity. Crampy leg sensation is more common with varicose veins. The pain is not referred.

Answer 146

a) Duplex ultrasound Rationale: The duplex ultrasound is the most widely used test to diagnose VTE. Contrast venography is rarely used now. Magnetic resonance venography is less accurate for calf veins than pelvic and proximal veins. Computed tomography venography may be used but is invasive and much more expensive than the duplex ultrasound.

Answer 147

b) Abdomen, anterior-lateral aspect Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight (LMW) heparin that is given as a deep subcutaneous injection in the right and left anterolateral abdomen. All subcutaneous injections should be given away from scars, lesions, or moles.

Answer 148

d) Bleeding into the abdomen is likely. Rationale: The patient is likely bleeding into the abdominal space, and it is likely to continue without surgical repair. A blockade of the blood flow will not occur in the abdominal space as it would in the retroperitoneal space, where surrounding anatomic structures may control the bleeding. The lack of urine output does not indicate renal artery involvement but that the bleeding is occurring above the renal arteries, which decreases the blood flow to the kidneys. There are no assessment data indicating decreased perfusion to the legs.

Answer 149

b) Hold the medication and record in the electronic medical record. Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin), which the patient has likely been taking before admission for treatment of DVT. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that impairs the ability of the blood to clot. Therefore, it may be necessary to give vitamin K before surgery to reduce the risk of hemorrhage. However, the INR value is normal, and vitamin K is not required, so the medication would be held and recorded in the electronic medical record.

Answer 150

b) High-protein diet Rationale: A patient with a venous ulcer should have a balanced diet with adequate protein, calories, and micronutrients; this type of diet is essential for healing. Nutrients most important for healing include protein, vitamins A and C, and zinc. Foods high in protein (e.g., meat, beans, cheese, tofu), vitamin A (green leafy vegetables), vitamin C (citrus fruits, tomatoes, cantaloupe), and zinc (meat, seafood) must be provided. Restricting fat or calories is not helpful for wound healing or in patients of normal weight. For overweight individuals with no active venous ulcer, a weight-loss diet should be considered.

Answer 151

b) Cold and mottled c) Reports of paresthesia d) Pulse not palpable with Doppler Rationale: Arterial occlusion may result in loss of limb if not timely revascularized. When an artery is occluded, perfusion to the extremity is impaired or absent. On assessment, the nurse would note a cold, mottled extremity with impaired sensation or numbness. The pulse would not be identified, even with a Doppler. In contrast, the nurse would find edema, erythema, and increased warmth in the presence of a venous occlusion (deep vein thrombosis). Capillary refill would be greater than 3 seconds in an arterial occlusion and less than 3 seconds with a venous occlusion.

Answer 152

b) Assist patient to walk several times. Rationale: To avoid blockage of the graft or stent, the patient should walk several times on postoperative day one and subsequent days. Having the patient’s knees flexed for sitting in a chair or in bed increase the risk of venous thrombosis and may place stress on the suture lines.

Answer 153

b) Administer the daily dose of warfarin. Rationale: The therapeutic range for INR is 2.0 to 3.0 for many clinical diagnoses. To maintain therapeutic values, the nurse will administer the medication as ordered. Holding the medication would lower the INR, which would increase the risk of clot formation. Conversely, the higher the INR is, the more prolonged the clotting time. Calling the health care provider is not indicated. Although teaching is important, administering the medication is a higher priority at this time.

Answer 154

d) Teaching the patient the correct use of compression stockings Rationale: CVI requires conscientious and consistent application of compression stockings. Anticoagulants are not necessarily indicated and antibiotics, if required, are typically oral or IV, not topical. The patient should avoid prolonged positioning with the limb in a dependent position.

Answer 155

b) Pain and swelling in a lower extremity Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used to prevent the development of deep vein thromboses (DVTs) in the postoperative period. Pain and swelling in a lower extremity can indicate development of DVT and therefore may signal ineffective medication therapy.

Answer 156

d) Venous thromboembolism Rationale: The manifestations are characteristic of a superficial vein thrombosis. If untreated, the clot may extend to deeper veins, and venous thromboembolism may occur. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, and postthrombotic syndrome are the sequelae of venous thromboembolism.

Answer 157

d) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) Rationale: Unfractionated heparin can be given by continuous IV for VTE treatment. When given IV, heparin requires frequent laboratory monitoring of clotting status as measured by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts can decrease as an adverse reaction to heparin.

Answer 158

b) Smoking Rationale: Smoking is the most significant factor for this patient. PAD is a marker of advanced systemic atherosclerosis. Therefore, tobacco cessation is essential to reduce PAD progression, CVD events, and mortality. Diabetes and hyperuricemia are also risk factors. Being male or Hispanic are not risk factors for PAD.

Answer 159

c) Cerebral or pulmonary emboli Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent thrombi from forming on the walls of the atria during atrial fibrillation. When the medication is terminated, thrombi could again form. If one or more thrombi detach from the atrial wall, they could travel as cerebral emboli from the left atrium or pulmonary emboli from the right atrium.

Answer 160

b) “While you’re still lying in bed in the morning, put on your stockings.” Rationale: The patient with varicose veins should apply stockings in bed before rising in the morning. Stockings should not be worn continuously and should not be removed several times daily. Dangling at the bedside before application is likely to decrease their effectiveness.

Answer 161

a) Remove the patient’s IV catheter. Rationale: The priority intervention for superficial phlebitis is removal of the offending IV catheter. Decreasing the IV rate is insufficient. Anticoagulants are not normally required, and warm, moist heat is often therapeutic.

Answer 162

c) “This medication will help prevent blood clots from forming in your legs until your level of activity, such as walking, returns to normal.” Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent DVTs postoperatively. All other options do not describe the action or purpose of enoxaparin.

Answer 163

b) Use IV fluids to maintain adequate BP. Rationale: The priority is to maintain an adequate blood pressure (BP) (determined by the surgeon) to maintain graft patency. A prolonged low BP may result in graft thrombosis, and hypertension may cause undue stress on arterial anastomoses resulting in leakage of blood or rupture at the suture lines, which is when IV antihypertensives may be used. Renal output will be assessed when the aneurysm repair is above the renal arteries to assess graft patency, not maintain it.

Answer 164

d) Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger before inserting the needle. Rationale: The nurse should gather together or “bunch up” the skin between the thumb and the forefinger before inserting the needle into the subcutaneous tissue. The nurse should not remove the air bubble in the prefilled syringe, aspirate, nor rub the site after injection.

Answer 165

c) Prothrombin time (PT) Rationale: Vitamin K counteracts hypoprothrombinemia and/or reverses the effects of warfarin (Coumadin) and thus decreases the risk of bleeding. High values for either the PT or the international normalized ratio demonstrate the need for this medication.

Exam 3 Lewis Review Questions Flashcards

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