Exam 3 Material Flashcards
(232 cards)
1
Q
virulence
A
__________ is often the sum of bacterial pathogenesis and host response to infection
2
Q
inflammation
A
hyper-activation of ________________ is tissue damaging and associated with disease state
3
Q
true/false: the type of inflammatory response
A
is relatively the same regardless of stimulus
4
Q
endotoxin
A
__________ is released by gram-negative bacilli during growth and after lysis
5
Q
lipid A
A
the inflammatory component of LPS/endotoxin
6
Q
GI tract
A
the family Enterobacteriaceae typically reside where in the body?
7
Q
negative
A
the family Enterobacteriaceae are typically oxidase (positive/negative)
8
Q
facultative anaerobes
A
what are the oxygen requirements of the family Enterobacteriaceae?
9
Q
glucose
A
all Enterobacteriaceae ferment ____________, but only some ferment lactose
10
Q
TSI agar (triple sugar iron)
A
agar used to differentiate between enteric bacteria based on the ability to reduce sulfur and ferment carbohydrates
11
Q
yellow
A
phenol red turns (red/yellow) at a low pH, indicating fermentation
12
Q
black
A
_____________ precipitate on TSI agar indicates sulfur utilization
13
Q
macconkey agar (bile salts + crystal violet)
A
agar selective for gram negative bacteria (g+ won’t grow)
14
Q
selective media
A
media where other microbes don’t grow and/or they will look different
15
Q
enrichment media
A
media where the target microbe has a growth advantage
16
Q
brilliant green agar
A
agar selective for salmonella (inhibits g+ and g-)
17
Q
IMViC tests (indole, methyl red, voges-proskauer, citrate)
A
various tests that separates Escherichia coli (++– results) from other fecal source bacteria in water analysis based on metabolic products
18
Q
O antigen (most variable region)
A
in the nomenclature for naming Enterobacteriaceae strains, the ‘O’ represents this region of the bacteria
19
Q
flagella (there can be 1 or many)
A
in the nomenclature for naming Enterobacteriaceae strains, the ‘H’ represents this region of the bacteria
20
Q
capsule (all over surface, protein or polysaccharide)
A
in the nomenclature for naming Enterobacteriaceae strains, the ‘K’ represents this region of the bacteria
21
Q
fimbria (or pili, covers surface)
A
in the nomenclature for naming Enterobacteriaceae strains, the ‘F’ represents this region of the bacteria
22
Q
non-pathogenic
A
the family Enterobacteriaceae is typically (pathogenic/non-pathogenic)
23
Q
fecal
A
infection from Enterobacteriaceae occurs through contact with __________ matter
24
Q
R plasmids (resistance plasmids)
A
there is a wide distribution of _________ which are transferable between bacteria; becoming a problem in Enterobacteriaceae
25
ESBL
extended spectrum beta-lactamases that inactivate penicillins and cephalosporins
26
conjugation
transfer of the R plasmids between bacteria occurs through ________________
27
mutation
multi-drug resistance can also involve new or increased expression or _____________ of multi-drug transporters
28
lactose
Escherichia, Enterobacter, and Klebsiella are all ___________-positive coliform (fecal) bacteria
29
cows
animals known for excreting high amounts of E. coli fecal material
30
exotoxins
secreted by E. coli into cells directly or into circulation
31
AB type toxin
labile enterotoxin that is immunogenic
32
peptide toxin
stable toxin that is non-immunogenic
33
hypersecretion
enterotoxins (AB type toxin & small peptide toxins) cause _________________ of water and electrolytes from the crypts of the small intestine
34
AB type toxin (heat labile)
toxin that binds to the surface, facilitates its uptake into cells, and activates adenyl cyclase to generate cAMP (causes hyper-secretion)
35
peptide toxin (heat stable)
toxin that acts by activating guanylate cyclase (producing cGMP) to cause ion imbalance, prostaglandin production, and barrier disruption, resulting in hypersecretion
36
PCR
typically the chosen test for diagnosis of enterotoxin production
37
shiga toxin
toxin produced by toxigenic E. coli and are secreted as AB type toxins
38
A
which part of the AB type toxin wreaks havoc on the cell?
39
shiga toxin
toxin acts on the vascular endothelium of small blood vessels leading to cell death
40
true/false: all strains of E. coli produce endotoxin
false
41
exotoxins
__________ are only produced by some strains of E. coli, and are associated with more pathogenicity
42
diarrhea
an increase in the frequency, fluidity, and total 24 hour volume of feces eliminated relative to that which is normal for a species
43
acute diarrhea
diarrhea that lasts less than 14 days
44
chronic diarrhea
diarrhea that lasts more than 14 days
45
large
large animals tend to only show signs of diarrhea if they have a (small/large) intestine infection/problem
46
small
(small/large) animals can have diarrhea if either the small or large intestine is infected
47
tips
the (tips/crypts) of the intestinal villous have a large absorptive capacity
48
crypts
the (tips/crypts) of the intestinal villous have a large secretory capacity
49
hypermotility
abnormal intestinal motility caused by increased peristalsis (enhanced by platelet-activating factor)
50
hypomotility
abnormal intestinal motility caused by bacterial overgrowth
51
hypermotility
(hypermotility/hypomotility) of the intestine is a medical emergency; animals can die from dehydration or electrolyte losses
52
osmotic diarrhea
mechanism of diarrhea where there is an increase in osmotically active particles in the intestine (water follows into lumen)
53
true/false: osmotic diarrhea is the primary mechanism of infectious diarrhea
false (typically secondary)
54
milk replacer
one of the most common causes of osmotic diarrhea is due to ___________ ___________ that is too concentrated
55
osmotic diarrhea
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, where enzymes aren't released into the lumen of the GI tract, causes what kind of diarrhea?
56
true/false: osmotic diarrhea stops when the large solute load is stopped
true
57
malabsorption (diarrhea)
diarrheal mechanism that occurs with villous atrophy; lose the ability to absorb and digest food in the lumen of the GI tract
58
viruses
the most common cause of malabsorption diarrhea
59
viruses (coronavirus, rotavirus, reovirus)
infectious diarrhea due to villous atrophy and malabsorption is usually caused by _____________
60
increased permeability
diarrheal mechanism where there is increased movement into the intestinal lumen through the breakdown of normal permeability or structural integrity
61
dysentery
increased permeability is often characterized by _______________ (bloody stools) and pseudomembrane formation
62
permeability
an increase in intestinal ______________ is often, but not always, associated with infectious agents
63
hypersecretion
stimulation of crypt enterocytes results in secretion of large fluid volumes that overwhelm the intestinal absorptive capacity results in ______________
64
true/false: colibacillosis in piglets and calves is easy to identify due to its characteristic lesions
false (no lesions!!)
65
true/false: many microbes cause disease through more than one diarrheal mechanism
true
66
1
what fecal score is this?
67
2
what fecal score is this?
68
3
what fecal score is this?
69
4
what fecal score is this?
70
5
what fecal score is this?
71
6
what fecal score is this?
72
7
what fecal score is this?
73
A
for (A/B) cases, remove incriminating factors and use 3-5 days of a highly digestible diet to resolve the diarrhea
74
WBC
an increase in total ________ count is indicative of inflammation and infection
75
leukocytes
definition that includes granulocytes and agranulocytes
76
lymphocytes
definition that includes B and T cells
77
mononuclear cells
definition that includes cells with 1 nucleus that covers a good portion of the cell; monocytes, B cells, and T cells
78
polymorphonuclear cells
definition that includes cells with multiple nuclei (e.g. mature neutrophils)
79
granulocytes
cells with prominent secretory granules; neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
80
left shift
a sign of a progressing or chronic infection may be a ________ ________, or the body displaying more immature neutrophils
81
lymphocytes
signs of a viral infection usually includes elevated _____________
82
true/false: historically, most E. coli is not pathogenic and carries no virulence factors
true
83
exotoxins
secreted by live bacteria and are often very stable; present only in evolved variant strains
84
ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)
E. coli that produces heat-labile & heat stable enterotoxins; replication and production of toxins causes hypersecretion of water and electrolytes in the small intestine
85
EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. coli, also called STEC)
E. coli that produce shiga toxin (AB toxin) which is able to intoxicate and kill endothelial cells, leading to hemorrhage
86
EHEC (also called STEC, shiga toxin e. coli)
causes edema disease in swine, hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans; destroys endothelial cells
87
virulence factors
production of endotoxin, enterotoxins, shiga toxins, and specific fimbriae are all examples of ____________ _______________
88
true/false: all strains of E. coli produce enterotoxins and shiga toxins
false (only some strains)
89
adhesion
fimbriae/pili provides ____________ to host cells by binding multiple pili to the specific receptor
90
type 1 fimbriae
fimbriae in Enterobacteriaceae which bind specifically to mannose terminated glycoproteins on eukaryotic cell surfaces; the most common type of fimbriae
91
F antigen (fimbriae)
antibody binding to __ __________ prevents adherence and disease stemming from E. coli
92
hemolysin (NOT an AB toxin)
a secreted protein that lyses red blood cells; a virulence factor that can be present in some strains of E. coli
93
invasin
hemolysin acts as an _____________, meaning it enhances the ability of bacteria to invade mucosal tissue and/or endothelium to cause bacteremia or septicemia
94
capsules (K antigen)
protein _____________ function similar to pili to mediate attachment to host cells, and polysaccharide _____________ provide immune evasion (prevents complement/antibody binding)
95
type III secretion system
expression of this system allows for injection of effector proteins that modify host signaling pathways; induces attaching/effacing and causes damage to epithelial tissue
96
1
the type III secretion system involves a (1/2/3)-step delivery of effector proteins into the host cell cytoplasm
97
virulence factors
______________ ______________ are coded by genes in virulence plasmids, pathogenicity islands, and phages
98
stress
___________ and age play a big role in disease susceptibility to E. coli
99
invasive e. coli
describes the E. coli strains capable of invading into deeper tissues which results in bacteremia or septicemia; no enterotoxins or exotoxins are produced, but hemolysins are produced
100
enterovirulent e. coli
describes the E. coli strains that produce enterotoxins and exotoxins
101
hypermotility
ETEC cause primary intestinal diseases due to _________________; enterotoxins are produced and adhesion antigens are required for disease
102
AEEC (attaching and effacing e. coli)
found in enterohemorrhagic and enteropathogenic e.coli; causes obliteration of the microvillus surface by using a T3SS to attach to host, but strain is non-invasive and non-toxigenic
103
EHEC
includes O157:H7 that is pathologic in humans but not animals; produces shiga toxins that causes hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome
104
Gb3
receptor found on enterocytes in humans but not animals, making O157:H7 only pathologic in humans
105
cattle
the principal host of E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC/STEC)
106
true/false: cattle have the receptors for shiga toxins in their vascular system
false
107
vaccines
two commercial ______________ have been produced that reduce levels of E. Coli O157:H7 in the digestive tract of cattle
108
serotype
strain of bacteria that carries a set of similar antigens on its cell surface, often many in a bacterial species (e.g. O:H ____________)
109
serotype
vaccines and antiserum are ____________ specific
110
bacterins
killed whole cell vaccines from the disease-causing organism
111
true/false: antibiotics are recommended to treat E. coli diseases
false (can increase shiga toxin expression, disrupt normal flora, etc)
112
true/false: all E. coli enterotoxins can be neutralized by antibody
true
113
true/false: all E. coli enterotoxins contribute to pathogenesis
false (host needs the receptor to cause disease)
114
What is the specificity of vaccines and antiserum?
Vaccines and antiserum are serotype specific.
115
What are bacterins?
Killed whole cell vaccines from the disease-causing organism.
116
Are antibiotics recommended to treat E. coli diseases?
False. Antibiotics can increase shiga toxin expression, disrupt normal flora, etc.
117
Can all E. coli enterotoxins be neutralized by antibody?
True.
118
Do all E. coli enterotoxins contribute to pathogenesis?
False. The host needs the receptor to cause disease.
119
Is E. coli normal flora in the small intestine?
False. E. coli is more common in the large intestine.
120
Does endotoxin contribute to the pathogenesis of STEC?
True.
121
Can E. coli type III secretion system be neutralized by antibody?
True.
122
Does type III secretion system facilitate urinary tract infection?
True.
123
Does E. coli type III secretion system modulate inflammation?
True.
124
Does shiga toxin cause diarrhea by inducing hypersecretion?
False. Shiga toxin does not cause diarrhea this way.
125
What is EHEC?
EHEC (enterohemorrhagic, also called STEC) is a type of E. coli whose shiga toxins kill cells by shutting down protein synthesis, leading to malabsorption diarrhea.
126
What does EHEC cause?
EHEC causes hemorrhagic diarrhea and urinary tract hemolysis infections.
127
What syndrome does EHEC cause?
EHEC causes hemolytic uremic syndrome, leading to apoptosis and kidney failure.
128
What is colibacillosis?
Colibacillosis (E. coli) is a disease caused by toxigenic strains of E. coli that results in milk scours in 1-3 week old pigs.
129
What are the symptoms of colibacillosis in pigs?
It leads to a distended stomach and small intestine with gas and fluids, but little to no inflammation.
130
What do normal intestinal flora produce?
Normal intestinal flora produce short chain fatty acids that limit the growth of pathogens.
131
What is edema disease?
Edema disease is caused by hemolytic strains of E. coli that produce shiga toxin Stx2e and express fimbrial antigen F18.
132
What is pathognomonic for edema disease in pigs?
Edema of the eyelids, as well as stomach submucosa and brain edema.
133
Can calves get colibacillosis?
True. It presents as neonatal diarrhea.
134
What is the most common cause of serious disease in dogs and cats?
Colibacillosis is second to parvovirus enteritis.
135
What is the most common organism isolated from neonatal sepsis in foals?
E. coli.
136
What is a common opportunistic infection in poultry?
Colibacillosis, characterized by enteritis and septicemia.
137
What are bacteriophages?
Specific viruses that infect bacteria and can be pathogenic, carrying shiga toxin.
138
How many E. coli serotypes are associated with disease?
There are more than 50 E. coli serotypes associated with disease in animals or humans.
139
What genus contains two species: salmonella enterica and salmonella bongori?
The genus Salmonella.
140
Which subspecies of salmonella contains the most pathogens?
Salmonella enterica enterica.
141
What are the two subspecies of salmonella enterica that contain human and animal pathogens?
Salmonella enterica enterica and Salmonella enterica arizonae.
142
What are the serotypes for salmonella based on?
The serotypes are based on O and H antigens (LPS and flagella).
143
What does a serotype labeled 'DT104' or 'DT193' indicate?
The antigens came from a bacteriophage.
144
How do you name salmonella in practice?
You name salmonella after its serotype (e.g., Salmonella Typhimurium).
145
What are the two most common salmonella infections in humans?
Salmonella Typhimurium and Salmonella Enteritidis.
146
What are serotypes most often host adapted to?
Certain animal species and seldom cause disease in other species.
147
What controls the expression of many virulence factors?
The environment.
148
What commercially available product is from Salmonella enterica?
LPS, used to stimulate TLR4 and inflammation.
149
Do all types of bacteria from genus Salmonella produce endotoxin?
True, but not all produce exotoxin.
150
What type of toxin does Salmonella produce in addition to heat stable toxin?
Salmonella enterotoxin (heat labile).
151
What describes Salmonella's preferred living environment within the body?
Facultative intracellular.
152
What feature is required for Salmonella's invasion into the mucosa?
Type III secretion system.
153
What do Salmonella bacterial effector proteins trigger?
Host actin cytoskeleton rearrangements.
154
What does Salmonella produce that traps/steals iron from the host?
Siderophores.
155
How does Salmonella attach to the intestinal mucosa?
Using adhesion pili.
156
What type of cell does Salmonella like to hide in?
Macrophages.
157
What does the proliferation of Salmonella depend on?
Stress, dosage, antibodies, age, species, and serotype.
158
Does Salmonella have to be ingested to be effective in its pathogenesis?
False. It can be inhaled and cause pneumonia.
159
What is clinical salmonellosis characterized by?
Acute fever, death in 24-48 hours, and widespread petechial hemorrhages.
160
What is enterocolitis?
Inflammation of both the small and large intestine, often caused by Salmonella.
161
What type of enterocolitis tends to be mucoid to hemorrhagic?
Acute enterocolitis.
162
What type of enterocolitis tends to be necrotic?
Chronic enterocolitis.
163
What type of enterocolitis tends to be mucoid?
Subacute enterocolitis.
164
What is acute enterocolitis characterized by?
Acute fever with severe watery diarrhea +/- dysentery.
165
What is dysentery?
Very severe diarrhea with blood and mucus in the feces.
166
What is subacute enterocolitis most common in?
Horses and dogs.
167
What is chronic enterocolitis characterized by?
Persistent diarrhea and usually necrotic tissue.
168
What is a sequela of septicemia and endotoxemia in pregnant animals?
Abortion.
169
What is food poisoning commonly associated with?
Ingestion of large numbers of Salmonella, leading to sudden onset of fever, explosive diarrhea, cramping, and vomiting.
170
What type of food poisoning is associated with improperly cooked animal source food?
Enteric fever type.
171
What may be required to diagnose enterocolitis or food poisoning?
Serology tests for serotype-specific surface antigens.
172
Does Salmonella tend to be multiple-drug resistant?
True. Antibiotics may not be the best choice to treat it.
173
How is Salmonella's resistance to antimicrobials generally mediated?
By plasmids.
174
How is Salmonella's resistance to quinolones characterized?
It is mutational.
175
Which antimicrobial should NOT be used against Salmonella?
Tetracycline, as it actually enhances virulence.
176
What product is commonly used to vaccinate swine and cattle against Salmonella?
Bacterins.
177
What is the major point of prevention against salmonellosis?
Minimizing exposure.
178
What reptiles are especially known for having a large Salmonella load?
Turtles.
179
What is the #1 cause of salmonellosis in humans?
Contamination of food products with Salmonella Typhimurium.
180
What is the #2 cause of salmonellosis in humans?
Contamination of food products with Salmonella Enteritidis.
181
What is the #3 cause of salmonellosis in humans?
Contamination of food products with Salmonella Newport.
182
What is the name given to all E. coli strains that cause diarrhea?
Intestinal pathogenic E. coli.
183
What does ExPEC stand for?
Extraintestinal pathogenic E. coli.
184
What are the four types of ExPEC?
Avian pathogenic E. coli, newborn meningitis E. coli, septicemic pathogenic E. coli, and uropathogenic E. coli.
185
How is avian colibacillosis contracted?
By inhalation of avian pathogenic E. coli.
186
What is a big problem in humans, dogs, and cats related to UPEC?
Urinary tract infection caused by uropathogenic E. coli.
187
What type of pili aids UPEC in adherence to the bladder?
P type pili.
188
What includes preventative treatment for UPEC infections?
Lots of water, regular grooming, and lots of potty breaks.
189
What keeps Salmonella outgrowth in check?
The normal flora by producing SC fatty acids and epithelial hypoxia.
190
What is the most common serovar of Salmonella in horses?
Salmonella Typhimurium.
191
What genus of bacteria is notorious for intermittent fecal shedding?
Salmonella.
192
Does salmonellosis in foals have a good prognosis?
False. It has near 100% mortality with Typhimurium and Newport.
193
What antimicrobials tend to be very effective against Salmonella?
Fluoroquinolones.
194
What is salmonellosis often associated with in cattle?
Stress or parturition.
195
What salmonella serovar is host adapted to cattle?
Salmonella Dublin.
196
What vaccine generates antibodies against the siderophore receptor/porins?
SRP vaccine.
197
What serovar of Salmonella is host adapted to swine and usually causes pneumonia?
Salmonella Choleraesuis.
198
What serovar of Salmonella causes chronic necrotic enterocolitis in swine?
Salmonella Typhisuis.
199
Can pigs transmit Salmonella Derby & Salmonella Rissen to humans?
True.
200
What common animals are associated with Salmonella serovars?
Poultry.
201
What salmonella serovar is most adapted to turkeys, reptiles, and sheep?
Salmonella Arizona.
202
What is the most common salmonella serovar in poultry?
Salmonella Enteritidis.
203
What is responsible for maintaining Salmonella on the premise of a poultry farm?
Rodents.
204
What is the most important animal and human pathogen from the genus Klebsiella?
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
205
Is Klebsiella found naturally in the environment and intestinal tract?
True.
206
What does Klebsiella produce?
Endotoxin, no exotoxins, and is especially known for its love of capsules and pili.
207
What is one of the most common reasons for endometritis and placentitis in horses?
Klebsiella infection.
208
What does Klebsiella cause in bovines?
Mastitis associated with the use of wood product bedding.
209
What is Klebsiella increasingly resistant to?
Carbapenems, B-lactams, and polymyxins.
210
What is the characteristic of Klebsiella's genome?
A large accessory genome consisting of 2,000-5,000 genes acquired by horizontal gene exchange.
211
What group of bacteria 'swarms' on blood agar?
Proteus.
212
What genus of bacteria is only pathogenic against humans and non-human primates?
Shigella.
213
How does Shigella spread?
Through inter-epithelial junctions; entry mediated by T3SS.
214
What is the most common type of Shigella?
Shigella sonnei.
215
What facultative intracellular bacterium in fish causes enteric septicemia?
Edwardiella ictaluri.
216
What causes systemic disease on fish farms and is zoonotic?
Edwardiella tarda.
217
What is the virulence of Enterobacter, Serratia, and Citrobacter?
Low, common in immunocompromised patients.
218
What genus caused the 'black death' plague in Europe?
Yersinia.
219
What is a bubo?
A very painful, inflammatory enlargement of an infected lymph node caused by Yersinia.
220
What bacteria contains no O antigen and no flagella?
Yersinia pestis.
221
What aspect of Yersinia pestis delays the TLR4 response?
Atypical lipid A.
222
What is the flea-borne infection endemic in rodent populations of the western US?
Plague (Yersinia pestis).
223
What is a bubo?
A very painful, inflammatory enlargement of an infected lymph node caused by genus Yersinia.
224
What is yersinia pestis?
Bacteria that contains no O antigen and no flagella (i.e. no serotypes); has an atypical lipid A.
225
What is plague (yersinia pestis)?
A flea-borne infection that is endemic in rodent populations of the western US.
226
Is plague (yersinia pestis) a reportable disease according to the CDC?
False (it definitely is!!!!!!!).
227
How does plague (yersinia pestis) appear in a blood smear?
It appears to look like a safety pin.
228
What are the preferred antimicrobials to treat Yersinia pestis (plague)?
Fluoroquinolones.
229
Is there a large risk of exposure of Yersinia pestis to veterinarians?
True: it can be spread through aerosols during necropsy.
230
What does yersinia pseudotuberculosis cause?
Pseudotuberculosis in rodents and rarely causes disease in other animals.
231
What bacterium causes enteric red-mouth disease of salmon and trout?
Yersinia ruckeri.
232
What do most serotypes of Yersinia enterocolitica lack?
Siderophores, but contain O antigen and flagella; can be zoonotic to humans.
