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Exam 3 OSCEs Flashcards

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1
Q

If a patient has tight enough hamstrings what kind of dysfunction will they have?

A

hip extension dysfunction

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2
Q

What kind of restriction can lead to lateral knee pain?

A

IT Band restriction

hip abduction dysfunction

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3
Q

Grade: active muscle movement against gravity

A

3/5

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4
Q

Grade: barely detectable flicker

A

1/5

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5
Q

What all do you find in the central compartment of the hip?

A

labrum, ligamentum teres, articular surfaces

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6
Q

What all do you find in the peripheral compartment of the hip?

A

femoral neck, synovial lining

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7
Q

What all do you find in the lateral compartment of the hip?

A

gluteus medius, minimus, piriformis, IT band, trochanteric bursa

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8
Q

What all do you find in the anterior compartment of the hip?

A

Iliopsoas

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9
Q

If a patient has knock-knees what do we call that?

A

gene valgum

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10
Q

What are the nerve roots for the muscles in charge of knee extension?

A

L2-L4

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11
Q

What are the nerve roots for the muscles in charge of knee flexion?

A

L5-S1

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12
Q

A valgus force on the knee will cause what?

A

aDduction

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13
Q

What kind of dysfunction will have an ease of medial translator motion of the knee?

A

valgus

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14
Q

What does the anteroposterior glide of tibia on femur assess? How is it different from the anterior drawer test?

A

assess restricted motion, less force than drawer

draw assess excessive motion

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15
Q

What nerve runs around the fibular head and can get compressed by a fibular head fracture or somatic dysfunction?

A

common fibular

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16
Q

How do we assess the q angle?

A

one line goes from ASIS through patella

tibial tuberosity through patella

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17
Q

What are the medial bones of the foot?

A

navicular and cuneiforms

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18
Q

What bones make up the medial longitudinal arch?

A 
calcaneus
talus
navicular
cuneiforms 1-3
metatarsals 1-3
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19
Q

What makes up the transverse distal tarsal arch?

A

navicular, cuboid, cuneiforms 1-3, proximal metatarsals

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20
Q

What makes up the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneus
cuboid
metatarsals 4-5

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21
Q

What is the primary stabilizer of the medial ankle?

A

deltoid ligament

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22
Q

What does the plantar fascia attach to?

A

calcaneus and phalanges

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23
Q

What are the three tendons that pass through the tarsal tunnel?

A

posterior tibialis tendon
flexor digitorum longus
flexor hallicus longus

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24
Q

What does the fibularis longus attach to?

A

medial cuneiform and 1st metatarsal

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25
What does the fibularis brevis attach to?
proximal portion of 5th metatarsal
26
An inversion injury to the forefoot can cause what ind of fracture where?
avulsion fracture of 5th metatarsal head = jones fracture
27
What does dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the foot occur between?
talus and tib/fib
28
What does foot inversion and aversion occur between?
talus and calcaneus
29
What position should the foot be in to assess calcaneus inversion and eversion and why?
ankle at 90 to avoid excess laxity of joint
30
Plantar cuboid is associated with what?
posterior fibular head
31
Dorsal navicular is associated with
tight plantar fascia
32
Overall in the foot bones what kind of dysfunction is the most common?
plantar
33
What motions make up foot pronation?
abduction eversion dorsiflexion
34
What motions make up foot supination?
adduction inversion plantar flexion
35
What muscles are dorsiflexors? What nerve runs these bad boys and whatsthe root
tibialis anterior L4-L5 EHL L5 EDL L5 deep fibular
36
What muscles are in charge of plantar flexion? Nerve and roots!
``` gastric S1-S2 soleus S1-S2 FHL L5 FDL L5 tibialis posterior (also inverts) L5 ```
37
What muscles are in charge of everting the foot? Nerve and root!
fibularis longus and brevis | superficial fibular nerve L5-S1
38
What spinous process and transverse processes are at the inferior angle of the scapula?
T7 spinous | T8 TPs
39
What vertebra is at the spine of the scapula?
T3
40
What type of spinal mechanics does thoracic vertebra exhibit?
type I and II
41
How do you assess passive side bending of vertebra?
push down on ipsilateral shoulder and monitor ipsilateral segmental sidebending
42
How do you assess passive rotation in a seated position?
induce rotation via front of ipsilateral shoulder and monitor ipsilateral segmental
43
If you're assess thoracic spine and you have right PTPs on T7-9 and it doesn't improve with flexion or extension what kind of dysfunction is it?
neutral so type I
44
What does a 3+ DTR look like?
very brisk may or may not be normal
45
What does a 4+ DTR look like?
repeating reflex, always abnromal
46
What is a normal DTR rated?
2+
47
Biceps DTR tests what nerve root? Brachioradialis? Triceps?
C5 C6 C7
48
What is the Spurling maneuver?
1. compress head in neutral 2. compress head in extension 3. sideband away from affected side then toward affected side and add compression
49
What does a positive Spurling test look like and what does it indicate?
pain down arm in distribution of the nerve root | nerve root compression
50
What type of spinal mechanics does the OA joint exhibit?
modified type 1- primary motions are flexion and extension but they still go oposite
51
What type of spinal motion does the AA joint exhibit?
rotation only
52
What type of spinal mechanics does the cervical vertebra 2-7 exhibit?
modified type 2: primary motions are F/E but they R and SB same side
53
Where do you contact the OA joint to induce lateral translation?
occipital articulation
54
Where do you contact the OA joint to induce rotation?
occipital ridge
55
What is the key to assessing the AA joint?
fully flex the C spine
56
Where do you contact the AA joint to assess rotation?
lateral mass of atlas
57
the superior portion of the iliac crest corresponds with what spinous process?
L4
58
Patellar reflex
L4
59
Where would you have to have herniated disc to get a weird patellar reflex?
L3-L4
60
Achilles reflex
S1
61
What findings from the straight leg raising test (lasegue test) indicate what?
Less than 30 disc protrusion or rupture or radiculopathy 35-70 sciatic nerve irritation by stretching of dura greater than 70 mechanical low back pain
62
How do you perform the hip drop test?
pt bend on knee with both feet on grounded displace weight to leg that is not bending at knee
63
What is the normal amount of lumbar side bending with the hip drop test? What is a positive test?
15-3 | if it does not drop 15 it is positive test on the unsupported side
64
How would you document this hip drop test: r iliac crest drops 10
+ R hip drop test -> problem sidebending left
65
What type of spinal mechanics does lumbar vertebra demonstrate?
type I and II
66
If someone had a super duper small carrying angle what would happen
arms would hit hips when swinging during walking
67
Does ulnar abduction or adduction increasing the carrying angle
abduction
68
What kind of force causes ulnar abduction? What does the wrist do?
valgus (push medially on lateral elbow and laterally at wrist) ulnar deviation
69
What is the reference point for naming ulnar abduction and adduction dysfunctions?
distal ulna
70
with supination which way does the radial head move?
anterior
71
Which way do the carpals move when we flex the wrist?
dorsal
72
What's the point of reference for MCP abduction and adduction?
long finger (middle)
73
What does thumb abduction look like?
moves anterior from anatomical position
74
Contraction of what muscle can cause an inhalation rib dysfunction?
pec muscles mainly minor
75
What is an accessor muscle of inhalation when scapula is fixed in place such as when a patient is grasping a rail?
serratus anterior
76
Rib 12 can help you identify which vertebra?
T12
77
What ribs are typical? A typical?
typical 3-9 | atypical all the rest duh
78
What kind of motion does rib 1 have?
50% pump 50% bucket
79
What kind of motion does rib 2 have?
primarily pump
80
What kind of motions do ribs 3-6 have?
mix of pump and bucket further down you go is bucket
81
Where do you place your hands to assess pump handle motion of ribs 3-6?
costochondral articulations
82
Where do you put your hands to assess bucket handle motion?
midaxxilary line
83
What kind of motions do ribs 7-10 have?
bucket
84
What kind of motions do the floating ribs have and how do you assess them?
caliper | patient prone
85
Restriction of ribs 11 and 12 is influenced by?
quadratus lumborum
86
if a patient falls on outstretch hand in front of them what kind of somatic dysfunction do you expect?
radial head posterior somatic dysfunction
87
If a patient falls back on an outstretched hand what kind of somatic dysfunction do you expect?
radial head anterior somatic dysfunction

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