Exam 3 Part 1 Flashcards
(289 cards)
1
Q
More commonly referred to as just “Lupus”
A
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
2
Q
Classic systemic autoimmune condition that notoriously affects multiple organ systems
A
Lupus (SLE)
3
Q
What makes Lupus so hard to diagnose?
A
Wide-variety of organs involved
4
Q
What condition is known as the “Great Imitator”
A
Lupus (SLE)
5
Q
A condition that involves high amounts of autoantibody production
A
Lupus (SLE)
6
Q
Lupus primarily involves injury to the host’s tissues via Type ___ and Type ___ Hypersensitivities
A
II
III
7
Q
Antigens that form in response to nuclear components
A
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
8
Q
_______ test is characteristically associated with autoimmune conditions and is a common lab test that assists in the diagnosis of Lupus
A
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
9
Q
Like many autoimmune conditions, Lupus is considered
A
Idiopathic
10
Q
A minimum of ________ diagnostic criteria must be met to meet the threshold of diagnosing Lupus.
A
Four
11
Q
Malar Rash, Discoid Skin Rash, Photosensitivity and Painless Oral Ulcers would be indicative of
A
Lupus (SLE)
12
Q
Blood cell disorders, Immunological Antibodies, Serositis, and Renal Disorders would be indicative of
A
Lupus (SLE)
13
Q
Lupus is most likely to affect ___________- age ____ ____.
A
Reproductive
Females
14
Q
What population is at the highest risk for developing Lupus?
A
African-American Females
15
Q
There is a _______ concordance rate of Lupus in monozygotic twins, but a 3% concordance rate in ______________ twins.
A
25%
Dizygotic
16
Q
Individuals with HLA-DR2 or HLA-DR3 are at around a ____-fold increased risk for developing risk
A
Three
17
Q
A unique environmental exposure that exacerbates the features of lupus is ______________ _______.
A
Ultraviolet (UV) Light
18
Q
The increased reactivity of the skin following exposure to sunlight or UV light.
A
Photosensitivity
19
Q
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the ________, joints and serosal membranes.
A
Skin
20
Q
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, ________ and serosal membranes.
A
Joints
21
Q
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, joints and ___________ ______________.
A
Serosal Membranes
22
Q
If red blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
A
Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue)
23
Q
If Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
A
Red Blood Cells
24
Q
If white blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
A
Recurrent or Persistent Infections
25
If Recurrent or Persistent Infections are present with Lupus, what tissues would be affected?
White Blood Cells
26
If Platelets are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Bleeding Tendencies
27
If Bleeding Tendencies are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
Platelets
28
If the Kidney's tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Glomerulonephritis
Proteinuria
Red Blood Cell "Casts"
Renal Failure
29
If Glomerulonephritis, Proteinuria, RBC "Casts" or Renal Failure are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
Kidney Tissue
30
If the skin is affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes)
31
If Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Skin
32
If the CNS tissue is affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Seizures
Psychosis
Neurological Dysfunction
Stroke
33
If Seizures, Psychosis, Neuorological Dysfunction and Stroke is present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
CNS TIssue
34
If joint tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud's Arthropathy)
35
If Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud's Arthropathy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Joint Tissue
36
If the pericardium is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Pericarditis (Chest Pain)
37
If Pericarditis (Chest Pain) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Pericardium
38
If the Pleura is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Pleuritis (Pleurisy)
39
If Pleuritis (Pleurisy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Pleura
40
If the vessel wall is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Vasculitis
41
If Vasculitis is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Vessel Wall
42
If the heart tissue is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia
43
If Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia are present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Heart Tissue
44
Approximately half of all Lupus patients have clinically significant __________ damage
Renal
45
Renal damage is the result of __________ ______________ deposition within the glomeruli
Immune Complex
46
When deposition of immune complex occurs within the glomeruli, an inflammatory reaction is initiated. This inflammatory reaction is known as
Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis)
47
Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis) is a Type ______ Hypersensitivity reaction
III
48
_________ Failure is the most common cause of death in someone with Lupus.
Renal
49
Characteristic pattern of cardiac valve damage that is specific to Lupus patients.
Libman-Sacks Endocarditis
50
Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with _________ prior to suffering a heart attack
Angina
51
Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with angina prior to suffering a ________ ________
Heart Attack
52
An autoimmune condition that is most well-known for producing dry eyes and dry mouth
Sjörgen Syndrome
53
Dry mouth and dry eyes with Sjörgen Syndrome is the result of CD4+ T Cells infiltrating the ________ and __________ glands.
Lacrimal
| Salivary
54
Dry eyes associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as
Keratoconjunctivitis Sica
55
Dry mouth associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as
Xerostomia
56
Enlargement of the __________ Gland is common amount Sjörgen Syndrome patients.
Parotid
57
Up to _______ of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA's)
80%
58
Up to 80% of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for ______-_______ __________________.
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA's)
59
Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to affect _________ who are between the ages of 30 and 60 years of age.
Women
60
Sjörgen Syndrome that occurs as an isolated disorder is known as
Sicca Syndrome
61
If Sjörgen Syndrome developes after the onset of another autoimmune condition(s), it is known as
Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome
62
Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to develop in patients diagnosed with
Rheumatoid Arthritis
63
T/F. Sicca Syndrome is more common than Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome
False (Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is)
64
Often referred to as "Scleroderma" because of its frequent involvement with the skin.
Systemic Sclerosis
65
Autoimmune condition that causes chronic inflammation in multiple soft tissues, resulting in fibrosis.
Systemic Sclerosis
66
Hardening of the involved tissues in Systemic Sclerosis is due to excessive __________ deposition.
Collagen
67
Abnormal hardening of a body tissue
Sclerosis
68
Widespread hardening of tissues
Systemic Sclerosis
69
Once the inflammatory reaction of Systemic Sclerosis begins, ____________ recruit fibroblasts to the site, depositing scar tissue
Cytokines
70
Patients with Systemic Sclerosis may have _________________ fibroblasts, which contribute to the excessive fibrosis.
Hyperactive
71
Systemic Sclerosis has a female-to-male ratio of ___-to-____
3 to 1
72
Systemic Sclerosis occurs in adults who are around age ____-___ years of age
40-60
73
Women tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ____________ age.
Younger
74
Men tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ______________ age.
Elderly
75
Systemic Sclerosis often involves soft tissue fibrosis that damages the body's __________________.
Vasculature
76
Most cases (95%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found on the
Skin (Cutaneous Tissues)
77
Second most common cases (90%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found at the
Alimentary Tract
78
Defined by its aggressive and severe nature
Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis
79
Widespread, involving many visceral tissues.
Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis
80
Patients with _______________ Systemic Sclerosis have a worse prognosis and do not live as long as individuals with ________________ Systemic Sclerosis
Diffuse
| Limited
81
Less severe type of Sclerosis and involves small areas of the skin (often fingers, forearms and face).
Limited Systemic Sclerosis
82
Small areas of the skin, often confined to the fingers, affected by Limited Systemic Sclerosis is known as
Sclerodactyly
83
Condition describing a characteristic pattern of tissue involvement in those with limited systemic sclerosis.
CREST Syndrome
84
The 'C' in CREST Syndrome stands for
Calcinosis of the subcutaneous tissues, especially in the hands
85
The 'R' in CREST Syndrome stands for
Reaynaud's Phenomenon
86
The 'E' in CREST Syndrome stands for
Esophageal Dysmotility (Aperistalsis)
87
The 'S' in CREST Syndrome stands for
Sclerodactyly
88
The 'T' in CREST Syndrome stands for
Telangiectasia (Spider Veins)
89
Genetically determined immunodeficiency disorder
Primary Immunodeficiency Disorder
90
Immunodeficiency disorder that is acquired as a consequence of infections, cancer, severe malnutrition, or as a side-effect of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunosuppressive medication therapy.
Secondary Immunodeficiency Disorder
91
_________ results in a predisposition to developing infections and disease such as cancer, in more severe situations.
Immunodeficiency
92
Individuals with many forms of immunodeficiency have an increased risk of developing ___________ conditions
Autoimmune
93
Inherited disorders of the immune system that are frequently detected between 6 months and 2 years of age, due to susceptibility to recurrent infections
Primary Immunodeficiency
94
X-linked Agammaglobulinemia or XLA
Bruton's Disease
95
The mutation for this condition is on the x-chromosome (x-linked), only males are affected.
Bruton's Disease
96
Bruton's Disease becomes apparent after maternal antibodies are depleted around _________ after birth.
6 Months
97
6 months after birth recurrent __________ and ________ infections become noticibly more frequent and more intense.
Bacterial
| Viral
98
__________ infections frequently involve the respiratory tract and cause sinusitis, bronchitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, or pneumonia.
Bacterial
99
Bacterial or viral infections of the middle ear may cause _____ _____
Otitis Media
100
_________ infections of the gastrointestinal tract (G.I. Tract) may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea
Viral
101
In patients with Bruton's disease, the body's immune deficiency stems from a mutation in the ______ _______ ______ gene
Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)
102
Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase (BTK) halts the ___________ of pre-B cells into mature and fully functional B Cells.
Differentiation
103
When the immune system needs to produce antibodies, __________ ___ cells transition into plasma cells, which produce antibodies.
Functional B
104
Since patients with Bruton's disease are unable to produce fully functional mature B cells they are unable to produce antibodies, which results in
Agammaglobulinemia
105
Absence of gamma globulins (antibodies) in the blood.
Agammaglobulinemia
106
Since the BTK gene is located on the x chromosome, this condition always affects
Males
107
The additional x chromosome that _______ possess protection against this and other x-linked conditions
Females
108
Females may not be affected by Burton's Disease, however they may still be ________ and pass the mutation to their offspring.
Carriers
109
Group of different disorders that are grouped together because they manifest in similar ways.
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
110
What do all patients with SCID have in common?
Impaired development of T cells and or B Cells
111
A lack of appropriate lymphocyte production is present in all cases of
SCID
112
______ and ______ of the lymphatic tissues occurs in most forms of SCID
Atrophy
| Hypoplasia
113
SCID is most common among
Native Americans
114
Within the first year of life, patients with SCID will experience
```
Intense Oral Thrush (Oral Candadiasis)
Severe Diaper Rash
Cytomegaloviral Infection of the Upper Respiratory Tract
Fungal Infections of the lungs
Varicella Zoster Viral Infection
```
115
Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)
Candadiasis
116
Common cause of oral candidiasis and this fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candidiasis, frequently referred to as
Yeast Infection
117
Poor prognosis
Destruction
Decreasing function
Metastasis
118
Invasion of natural body cavities (Ovaries and CNS)
Seeding
119
Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)
Candadiasis
120
This fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candadiasis, frequently referred to as a "yeast infection"
Candadiasis
121
General term that applies to the various skin rashes that develop in the skin that is covered by a diaper, following irritation
Diaper Rash
122
The warm and moist environment of a soiled diaper may stimulate bacterial or fungal infections, which cause a rash due to ______________
Irritation
123
Phase that is most commonly used as when a newborn fails to grow or gain weight (fails to met developmental milestones).
Failure to thrive
124
Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency
```
Cancer metastasis to the bone
Bone marrow cancer (leukemia)
HIV infection/AIDS
Ionizing radiation therapy
Immunosuppressive medications
```
125
Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency
```
Chemotherapy
Severe malnutrition
Advanced diabetes
Chronic infection
Removal of the spleen (splenectomy)
```
126
The prototypical secondary immunodeficiency disorder is _____, which is acquired later in life after someone succumbs to an HIV infection.
AIDS
127
Blood-borne secondary immunodeficiency disease that results from an infection with the ________ ______________ ______.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
128
_________ _______________ ______ is transmitted during conditions that involve exchanging bodily fluids that contain the virus.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
129
Most common mode of transmitting HIV and accounts for about 75% of all infections
Sexual Transmission
130
The most commonly affected population affected in the U.S. by sexually transmitted AIDS.
Men (having sex with men)
131
Most frequently involving contact blood that contains HIV and is largely limited to drug abusers who share contaminated needles or other paraphernalia that has been exposed to infected blood.
Parenteral Transmission
132
Casual physical contact with an individual who is infected with HIV is ______ to transmit the virus and spread from insect bites is considered to be "virtually impossible"
Unable
133
The spread from insect bites is considered to be
Virtually Impossible
134
Most common reason that a child (pediatric) may develop an HIV infection and pediatric cases represent about 2% of all cases of AIDS
Mother-to-infant Transmission
135
Has the ability to cross the placenta and move from mom's blood to the baby's blood.
HIV
136
Breast milk may transmit HIV and vaginal secretions may infect a newborn with HIV, due to exposure during
Birth
137
Have largely eliminated maternal-to-infant HIV transmission in the US.
Antiretoviral Medications
138
The main targets within the body for an HIV infection are the
Immune System
| Central Nervous System
139
Profound immunodeficiency occurs once HIV has infected a critical amount of
CD4+ T Cells
140
When CD4+ T Cell levels reach fewer than ______ cells, the individual is said to have "AIDS"
200 cells per microliter (μl)
141
Individuals with mutations in the CCR5 protein are known to have a ___________ to aids
Resistance
142
Once the viral RNA has entered the cytoplasm of the infected cell the process of ______ ________ allows for viral replication within the cell
Reverse Transcription
143
Over time, an infected cell will be killed off, via __________ and direct cytotoxicity
Apoptosis
144
What is the primary target of HIV?
CD4+ T Cells
145
HIV may also infect
Monocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic Cells
146
The ability of HIV to cross the blood-brain barrier is by crossing via an infected
Monocytes
| Macrophages
147
Much of the CNS destruction that occurs in HIV/AIDS patients is due to infected
Monocytes
| Macrophages
148
HIV infection transitioning into AIDS is commonly categorized as a
3-Step Process
149
Three steps of HIV to AIDS
1. Acute Phase
2. Chronic (Latent) Phase
3. A Crisis Phase
150
Acute Phase of an HIV Infection
Immediate response following infection
HIV infects mucosal tissues and begins to spread into local lymph nodes
Death of CD4+ T Cells
Spike in HIV Viremia
Within 3-6 weeks, most develop a reaction "Acute HIV Syndrome"
Immune system responds to HIV and viremia begins to fall
Complete eradication does not occur
151
Chronic Phase of an HIV Infection
Follows the acute phase
Associated with HIV replication within the lymphatic tissues (lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland)
Unlikely to manifest with obvious features of infection
Steady decline of CD4+ T Cells
Gradual increase of HIV viremia
Lymphadenopathy
2-10 years in duration before transitioning to Crisis Phase
152
Crisis Phase
When the process is no longer referred to as an HIV infection
Sometimes called "full-blown" AIDS
Final phase in the process of this disease
Associated with severe immune dysfuction
Decline of CD4+ T Cells below level of 200 cells per microliter
153
Clinical Features of AIDS
Opportunistic Infections
Tumors
Central Nervous System Disorders
154
Most patients (80%) with AIDS pass away from
Lethal Infections via Opportunistic Infections
155
Characteristic infections of Opportunistic Infections that afflict AIDS patients
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Candidiasis
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Tuberculosis (TB)
156
Is the result of a Pneuocystis Jirovecii infection and produces a fungal lung infection (pneumonia)
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
157
Reported in early 1980's and led to the identification of AIDS
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
158
Common fungal infection in patients with AIDS and commonly affects the oral cavity (thrush), vaginal canal (yeast infection), or esophagus (candida esophagitis)
Candidiasis
159
Common upper respiratory tract infection in individuals without HIV/AIDS, but it commonly affects the G.I. Tract or CNS in patients who are in the crisis phase of AIDS
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
160
Bacterial infection that is a common cause of death, throughout the world
Tuberculosis (TB)
161
Responsible for approximately 1/3 of all AIDS-related deaths, worldwide, but remains uncommon within the U.S.
Tuberculosis (TB)
162
The following cancers are frequently associated with AIDS
Kaposi Sarcoma
| Lymphoma
163
While about _____ of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction
50%
164
Approximately 90% have evidence of _____ damage upon autopsy
CNS
165
Vascular tumor that is an "AIDS-defining" cancer
Kaposi Sarcoma
166
Develops following a Kaposi Sarcoma Herpevirus (HIV) infection
Kaposi Sarcoma
167
Most individuals who are infected with KSHV, but do not have any features until ______ develop.
AIDS
168
When AIDS develops the virus reemerges from dormancy and causes purple spots on the skin that are characteristic of
Kaposi Sarcoma
169
Develops in about 5% (or 1/20) of all patients with AIDS, which is about 10-times more common than those who do not have AIDS.
Lymphoma
170
Causes infectious mononucleosis, they are most likely to manifest with AIDS-related lymphomas
Lymphoma
171
While about 50% of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction, approximately _____ have evidence of CNS damage upon autopsy
90%
172
Extracellular fibrillar proteins (amyloid proteins) are deposited and cause tissue damage and dysfunction
Amyloidosis
173
All amyloid deposits are composed of
Nonbranching Fibrils
174
Aggregates of amyloid proteins are unable to be removed via
Phagocytosis
175
Aggregates of amyloid proteins initiate an ____________reaction at the site where they accumulate.
Inflammatory
176
Fibril
Slender Fiber
177
Forms of Amyloid Proteins
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
β-Amyloid (Aβ)
Transthyretin (TTR)
178
Form of amyloid protein that is composed of immunoglobulin light chains
Characteristically associated with the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
179
Most cases of primary amyloidosis involve
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
180
Form of amyloid protein that is associated with Alzheimer Disease
β-Amyloid (Aβ)
181
Form of amyloid protein that is most likely to be deposited in individuals with chronic inflammatory conditions
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
182
Most cases of secondary amyloidosis involve
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
183
Following conditions such as Tuberculosis, Osteomyelitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Crohn's Disease, Ulcerative Colitis are all characteristic of
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
184
β-Amyloid (Aβ) plaques are neurotoxic and cause neurdegeneration that results in the dementia of
Alzheimer's Disease
185
Form of amyloid protein that accumulates in excessive amounts more commonly in older individuals.
Transthyretin (TTR)
186
_____________ commonly accumulates in the walls of the heart of patients with senile cardiac amyloidosis
Transthyretin (TTR)
187
If Transthyretin (TTR) proteins accumulate throughout many organ systems, it may be referred to as
Senile Systemic Amyloidosis
188
Distribution of amyloid proteins that involves multiple organ systems in various regions of the body
Systemic Amyloidosis
189
The most common cause of systemic amyloidosis is when ___________ proteins accumulate following the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
190
__________ amyloid deposition comes with a poorer prognosis than _______ amyloid depostion.
Systemic
| Localized
191
Accumulation of amyloid proteins in a singular (isolated) region of the body.
Localized Amyloidosis
192
Common areas of localized Amyloidosis
```
Heart
Lungs
Ligaments of the wrist
Tongue
Larynx
Brain
Skin
Liver
Kidney
Spleen
```
193
Regardless of the location, when amyloid proteins accumulate, they cause changes in the
Tissue Structure
194
The diagnosis of amyloidosis requires ___________ evaluation
Histological
195
Congo Red dye is commonly combined with polarized light to produce the characteristic
Apple-Green Birefringence
196
Renal and Heart Failure are the most common cause of death related to
Amyloidosis
197
Neoplasm translates to
New Growth (tumors)
198
All tumors involve __________ cellular growth
Dysregulated
199
Neoplasms may be ________ or _______
Benign
| Malignant
200
Anticipated or usual course of a disease
Prognosis
201
Neoplasms that have "relatively innocent" cellular characteristics
Benign Tumors
202
The majority of benign tumors are ___________ to a single area and will not ____________ to other sites
Localized
| Metastasize (Spread)
203
The majority of benign tumors do not cause harm and are limited to only _________ significiance
Cosmetic
204
What are the three critical locations that a benign tumor may be found and cause harm?
Vessels
Nerves
Glandular Tissue
205
Tend to be slow growing, encapsulated or surrounded by CT, fairly mobile when palpated and localized
Benign Tumors
206
This type of tumor is more likely to be surgically removed, due to lack of invasiveness into surrounding tissues
Benign Tumors
207
Patients are unlikely to die from ________ tumors
Benign
208
The naming of bengin tumors commonly involves the suffix
-oma
209
If a benign tumor is found in Fibrotic Tissue
Fibroma
210
If a benign tumor is found in Fat Tissue
Lipoma
211
If a benign tumor is found in Cartilaginous Tissue
Chondroma
212
If a benign tumor is found in Glandular Tissue
Adenoma
213
The Melanocytic Nevus is an example of a benign tumor, most people refer to this as a
Mole
214
3 Primary examples of common tumor masses
Polyps
Papilloma
Hamartoma
215
Mass of tissue that projects above a mucosal surface
Polyp
216
Until a mass is biopsied and histologically evaluated is it known as a
Polyp
217
Benign epithelia neoplasm that produces microscopic "finger-like fronds", very small extensions or outgrowths away from the surface
Papilloma
218
Macroscopically, areas of papilomatous growth appear as a
Wart
219
Papillomas are stimulated by _______ ____________ infections
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
220
HPV is able to infect _________ cells.
Epithelial
221
Mass of tissue that is overgrowing and the tissues involved are native to the site/tissues at the area of involvement
Hamartoma
222
All tumors are composed of a
Parenchyma
| Stroma
223
Genetically altered component of the tumor and determines the biological nature of the tumor
Parenchyma
224
Composed of the tissues that support and surround the parenchymal mass and provides blood supply and supportive structure to the tumor.
Stroma
225
Successful tumors must have a supportive ________ in the same way a seed needs an appropriate soil to grow.
Stroma
226
The degree to which tumor cells resemble their cell of origin
Differentiation
227
Lack of differentiation in neoplastic cells
Anaplasia
228
Anaplastic tumors involve cells that lack
Specialization
229
The term anaplasia translates into
To form backward
230
Involve multiple tissue types because differentiation occurred in multiple directions, resulting in multiple tissue types.
Mixed Tumors
231
Contain a fibrotic component as well as a glandular component and are the most common benign tumor of the female breast
Fibroadenoma
232
The salivary glands are also very likely to produce a classically mixed benign tumor, known as
Pleomorphic Adenoma
233
Mixed tissue tumors are more likely to be ________ and less ____________
Benign
| Aggressive
234
Tumor that involves at least two of the three embryonic germ cells layers.
Teratomas
235
Frequently described as containing cells from all three germ cell layers
Teratomas
236
Tumor that involve tissue types such as bone, cartilage, epithelial, muscle, fat, hair, teeth, or nerves.
Teratomas
237
Teratomas may be ________ or _________
Benign
| Malignant
238
Malignant neoplasms that originate from solid mesenchymal origin are referred to as
Sarcomas (or Carcinomas)
239
Cancers that arise from mesenchymal cells in the blood are referred to as
Leukemia or Lymphoma
240
WBC cancer that is in circulating blood or in the bone marrow
Leukemia
241
WBC cancer in the lymphatic system
Lymphoma
242
Among the most common pediatric tumors are _________ and _______ _______
```
Leukemia
Bone Cancer (Osteosarcoma)
```
243
If a sarcoma is found in fat cells
Liposarcoma
244
If a sarcoma is found in fibrotic tissue
Fibrosarcoma
245
If a sarcoma is found in smooth muscle cells
Leiomyosarcoma
246
If a sarcoma is found in skeletal muscle cells
Rhabdomyosarcoma
247
If a sarcoma is found in cartilage
Chondrosarcoma
248
If a sarcoma is found in vessel walls
Angiosarcoma
249
If a sarcoma is found in bone
Osteosarcoma
250
Cancers that originate from epithelial cells and are most common form of cancer cells
Carcinomas
251
More likely to be age-related cancers that are very unlikely to develop in the first half of life
Carcinomas
252
Major categories of carcinomas are those that develop in a _________ or ________ pattern.
Glandular
| Squamous
253
If carcinomas are found in lung and bronchial tissues
Bronchogenic Carcinoma (Lung Cancer)
254
If carcinomas are found in kidneys
Renal Cell Carcinoma
255
If carcinomas are found in skin
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma
256
If carcinomas are found in liver
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
257
If carcinomas are found in prostate
Prostatic Adenocarcinoma
258
If carcinomas are found in colorectal tissue
Colorectal Adenocarcinoma
259
If carcinomas are found in pancreas
Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma
260
Carcinomas develop in a predictable pattern or pre-cancerous known as
Dysplasia
261
Disorderly proliferation of cells and is a risk for further cellular irregulatirites
Dysplasia
262
Involves irregular epithelial cells and is characterized by a loss of cellular uniformity among individual cells as well as a loss of an organized cellular orientation
Dysplasia
263
The earliest form of cancer and commonly referred to as "pre-invasive" cancer
Carcinoma in situ
264
The phrase 'in situ' is Latin for
In its original place
265
Stage 0
Earliest stage of cancer
266
Earliest stage of cancer has yet to penetrate the surrounding _________ membrane
Basement
267
Lies at the division between pre-neoplastic lesions and invasive carcinomas
Carcinoma in situ
268
Very common form of stage 0 breast cancer that is frequently discovered upon mammography
Ductal Carcinoma in situ
269
Benign tumors are more likely to have cells with greater degrees of _________ while malignant tumors are more likely to contain ___________
Differentiation
| Anaplasia
270
Rapid growth is associated with ________ tumors
Malignant
271
Rapidly growing tumors are more likely to contain cellular ______ and have prominent mitotic figures
Anaplasia
272
Prominent mitotic figures are indicative that the mass is
Growing more quickly
273
Local invasion may also beknown as
Infiltration or Local Destruction
274
Because benign tumors tend to grow more slowly, and form a rim of compressed fibrotic tissue which creates a distinct line where the tumor starts and stops as is referred to as
Encapsulated
275
When a tumor is encapsulated it is less likely to be affixed to the surrounding tissue and is more ______ upon palpation
Mobile
276
Not all benign tumors are ___________, but they are more likely to be
Encapsulated
277
Cancers are more likely to be
Unencapsulated
278
Spread of a tumor to distant sites within the body that are no longer continuous with the primary tumor
Metastasis ("Mets")
279
Characteristic that unequivocally indicates that a tumor is malignant
Metastasis
280
Malignant neoplasms metastasize three primary routes
Seeding within body cavities
Lymphatic Spread
Hematogenous Spread
281
This route of metastasis is relatively rare and characteristic of ovarian cancers or cancers of the CNS
Seeding within body cavities of Metastasis
282
Characteristic route of metastasis for carcinomas
Lymphatic Spread of Metastasis
283
The ________ _______ node is the first lymph node that receives lymphatic drainage from the area where the primary tumor is located.
Sentinel Lymph
284
Enlargement of the lymph nodes is known as
Lymphadenopathy
285
Lymph nodes that contain cancer metastasis may or may not be _______ to palpation
Tender
286
Over time, metastatic cancer may spread from the lymph nodes to the hematopoietic system via the
Thoracic Duct
287
Characteristic route of metastasis for sarcomas
Hematopoietic Spread of Metastasis
288
Since sarcomas are of CT origin (mesenchymal), it is reasonable for these types of tumors to metastasize via the
Blood
289
Cancers within the hemaotopietic system frequently spread to the first __________ _____ that is encountered.
Capillary Bed
