Exam 3 pathopharm Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

overactivity of thyroid (Excessive amounts of thyroid hormones are produced and released into the circulation)

A

Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

accompanied by opthalmopathy (or dermopathy) and diffuse goiter. Onset between 20-40 years more likely in women. Characterized by abnormal stimulation of thyroid gland by thyroid-stimulating antibodies that act through the normal TSH receptors.

A

Graves’ Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

6 causes of hyperthyroidism

A
  1. Graves’ Disease
  2. Multinodular Goiter
  3. Adenoma of the thyroid
  4. Thyroiditis
  5. Iodine-containing agents
  6. Thyroid Crisis (thyroid storm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

acutely exaggerated manifestation of the thyrotoxic state. Life-threatening.

A

Thyroid Crisis (thyroid storm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the s/sx of hyperthyroidism

A

Increased body temperature, tachycardia, thin skin, palpitations, hypertension, flushing, intolerance to heat, amenorrhea, weight loss, and goiter, lose weight, sweat, hot, red, increased metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the treatments for hyperthyroidism?

A

Directed toward reducing the level of thyroid hormone. Accomplished with eradication of the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine, through surgical removal of part or all of the gland, or with the use of drugs that decrease thyroid function and thereby the effect of the thyroid hormone on the peripheral tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

administered to block effects of the hyperthyroid state on sympathetic nervous system.
They are given in conjunction with antithyroid drugs (propylthiouracil and methimazole) that act by inhibiting the thyroid gland from using iodine in thyroid hormone synthesis and by blocking the conversion of T4 to T3 in the tissues.

A

Beta-adrenergic blocking drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

underactivity of thyroid- can be congenital (from mom)

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Congenital causes of hypothyroidism

A

absence of the thyroid gland.
lack of suff iodine in the diet to produce the needed level of TH
Lack of suff fxning thyroid tissue due to tumor or autoimmune disorders
lack of TRH related to a tumor of disorder of the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acquired causes of hypothyroidism

A
Hasimoto thryoiditis (MOST common cause)--> thyroid gland may be totally destroyed by immunologic process (women) 
Thyroidectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 manifestations of hypothyroidism

A

Hypometabolic state
Myxedematous fluid
Myxedematous coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

characterized by gradual onstet of weakness and fatigue, tendency to gain weight despite loss of appetite, cold intolerance. Skin becomes dry and rough and hair becomes coarse and brittle. Increased blood levels of carotene give skin yellowish look.

A

Hypometabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is most obvious in the face and can collect in interstitial spaces of almost any body structure. The tongue is enlarged and voice becomes hoarse and husky. Carpal tunnel and entrapment syndromes are common, impairment of muscle function with stiffness, cramps, and pain.

A

Myxedematous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

life-threatening, end-stage expression of hypothyroidism: coma, hypothermia, CV collapse, hypoventilation, severe metabolic disorders including hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and lactic acidosis

A

Myxedematous coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Tx of hypothyroidism: 
Levothyroxine
Thyroid Desiccated
Liothyronine
Liotrix
A
  1. synthetic salt of T4
  2. prepared from dried animal thryoid galnds and contains both T3 and T4.
  3. Synthetic salt of T3
  4. Synthetic preparation of T4/T3 in a standard 4:1 ratio.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Disorder of the adrenal cortex;: Excessive anterior pituitary secretion of ACTH. Usually a tumor. something wrong with HPAxis (check CRH levels)

A

Cushing’s Disease/Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

S/Sx of Cushing’s Disease

A
Excessive level of cortisol
weight gain (truncal obsestiy, moon face)
glucose intolerance/ DM
Polyuria
Muscle wasting/weakness
Weak integumentary tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TX of Cushing’s Disease

A

CRH: stimulates release of ACTH from anterior pituitary- used to diagnose Cushing’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Primary adrenal cortical insufficiency

2. Severe hypotension and vascular collapse

A
  1. Addison Disease

2. Addison Crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stimulate an increase in glucose levels for energy. used systemically in endocrine disorders.When produced as a part of stress response, these hormones aid in regulating the metabolic functions of the body and in controlling inflammatory response.

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the actions of Glucocorticoids

A
  1. Enter target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors
  2. initiate many complex runs respon. for anti-inflmm and immunosupp. effects
  3. Hydrocortisone, cortisone, prednisone have some mineralocorticoid activity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 Indications for the use of Glucocorticoids

A
  1. short-term tx of many inflm disorders
  2. to relieve discomfort
  3. give the body a chance to heal from the effects of inflm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Affect electrolyte levels and homeostasis. Play essential role in regulating potassium and sodium levels and water balance. Aldosterone secretion is regulated by rennin-angiotensin mechanism and by blood levels of potassium. Increased levels of aldosterone promote sodium retention by distal tubules of kidney while increasing urinary losses of potassium

A

Mineralcorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Male and female sex hormones

A

Androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
growth hormone excess in adulthood (called gigantism in childhood). Exaggerated growth of the ends of the extremities
Acromegaly
26
GH-secreting adenomas, most of which are benign. When the production of excessive GH occurs after the epiphyses of the long bones have closed, as in the adult, the person cannot grow taller, but the soft tissues continue to grow. This is the cause of what?
Acromegaly
27
CAN a father pass on an X linked disease to the son?
NO
28
graphic method for portraying a family history of an inherited trait. Constructed from a carefully obtained family hx and useful for tracing pattern of inheritance for a particular trait.
Pedigree
29
ordered display of chromosomes
Karyotype
30
A person's physical characteristics
Phenotype
31
A person's genetic material
Genotype
32
associated with the X chromosome, are those in which an unaffecyed mother carries one normal and one mutant allele on the X chromosome. She has a 50% chance of transmitting the defective gene to her sons who are affected, and her daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers of the mutant gene. Because of a normal paired gene, female heterozygotes rarely experience the effects of a defective gene.
Sex-linked disorders
33
single mutant allele from affected parent is transmitted to offspring regardless of sex. Affected parent has a 50% chance of transmitting the disorder to each offspring
Autosomal Dominant Disorders
34
manifested only when both members of the gene pair are affected. Usually, both parents are unaffected but are carriers of the defective gene. Their chances of having an affected child are 1/4; of having a carrier child, 2/4; and of having a noncarrier unaffected child ¼.
Autosomal Recessive Disorders
35
If two parents are both carriers of a genetic condition with a recessive inheritance pattern, there is a one-in-four chance that each child will be affected. So on average, one-quarter of their children will be affected. There is also a one-in-two chance that each child will be an unaffected carrier, like the parents. Examples of genetic conditions that show a recessive pattern of inheritance are cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell disease, Tay-Sachs disease and phenylketoneuria.
Recessive Inheritance
36
trait is seen much more often in males. bc a father can give a son only a Y chrome, trait is NEVER transmitted from a father to a son.The gene can be transmitted through a series of carrier females, causing the appearance of one or more “skipped generations.The gene is passed from an affected father to all his daughters
X linked Inheritance
37
the variation in a phenotype associated with a particular genotype. This can be caused by modifier genes
Expressivity
38
Examples of expressivity
``` Von Recklinghausen's disease. Neurofibromatosis 1 Autosomal dominant Long arm of chrom 17 disease varies from dark spots on the skin to malignantneurofibromas, scoliosis, gliomas, neuromas. ```
39
specific genotype who also express the expected phenotype
Penetrance
40
Individual who has the gene for a disease but does not express the disease ex: Retinoblastoma (eye tumor in children) demonstrates this (90%)
Incomplete Penetrance
41
cells and organisms are those containing more than two paired (homologous) sets of chromosomes.
Chromosomal Polyploidy
42
A somatic cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. This is usually the result of nondisjunction, an error in which homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate normally during meiosis or mitosis
Chromosomal Aneuploidy
43
is the presence of only one copy of any chromosome; often lethal
Monosomy
44
cell containing three copies of one chromosome; infants can survive with this of certain chromosomes; most common 13, 18, 21; Down syndrome
Trisomy
45
5 environmental factors for disease
1. Teratogens 2. Radiation 3. Chemicals 4. Drugs 5. Infection
46
When undifferentiated, rapidly dividing cells mutate, they form rapidly dividing tumors. A neoplasm or tumor that is harmful, resisting treatment, threatening to produce death
Malignant Tumors (cancers)
47
the more differentiated a cell is when it mutates, the more likely it will become a 1; if poorly differentiated cells mutate, the tumor is more likely to become a 2
1. Benign tumor | 2. Malignant tumor
48
tissue name + carcinoma
Epithelial tissue
49
tissue name + sarcoma
Mesenchymal Tissue
50
effects of malignant tumors on the organ system include?
inflammation and damage, which ultimately lead to organ failure. In all cases the organ cannot function optimally, and is unable to secrete the normal/typical amount of hormones.
51
benign tumors may cause ? of normal organ secretions
overproduction
52
Grow rapidly, not encapsulated, invasive, poorly differentiated, high mitotic index, can spread distantly (metastasis)
Malignant
53
Grow slowly, well-defined capsule, not invasive, well differentiated, low mitotic index, do NOT metastasize
Benign
54
Growth of new vessels to provide blood supply to cancer Advanced cancers can secrete these factors (VEGF) Not likely to occur in small cancers, as cancers grow they need there own blood supply for oxygen and nutrients
Angiogenesis
55
environmental risk factor for cancer; Multipotent carcinogenic mixture Linked to cancers of the lung, lower urinary tract, aerodigestive tract, liver, kidney, pancreas, cervix uteri Linked to myeloid leukemia
Tobacco
56
environmental risk factor for cancer; Emission from x-rays, radioisotopes, and other radioactive sources Exposure causes cell death, gene mutations, and chromosome aberrations Bystander effects Poor gene repair Changes in gap junction intercellular communication
Ionizing Radiation
57
environmental risk factor for cancer; Causes basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma Principal source is sunlight Ultraviolet A (UVA) and ultraviolet B (UVB) Promotes skin inflammation and release of free radicals
Ultraviolet Radiation
58
environmental risk factor for cancer; Risk factor for oral cavity, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, esophagus, and liver cancers Cigarette/alcohol combination increases a person’s risk
Alcohol Consumption
59
environmental risk factor for cancer; Carcinogenic types of human papillomavirus High-risk HPV
Sexual Reproductive behavior
60
environmental risk factor for cancer; Reduces cancer risk Decreases insulin and insulin-like growth factors Decreases obesity Decreases inflammatory mediators and free radicals Increased gut motility
Physical activity
61
environmental risk factor for cancer; Asbestos Dyes, rubber, paint, explosives, rubber cement, heavy metals, air pollution, etc. Radon
Occupational Hazards
62
environmental risk factor for cancer; Xenobiotics Toxic, mutagenic, and carcinogenic chemicals in food Activated by phase I activation enzymes Defense mechanisms Phase II detoxification enzymes (Ex: cooking of fat, meat, proteins/ mold by-products)
Diet
63
How do you determine tumor grading?
Cell Differentiation 1. classifies cancer cells 2. degree of microscopic abnormality 3. struc and growth pattern of the cells--how differentiated they are 4. determines the tumor growth and spread potential
64
Increased nuclear size, loss of differentiation- act embryonic-very little differentiation. divide more frequently; replicate easily; rapid growth; the more of this=the more serious the cancer
Anaplasia
65
vary in size and shape
Pleomorphism
66
Oncogenic virus is one that can induce cancer. How many DNA viruses have been implicated in human cancers
4
67
pathogenesis squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix and anogenital region. Cervical cancer can be viewed as an STD, caused by transmission of it
HPV
68
member of herpes virus, has been implicated in pathogenesis of Burkitt hymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, B-cell lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, B-cell lymphomas in immunosuppressed (AIDS) and some cases of Hodgkin lymphoma.
Epstein- Barr Virus (EBV)
69
Chronic HBV and HCV infection with hepatocellular carcinoma due to immunologically mediated chronic inflammation leading to persistent liver damage, regeneration, and genomic damage. The regeneration process is mediated by a vast array of growth factors, cytokines, chemokines, and bioactive substances produced by immune cells that promote cell survival, tissue remodeling, and angiogenesis.
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
70
Causes Kaposi sarcoma in persons with AIDs
Human Herpes Virus 8 (HHV-8)
71
only known retrovirus to cause cancer in humans- associated with form of T-cell leukemia. It is attracted to CD4+ T cells, which is the major target for cancerous transformation. The virus requires transmission of infected T cells by way of sexual intercourse, infected blood, or breast milk
Human T-cell Leukemia Virus-1 (HTLV-1)
72
Helicobacter Pylori; gastric adenocarcinoma and gastric lymphomas are what?
Bacterial causes of cancers
73
Degree of cancer spread (3)
1. Local 2. Regional 3. Distant
74
``` Clinical staging for Carcinoma: Stage 1: Stage 2: Stage 3: Stage 4: ```
Stage 1: confined to the original organ Stage 2: Locally invasive Stage 3: Spread to regional sites (Lymph nodes) Stage 4: Spread to distant sites (metastasis)
75
``` Tumor grading: GX: G1: G2: G3: G4: ```
GX: Grade cannot be assessed (undetermined grade) G1: Well-differentiated (Low grade) G2: Moderately differentiated (Intermediate grade) G3: Poorly differentiated (high grade) G4: Undifferentiated (high grade)
76
Tumor grading is used to identify 4
1. How differentiated the cells are 2. How much the cancer cells have spread 3. the size of a solid tumor 4. the involvement of lymph nodes
77
Can damage or destroy some neoplastic cells;T cells recognize the abnormal cells and destroy them Antibodies form in response to parts of the abnormal cell protein
Cancer's effect on blood cells
78
Risk for developing serious infections
Neutropenia
79
Increases risk for bleeding
Thrombocytopenia
80
increases vascular permeability; mitogenic for endothelial cells of blood vessels.When it is overexpressed, it can contribute to disease. Solid cancers cannot grow beyond a limited size without an adequate blood supply; cancers that can express this are able to grow and metastasize
Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
81
Systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as distant sites. It may be used as primary form of treatment or as part of a multimodal treatment plan.
Chemotherapy
82
It is the primary treatment for most hematologic and some solid tumors, including choriocarcinoma, testicular cancer, acute and chronic leukemia, Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin disease, and multiple myeloma
Chemotherapy
83
Triggering suicide of cancer cells
Apoptosis
84
Chemo suppresses bone marrow function and formation of blood cells, leading to anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting Alopecia/hair loss Toxicity to all cells acute (after a few days), intermediate(within weeks), or long term( months-years)
Adverse effects of Chemotherapy
85
Goals of Cancer treatment: Destroying cancer cells through several methods
Surgery to remove them; stimulation of the immune system to destroy them; radiation therapy to destroy them; drug therapy to kill them during various phases of the cell cycle.
86
exert their action during a specific phase of the cell cycle
Cell cycle specific
87
exert effects throughout all phases of the cell cycle
Cell cycle-nonspecific
88
React chemically with portions of the RNA, DNA, or other cellular proteins
Alkylating Agents
89
Have chemical structures similar to those of natural metabolites
Antimetabolites
90
Not selective only for bacterial cells; toxic to human cells
Antineoplastic Antibiotics
91
Drugs that kill cells as the process of mitosis begins
Mitotic Inhibitors
92
Used in cancers that are sensitive to estrogen stimulation
Hormones and Hormone Modulators
93
Treat chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and CD117-positive unresectable or metastatic malignant GI stromal tumors (GIST)
Cancer Cell Specific Agents
94
Chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)
Prevention of CINV is most effective; tx is very difficult once it has begun; tx Pt PRIOR to administration of chemotherapy; select meds to control nausea/ vomiting.
95
promote the synthesis of various types of major blood components by promoting the growth, or differentiation, and function of their precursor cells in the bone marrow
Hematopoietic Drugs