Exam 3 practice test Flashcards by Ayat Alkhatib

What is a major cause of software failure?
A. Hardware overheating
B. User input only
C. Defects or errors in software
D. Poor internet connection

C. Defects or errors in software

Explanation:
Software failure happens when the program doesn’t behave as expected. This is often caused by defects or errors in the software’s code (also called bugs or faults). These errors can result from things like mistakes made by programmers during development, or even from unexpected interactions between different parts of the software. Hardware issues or poor internet connection might cause problems too, but defects in the software itself are usually the most common cause of failure.

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According to the Chaos Report (2020), what percent of software projects are challenged?
A. 31%
B. 19%
C. 50%
D. 100%

C. 50%

Explanation:
The Chaos Report (2020) by the Standish Group found that 50% of software projects are “challenged.” This means they were delivered later than expected, over budget, or missing key features. Only 31% of projects were considered successful, and 19% were canceled before completion. The term “challenged” refers to projects that, while completed, didn’t meet the original goals or expectations in full.

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Which is NOT one of the essential problems of software?
A. Complexity
B. Invisibility
C. Portability
D. Changeability

C. Portability

Explanation:
Portability refers to how easily software can be moved and used on different systems or platforms. While portability is important in some software development scenarios, it’s not listed as one of the primary challenges mentioned in the material about software development problems. The real problems highlighted are things like complexity, changeability, invisibility, and testing.

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Why is software considered invisible?
A. It cannot be physically touched
B. It lacks documentation
C. It is encrypted
D. It has no interface

A. It cannot be physically touched

Explanation:
Software is invisible because, unlike hardware (which you can touch and see), software is intangible—it exists only in code and data. You can’t physically interact with it, and it only “shows up” when it’s executed (i.e., running on a computer). This makes it hard to visualize or understand by looking at it directly, unlike physical objects or even hardware.

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What does software conformity mean?
A. Users adapt to the software
B. Software adapts to the existing systems
C. Software runs on any OS
D. Software follows ISO standards

B. Software adapts to the existing systems

Explanation:
Conformity means that when software is designed to work in a specific environment (like a factory or a medical system), it must adapt to the existing systems and processes. For example, you wouldn’t change how a factory works just because you introduce new software. The software must conform to how the factory operates, not the other way around.

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How many defects are there typically in 1,000 lines of code?
A. 1–3
B. 5–15
C. 10–50
D. None

B. 5–15

Explanation:
According to the Software Engineering Institute (SEI), there are typically 5 to 15 defects (errors or flaws) for every 1,000 lines of code. This is a general estimate. It means that even well-written software can still have flaws. These defects are usually found through testing, but some might slip through and be noticed later by users.

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What is the biggest challenge with testing large software systems?
A. Cost of software licenses
B. Too many test cases to cover
C. Compiler errors
D. Lack of documentation

B. Too many test cases to cover

Explanation:
When testing large software systems, the biggest problem is the massive number of possible scenarios (test cases) that need to be checked. For example, if there are many factors, each with several conditions, the number of combinations grows quickly. You can’t test every single possibility because there would simply be too many to handle. This is called the combinatorial explosion problem.

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Which type of program is developed by many and used by many?
A. Program complete in itself
B. Program as a product
C. Program as a system
D. Program as a product and system

D. Program as a product and system

Explanation:
A program as a product and system is the most complex type of software. It’s developed by many people (often a large team of developers) and is used by many people (large-scale systems). Examples include enterprise software like ERP systems, MS Office, or large online systems like Amazon. These programs serve many users, require careful coordination between different parts of the software, and are often very large and complex to develop and maintain.

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What is the main goal of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A) To define the organization’s budget
B) To develop a systematic approach for building information systems
C) To hire IT professionals for a project
D) To create marketing strategies

B) To develop a systematic approach for building information systems

Explanation: SDLC provides a structured methodology for developing information systems that support business needs.

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Which phase focuses on defining the scope and evaluating the feasibility of a system project?
A) Analysis
B) Implementation
C) Project Initial Study (Planning)
D) System Design

C) Project Initial Study (Planning)

Explanation: The initial study phase defines the project objectives, scope, and feasibility, ensuring the project is worth pursuing.

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In which SDLC phase do system components and user requirements get prioritized?
A) System Design
B) User Requirement Analysis
C) System Analysis
D) Implementation

B) User Requirement Analysis

Explanation: This phase involves identifying and prioritizing business needs and user requirements for the proposed system.

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What does Brooks Law state regarding project management?
A) Adding more people to a project can reduce costs.
B) Adding more people to a project can make it later.
C) Time Boxing ensures quicker project completion.
D) Gantt charts are the most efficient management tools.

B) Adding more people to a project can make it later.

Explanation: Brooks Law highlights that adding manpower to a late project often results in even more delays due to the overhead of communication and coordination.

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Which tool is used to visually represent the phases, tasks, and activities in a project?
A) PERT
B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C) Gantt Chart
D) CASE

C) Gantt Chart
Explanation: A Gantt chart is a common project management tool that visually tracks tasks, their progress, and dependencies over time.

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What is the main goal of the Project Initial Study?
A. Design the software architecture
B. Understand technical requirements
C. Define project goals and feasibility
D. Train project staff

C. Define project goals and feasibility

Explanation: The purpose is to determine why the system is needed and whether it’s feasible.

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Which of the following is NOT part of a typical system request?
A. Expected business value
B. User interface layout
C. Project sponsor
D. Business needs

B. User interface layout

Explanation: The system request defines high-level goals and constraints, not detailed UI designs.

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What kind of feasibility examines whether the system will be accepted and used?
A. Economic
B. Technical
C. Operational
D. Legal

C. Operational

Explanation: Operational feasibility is about adoption and usefulness.

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Which cost is considered recurring?
A. User training
B. Software licensing fees
C. Site preparation
D. Equipment purchase

B. Software licensing fees

Explanation: Licensing fees occur regularly, unlike one-time setup costs.

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What is the best method for gathering user requirements as a group?
A. Interviews
B. JAD
C. Surveys
D. Walkthroughs

B. JAD

Explanation: JAD is a collaborative group method designed to gather and finalize requirements.

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Which of the following is NOT part of the Gane and Sarson DFD notation?
A. External Entity
B. Decision Node
C. Data Flow
D. Process

B. Decision Node

Explanation: Decision nodes are not part of DFDs. DFDs focus on data movement, not logic branching.

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What is the primary goal of system analysis?
A. Design interfaces
B. Choose programming languages
C. Define functional requirements
D. Write test cases

C. Define functional requirements

Explanation: System analysis is about understanding what the system must do, i.e., functional requirements.

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In a Context DFD, how many processes should there be?
A. As many as needed
B. One for each external entity
C. Just one
D. One for each data flow

C. Just one

Explanation: Context DFD has a single process representing the whole system.

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Which of the following is a correct label for a DFD process?
A. Customer
B. Student Data
C. Calculate Gross Pay
D. Report

C. Calculate Gross Pay

Explanation: Processes are labeled with verb phrases, showing actions performed on data.

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What DFD rule is violated when two external entities are directly connected?
A. Rule of Fork
B. Process Input/Output Rule
C. No Direct Connection Rule
D. Recursive Flow Rule

C. No Direct Connection Rule

Explanation: External entities must communicate through a process, not directly with each other.

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What is the main purpose of a Context DFD?
A) To show all system internals
B) To analyze data accuracy
C) To provide an overview of the system with external interactions
D) To show detailed process flows

C) To provide an overview of the system with external interactions

Explanation: A Context DFD gives a high-level snapshot of the system as a single process and its interactions with external entities.

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What key element is NOT included in a Context DFD? A) Data flows B) External entities C) Internal data stores D) Single process

C) Internal data stores Explanation: Context DFD does not show internal data stores—it’s too high-level for that.

In a Level 0 DFD, how are the processes labeled? A) With nouns only B) With random numbers C) With verbs and unique numbers D) Alphabetically

C) With verbs and unique numbers Explanation: Each process is labeled with a verb (action) and given a unique number like 1, 2, 3.

What does vertical balancing ensure? A) Processes are not too long B) Context and Level 0 DFDs are consistent C) External entities are connected D) The database is normalized

B) Context and Level 0 DFDs are consistent Explanation: Vertical balancing ensures that what’s shown in the Context DFD also appears in the Level 0 DFD.

What is true about Level 1 DFDs? A) They show the same as Level 0 B) They further detail complex Level 0 processes C) They only show external entities D) They include every table in a database

B) They further detail complex Level 0 processes Explanation: Level 1 DFDs break down complex Level 0 processes into smaller parts.

What is the primary goal of process specification? A. Improve system performance B. Document process flow visually C. Remove ambiguity by describing process logic D. Build a working prototype

C. Remove ambiguity by describing process logic Explanation: Process specification reduces uncertainty and clearly explains what happens in a process.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to skip creating a process specification? A. It’s a simple data validation process B. The process is primitive C. The process uses prewritten code D. It is a basic input/output process

B. The process is primitive Explanation: Primitive processes must have specifications unless they fall into exceptions like prewritten code or simple I/O.

What technique should be used when there are many combinations of conditions and rules? A. Structured English B. Flowchart C. Decision Table D. Use Case Diagram

C. Decision Table Explanation: Decision tables handle complex condition-action combinations effectively.

In Structured English, what kind of control structure is used to perform an action until a condition is met? A. Sequential B. Decision C. Iteration D. Nested

C. Iteration Explanation: Iteration structures loop actions until a condition becomes false.

What is a benefit of using a decision tree over a decision table? A. Handles input/output well B. Is easier to implement in code C. Visualizes complex branching D. Reduces code redundancy

C. Visualizes complex branching Explanation: Decision trees are great for visualizing multiple branches and sequences.

1. What best describes an entity in ER modeling? A. A dataflow B. A named property C. A thing of relevance to the business D. A process step

C. A thing of relevance to the business Explanation: Entities are things the business wants to track data about.

What is the primary purpose of the ER model? A. Process automation B. Data visualization C. Detailed conceptual data structure D. System testing

C. Detailed conceptual data structure Explanation: The ER model defines the structure and relationships of data.

Which of the following is an example of a unary relationship? A. Student → Course B. Employee → Supervisor C. Product → Order D. Faculty → Class

B. Employee → Supervisor Explanation: Unary = self-relationship. One employee supervises another.

In a One-to-Many relationship, which notation is used on the "many" side? A. Circle B. Vertical bar C. Crow’s foot D. Dashed line

C. Crow’s foot Explanation: The crow’s foot notation represents the "many" side.

Why do we use an associative entity? A. To simplify 1:1 relationships B. To connect attributes C. To break down M:M into 1:M D. To delete redundant data

C. To break down M:M into 1:M Explanation: Associative entities handle many-to-many relationships in ER diagrams.

What is the main focus of system design? A) What the system should do B) How the system will do it C) Who will use the system D) Where the system will be used

B) How the system will do it Explanation: System design focuses on the technical "how" of implementing user requirements.

What is the role of the logical data model? A) Programming logic B) Physical storage model C) Conceptual model for DBMS D) Hardware specifications

C) Conceptual model for DBMS Explanation: Logical data models define the structure of the database for DBMS interpretation.

Which of the following is NOT a valid integrity constraint? A) Key constraint B) Referential integrity C) Attribute multiplicity D) Entity integrity

C) Attribute multiplicity Explanation: Attribute multiplicity (multi-valued fields) violates relational model rules.

In a one-to-many relationship, where is the foreign key placed? A) One side B) Many side C) Both sides D) Neither

B) Many side Explanation: FK goes on the "many" side to reference the "one" side’s PK.

What does a primary key ensure? A) Data encryption B) Unique identification C) Fast sorting D) Increased redundancy

B) Unique identification Explanation: Primary keys uniquely identify each record.

Which model became the industry standard for databases? A) Hierarchical B) Network C) Relational D) Object-oriented

C) Relational Explanation: Relational model is the de facto standard in modern DB systems.

What does SQL primarily handle? A) User interface design B) Data manipulation C) System testing D) Object rendering

B) Data manipulation Explanation: SQL is used to manipulate and query data in relational databases.

A relation must have: A) At least two primary keys B) Only numeric values C) No duplicate rows D) Unlimited columns

C) No duplicate rows Explanation: Duplicate tuples are not allowed in a relation.

Which is a correct mapping from ER to relational model? A) Attribute → Row B) Entity → Column C) Relationship → Foreign key D) UID → Foreign key

C) Relationship → Foreign key Explanation: Relationships are implemented through foreign keys in relational schema.

Which of these tables violates relational model rules? A) CUSTOMER (CustID, Name, City) B) EMPLOYEE (EmpID, Name, Skills) where Skills = English, Spanish C) DEPARTMENT (DeptID, Budget) D) ORDER (OrderID, Date)

B) EMPLOYEE (EmpID, Name, Skills) where Skills = English, Spanish Explanation: Multi-valued attributes like Skills violate relational integrity.

Which of the following is NOT a type of user interface? A) Form-Fill Interface B) Command Language Interface C) Graphical User Interface D) Centralized Interface

D) Centralized Interface Explanation: Centralized Interface is not a recognized type of user interface; it's a term related to computing architecture, not UI design.

In a two-tier client/server architecture, which tasks are typically handled by the client? A) Data Management B) Business Logic and User Interface C) Only User Interface D) Only Business Logic

B) Business Logic and User Interface Explanation: In a two-tier architecture, the client manages both the user interface and business logic, while the server handles data management.

Which principle emphasizes that a user interface should allow users to feel in control of the system? A) Consistency B) User Control C) Aesthetics D) Feedback

B) User Control Explanation: User Control ensures that users can initiate and manage their interactions with the system, enhancing their sense of autonomy.

What is a primary advantage of Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)? A) Tightly coupled components B) Difficult integration with other systems C) Reusable and modular services D) High dependency on platform-specific technologies

C) Reusable and modular services Explanation: SOA promotes loose coupling between components, allowing services to be reused and modular, which improves flexibility, maintainability, and scalability. It also supports integration across platforms and technologies.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of good User Interface (UI) design? A) Making the system intuitive B) Increasing user control C) Maximizing memory usage D) Providing feedback

C) Maximizing memory usage Explanation: UI design focuses on usability, clarity, and user satisfaction—not on using more memory. In fact, good design often optimizes performance.

Which architecture distributes UI, Business Logic, and Data Management across different servers? A) Centralized computing B) Two-tier client/server C) Three-tier client/server D) Command-line architecture

C) Three-tier client/server Explanation: In a 3-tier architecture, the client handles UI, the application server manages business logic, and the database server handles data management. It promotes separation of concerns and better maintainability.

Which UI principle ensures that users can undo actions or recover from mistakes easily? A) Aesthetics B) Forgiveness C) Feedback D) Minimal effort

B) Forgiveness Explanation: Forgiveness in UI design means users should feel safe to explore the system without fear of making irreversible mistakes (e.g., with Undo or Cancel options).

What is a key drawback of a Two-tier client/server system? A) Thin client B) Complex implementation C) Business logic must be updated on every client D) No direct user interface

C) Business logic must be updated on every client Explanation: In two-tier systems, business logic runs on the client side. If changes occur, each client must be updated, making maintenance harder and error-prone.

What is the purpose of a Dialogue Diagram in UI design? A) To show data flow between entities B) To design database schema C) To map screen-to-screen navigation D) To assign programming tasks

C) To map screen-to-screen navigation Explanation: A Dialogue Diagram represents how users move from one screen to another in a system. Each box shows a screen and its possible next steps.

What does UML stand for? A) Unified Modeling Language B) Universal Modeling Logic C) Unstructured Method Language D) User Module Layout

A) Unified Modeling Language Explanation: UML is a standardized visual language for OO systems.

What is the main benefit of inheritance in OOP? A) Reduces encapsulation B) Improves security C) Promotes code reuse D) Makes systems slower

C) Promotes code reuse Explanation: Inheritance allows subclasses to reuse code from their superclasses, reducing duplication.

What is the difference between an object and a class? A) Objects are templates; classes are instances B) Classes are specific data; objects are blueprints C) Classes define structure; objects are instances of classes D) Objects have behaviors; classes do not

C) Classes define structure; objects are instances of classes Explanation: A class defines the structure/behavior; objects are actual instances of those classes.

Which of the following is NOT a UML diagram? A) Class Diagram B) Flowchart Diagram C) Use Case Diagram D) Sequence Diagram

B) Flowchart Diagram Explanation: Flowcharts are not part of UML; UML includes 14 specific diagram types.

What is encapsulation? A) Separating classes B) Hiding object’s internal structure C) Sharing data freely between objects D) Overriding parent class behavior

B) Hiding object’s internal structure Explanation: Encapsulation hides the internal workings of an object and only exposes necessary methods.

What is the main purpose of a use case diagram? A. To define database structure B. To model how users interact with the system C. To implement system logic D. To validate class hierarchy

B. To model how users interact with the system Explanation: Use case diagrams visually represent how users interact with the system’s functions.

Which of the following best describes an actor in a use case model? A. Always a human user B. Only internal system components C. Any external entity that interacts with the system D. Only software programs

C. Any external entity that interacts with the system Explanation: An actor can be a human or an external system initiating an action.

What does the basic course in a use case description represent? A. All possible user actions B. The system's class diagram C. The most common or expected sequence of events D. The error paths of the system

C. The most common or expected sequence of events Explanation: Basic course is the normal, expected flow of interaction between user and system.

Which UML symbol represents a system boundary in a use case diagram? A. Circle B. Dashed line C. Rectangle D. Arrow

C. Rectangle Explanation: A rectangle represents the system boundary enclosing use cases.

Why is the use case modeling called a logical model? A. It includes all technical implementation details B. It shows exact class relations C. It describes what the system does, not how D. It’s only used for documentation

C. It describes what the system does, not how Explanation: Use case models focus on what the system should do, not how it does it.

What does a class diagram NOT include? A) Attributes B) Methods C) Business process flows D) Class relationships

C) Business process flows Explanation: Class diagrams focus on structure, not process flow (which is modeled using activity or sequence diagrams).

Which of the following is an example of an aggregation relationship? A) Product is a type of item B) An order contains products C) A clerk handles an order D) A customer places an order

B) An order contains products Explanation: Aggregation is a "HAS-A" relationship (Order HAS Products).

Which class would be most likely to handle screen inputs? A) Entity class B) UI class C) Data Access class D) Control class

B) UI class Explanation: UI classes manage interaction with users (e.g., forms/screens).

What does the asterisk (*) represent in multiplicity? A) Optional (0 or 1) B) Multiple (1 or more) C) Zero or many D) Exactly one

C) Zero or many Explanation: * means any number, including none—i.e., zero or more instances.

What does CRC stand for? A) Class Role Chart B) Class Responsibility Collaboration C) Class Requirement Check D) Collaborative Role Chart

B) Class Responsibility Collaboration Explanation: CRC cards are used to define responsibilities and class collaborations.

What operation is used to retrieve a value in OOP? A) Create B) Set C) Get D) Delete

C) Get Explanation: “Get” is used to read an attribute (accessor method).

Exam 3 practice test Flashcards

(73 cards)