Exam 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

The Calvin cycle takes place in:

A

The stroma

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2
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

Cellular organelles double in number, DNA replicated to produce 92 chromatids (still 46 chromosomes), and then protein synthesis occurs. The chromosomes are not visible and the DNA appears as uncoiled chromatin.

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3
Q

When grown factors (hormones) arrive from other cells it increases _____ and _____ concentrations. Cyclin then binds to Cdk which phosphorylates the Cdk, and Rb inactivates _____ by binding to it. Cdk is then activated by _____, and Rb becomes inactivated by _____. Rb then releases E2F so that it can turn _____ DNA replication genes.

A

Cyclin, E2F, E2F, dephosphorylation, phosphorylation, on.

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4
Q

Plasma membranes have a phospholipid bilayer studded with _____ _____.

A

Membrane proteins

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5
Q

What does it mean for membrane proteins to be integral or peripheral?

A

The proteins can be embedded or attached to the surface of the cell.

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6
Q

What are three things that the extracellular layer can do, and what is it generally made of?

A

Defines cell’s shape, act as first line of defense, and attach to other cells. It is made of secreted products from within the cell.

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7
Q

Fiber composite vs. ground substance

for all cells

A

Fiber composite is a long network of cross linked filaments embedded into stiff surrounding material called the ground substance.

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8
Q

Fiber composites resist _____ while the ground substance withstands _____ forces.

A

Tension (being pulled lengthwise), Pressing

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9
Q

Fiber composites are _____ as well as strong.

A

Flexible

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10
Q

What fiber composite do animal cells secrete and what does it provide for the cell?

A

ECM (extracellular matrix), structural support.

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11
Q

What is the fibrous protein of animal ECM dominated by?

A

Collagen protein

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12
Q

What does the ground substance surrounding collagen proteins in animal ECM contain and what does it consist of?

A

gel-forming proteoglycans that consist of a core protein attached to many polysaccharides.

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13
Q

What is a polysaccharide?

A

a carbohydrate (e.g. starch, cellulose, chitin, or glycogen) whose molecules consist of a number of sugar molecules bonded together.

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14
Q

Structure of ECM correlates with its _____ of _____.

A

Function of tissue

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15
Q

What is an Integrin and what do they do?

A

a cell surface protein that bind proteins to ECM and hold cells in place. Once bound, they transmit signals to inform the cell that it’s properly anchored.

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16
Q

What is the initial fiber composite secreted by a plant cell? What is the following fiber composite secreted by a plant cell and when does this secretion occur?

A

Primary cell wall is secreted in a young cell (a cell that is still growing) - Secondary cell wall is secreted in a mature cell (after cell has stopped growing)

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17
Q

Where/how are animal ECM proteins synthesized, processed, and secreted?

A

synthesized in rough ER, processed in the golgi apparatus, and secreted via exocytosis where they group and/or attach to form huge complexes.

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18
Q

What does the primary cell wall consist of?

A

long strands of cellulose bundled together to form cable-like structures called microfibrals. The microfibrals are cross linked via hydrogen bonds to other polysaccharide filaments.

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19
Q

What is the ground substance in a plant cell?

A

Pectins

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20
Q

Where are pectins synthesized in plant cells?

A

The rough ER and the golgi apparatus.

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21
Q

What is turgor pressure and what causes it?

A

Force exerted by cell against cell wall. Caused by osmosis pushing plasma membrane against the cell wall.

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22
Q

What helps young cells elongate and expand?

A

Expansis coupled with turgor pressure.

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23
Q

What is expansis?

A

Proteins secreted by young plant cells into their cell wall that disrupt hydrogen bonds that cross-link microfibrals in the cell wall and allow microfibrals to slide past one another.

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24
Q

Where is the secondary cell wall located?

A

Between the primary cell wall and the plasma membrane.

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25
Q

What is epithelia (plural)?

A

Animal tissue consisting of sheet-like layers of tightly packed cells that line organs, glands, ducts, or body surfaces.

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26
Q

What is lamella?

A

The central layer between plant cells that holds them together. Consists mostly of pectins.

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27
Q

In animals, what are the -membrane proteins- that allow for direct cell-cell attachment?

A

Tight junctions, Desmosomes, and gap junctions.

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28
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

They are membrane proteins that stitch together membranes to form a water tight seal or a barrier. The adhesions are weak and easily broken. They are dynamic and loosen/ tighten as needed.

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29
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

They are membrane proteins found in animal epithelia and certain muscle cells. They form bridges between anchoring proteins in adjacent cells and are reinforced by intermediate filaments attaching anchoring proteins to cytoplasm.

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30
Q

Cells adhere to other cells of the same tissue type during:

A

Selective adhesion

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31
Q

What are antibodies?

A

proteins produced by immune response that often bind to another protein and change their structure or interfere with their ability to interact with other molecules.

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32
Q

What are cadherins?

A

Type of cell-cell adhesion protein in animals (critical to desmosomes) that provide physical basis for selective adhesion in cells.

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33
Q

Channels within membranes of adjacent cells allow cells to communicate via diffusion of cytosolic ions and small molecules (ex. amino acids). What are these signals responsible for?

A

regulating gene expression, altering which proteins are/not produced, activate/inactivate proteins within cell.

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34
Q

How do animal cells communicate? How do plant cells communicate?

A

Animal cells: gap junctions - directly connects cytosol of adjacent cells that allows for rapid passage of water, ions, or small molecules.
Plant cells: Plasmodesmata - membrane lined tubular gaps in cell walls through which plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and smooth ER can directly connect.

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35
Q

What are the two independent corridors in plant cells that are separated by the plasma membrane? Can molecules move through these corridors without touching the membrane?

A

Symplast (continuous network of cytoplasm connected by plasmodesmata), and apoplast (region outside of plasma membrane consisting of cell walls, lamella, and air spaces. YES.

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36
Q

_____ and _____ allow adjacent cells to transmit information, like conversations between neighbors.

A

gap junctions and plasmodesmata.

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37
Q

Tyrosine kinase and G-protein – coupled receptors are found in a cells:

A

membrane

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38
Q

G-protein – coupled receptors are so named because they are receptors that bind to G-proteins. The “G” in G-protein stands for:

A

guanine (..-nucleotide binding proteins)

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39
Q

Name two examples of distant signaling molecules that impact target cells:

A

Hormones and Neurotransmitters

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40
Q

Signal receptors are _____. How do signaling molecules deliver their messages to the signal receptors?

A

proteins, signaling molecules bind to signaling receptors.

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41
Q

Lipid-soluble signaling molecules diffuse across the hydro_____ region of the membrane and enter the _____ of their target cells. The signaling receptors exist _____ the cell.

A

phobic, cytosol, inside

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42
Q

No matter the location, signal receptors are dynamic and the _____ of the cell can change over time, and receptors can be blocked by _____.

A

sensitivity, beta blockers

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43
Q

When a signaling molecule binds to a signal receptor, the receptor _____ changes.

A

structure

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44
Q

_____ _____ _____ is formed in the cytosol and transported to the nucleus, changing the activity of _____.

A

hormone-receptor complex, genes

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45
Q

Large of hydro_____ signaling molecules are lipid insoluble and most of them cannot pass through the membrane. The receptors for these signaling molecules are located where?

A

philic, plasma membrane (cell surface)

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46
Q

Hormones existing in the plasma membrane produce _____cellular signals and process them _____.

A

intra, indirectly

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47
Q

What does the signal transduction do?

A

it converts extracellular signals to intracellular signals

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48
Q

Messages transmitted from a hormone can _____ as it changes form, triggering larger responses from cells.

A

amplify

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49
Q

What are the two types of signal transduction and amplification systems?

A

G-protein coupled receptors and Enzyme linked receptors.

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50
Q

G-protein coupled receptors initiate the production of ___-cellular _____ _____ that amplify the signal.

A

intra-cellular, second messengers

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51
Q

How do enzyme linked receptors amplify a signal?

A

By triggering the activation of a series of proteins in the cell through the addition of phosphate groups.

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52
Q

How is G-protein activity regulated? Explain how they are activated/inactivated.

A

Regulated by guanine nucleotide. Various proteins are activated by binding guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and inactivated when GTP is hydrolized to GDP. When G-protein is activated it triggers production of second messengers.

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53
Q

what are second messengers?

A

not proteins, they are small ions or molecules produced when GTP is activated, they diffuse rapidly and are produced quickly in large amounts. They are not restricted to a single role.

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54
Q

Why does GTP have more potential energy than GDP?

A

Three phosphate groups have four negative charges close together.

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55
Q

What is protein kinase and how is it activated?

A

Enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by adding phosphate groups to them. Second messengers can activate protein kinase.

56
Q

What signal transduction and amplification system is responsible for directly catalyzing reactions within a cell and driving phosphorylation cascades?

A

Enzyme linked receptors (specifically RTKs)

57
Q

what is a phosphorylation cascade?

A

A series of enzyme catalyzed phosphorylation reactions in the signal transduction pathways that amplify a signal inward from the plasma membrane.

58
Q

When hormone proteins bind to 2 subunits of RTKs it forms a dimer, changing the _____ of RTKs and turning on _____ activity that allow RTKs to _____ _____ using _____ from within a cell. Proteins within the cell bind to phosphorylated RTK and form a _____ receptor between _____ protein.

A

conformation, catalytic, phosphorylate themselves, ATP, bridge, RAS

59
Q

What is triggered when RAS protein is activated?

A

Phosphorylation and activation of protein kinase, and the kinase then catalyzes the phosphorylation and activation of second kinase, then the third kinase that triggers cell response.

60
Q

What kinase triggers cell response?

A

The third kinase

61
Q

What deactivates a signal after it is activated during via enzyme linked receptors.

A

When second messengers are cleaned from the cytosol

62
Q

Continuously active RAS can lead to _____.

A

cancer

63
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

Signaling pathways that respond to population density or eukaryotes and prokaryotes

64
Q

Chromosomes consist of a single long DNA double helix wrapped around a protein called a _____. That complex is referred to as a _____.

A

Histone, chromatin

65
Q

A gene is a region of DNA in a chromosome that codes for _____.

A

RNA

66
Q

What are chromatids?

A

Each of the double stranded DNA copies in replicated chromosomes. Attached chromatid copies are referred to as sister chromatids.

67
Q

What proteins are responsible for joining two chromatids along their length?

A

cohesions

68
Q

briefly describe the M-phase, the Interphase, and the S-phase?

A

The M-phase is mitosis or the process of separating chromosomes, the rest of the time is referred to as the interphase, and the S-phase is the part of the interphase responsible for copying genetic material from the replicated chromosomes in the M-phase

69
Q

The G1 phase describes:

A

the gap between the end of the M phase and the start of the S phase

70
Q

The G2 phase describes:

A

The gap between the S phase and the start of the M phase

71
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

It follows mitosis, dividing cytoplasm of a parent cell do form two daughter cells starting with the formation of a cleavage furrow. Overlapping actin filaments contract inside plasma membrane and myosin motor proteins move those actin filaments inward.

72
Q

List the 5 subphases of the M-phase in order:

A

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

73
Q

What is the spindle apparatus?

A

The structure producing mechanical forces that move chromosomes and pull chromatids apart. It has a + and - charge on either end and consists of microtubules composed of a and b tubulin dimers.

74
Q

During what subphase of the M-phase do chromosomes condense into compact structures and the spindle apparatus begin to form?

A

The prophase

75
Q

The + end of a spindle apparatus is where microtubules are (assembled/disassembled) and the - end is where they are (assembled/ disassembled).

A

assembled, disassembled

76
Q

After chromosomes condense the nuclear envelope disintegrates allowing cytoplasmic microtubules to attach to the chromosomes at kinetichores (disc shaped protein structure on each chromosome). Chromosomes are then pushed and pulled by microtubules and motor proteins until they reach the middle of the spindle, completing the formation of the spindle apparatus. What subphase of the M-phase is this?

A

Prometaphase

77
Q

what proteins generate forces that move chromosomes during mitosis?

A

dynein and kinesin and MYOSIN SPECIFICALLY

78
Q

What subphase of the M-phase follows the completing the formation of the spindle apparatus, and the beginning of sister chromatids of each chromosome playing tug o war on their opposite poles?

A

Metaphase

79
Q

When cohesions that hold sister chromatids together at the centromere split , replicated chromosomes are pulled apart to create two independent daughter chromosomes that move to opposite poles and then the poles are pulled further apart. What subphase of the M-phase does this describe?

A

Anaphase

80
Q

The nuclear envelope reforms around each set of chromosomes which begin to de-condense. 2 independent nuclei are formed and mitosis is complete. What subphase of the M-phase does this describe?

A

Telophase

81
Q

Does cytokinesis occur in plants?

A

no

82
Q

Does bacteria divide by mitosis? If not then what?

A

no, through binary fissions. Filaments form a ring between chromosome copies and a signal from the cell draws the membrane inward.

83
Q

The regulatory molecule that induces interphase cells to to enter the M-phase is called the _____ or MPF and is made up of _____ and _____. MPF is located in the _____ of M-phase cells.

A

M-phase promoting factor, cyklin and CDK, cytoplasm.

84
Q

What is cyclin and what does CDK do?

A

Cyclin is a regulatory protein that binds to CDK and CDK catalyzes the phosphorylation of other proteins to start the M-phase.

85
Q

What is MPF turned off by?

A

The enzyme complex that is activated in anaphase attaches ubiquitins (small proteins) to the MPF cyclin subunit, marking the cyclin destruction by proteasome. The concentration of cyclin declines rapidly.

86
Q

Dramatic changes in the concentration of _____ and _____ activity drive the ordered events of a cell cycle.

A

cyclin and Cdk

87
Q

_____ _____ at each cell-cell checkpoint allow cells to decide to proceed with division or not. If these are defective the checkpoint may fail.

A

Regulatory molecules

88
Q

Cells pass the _____ checkpoint if chromosomes have replicated successfully, DNA is undamaged, and activated MPF is present.

A

G2 checkpoint

89
Q

Cells pass the _____ checkpoint if cell size is adequate, nutrients are sufficient, social signals are present, and DNA is undamaged.

A

G1 checkpoint

90
Q

Mature cells don’t pass _____ checkpoint and enter _____ state instead.

A

G1, G0

91
Q

_____ is activated if DNA is damaged. It acts like a break on the cell cycle, can be responsible for cellular suicide, and is also referred to as a tumor supressor. When large concentrations occur, _____ is produced to allow DNA to repair itself.

A

P53, P21

92
Q

M-phase checkpoints ensure chromosomes have separated properly and that no _____ is present.

A

MPF

93
Q

What checkpoint occurs after the S-phase?

A

G2

94
Q

Autosomes are:

A

Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes (44 of 46)

95
Q

Homologous chromosomes are the same _____ and _____.

A

Size and shape

96
Q

What is the difference between a gene and an allele?

A

Genes are more vague like an eye color for example, and alleles are more specific like green eyes or brown eyes.

97
Q

Haploids vs diploids

A

Diploids (zygotes) are cells that contain two versions of the same chromosome, and haploid (gametes) cells contain only one version of each chromosome.

98
Q

What are Zygotes?

A

Diploid cells resulting in the fusion of two haploid gametes.

99
Q

The diploid parent cell produces two haploid daughter cells, and each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. What phase or process does this describe?

A

Meiosis 1

100
Q

Sister chromatids of each chromosome separate, each going to a different daughter cell. What phase or process does this describe?

A

Meiosis 2

101
Q

What two processes are closely related? Choose from Mitosis, Meiosis 1, and Meiosis 2

A

Mitosis and meiosis 2

102
Q

Purifying / negative selection is:

A

The selective removal of alleles that are deleterious.

103
Q

Cells that enter the G1 phase do not _____ and therefore cannot continue on to the _____ phase.

A

Replicate, M-phase

104
Q

_____ _____ and _____ are responsible for genetic variations in siblings with the same parents.

A

Independent assortment and crossing over

105
Q

During what phase do cells grow and make extra organelles and proteins?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • Sythesis
  • M
A

G1

106
Q

During what phase does DNA replicate?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • Synthesis
  • M
A

S phase

107
Q

During what phase do cells prepare for mitosis by creating microtubules?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S phase
  • M phase
A

G2

108
Q

The purpose of Rb is to:

A

Slow down the cell cycle by binding with E2F

109
Q

List three tumor suppressor proteins:

A

P53, P21, and Rb

110
Q

The nuclear envelope begins to break down, chromosomes condense, and the spindle apparatus begins to form. Then Homologous chromosome pairs come together side-by-side along their corresponding regions (synapsis). What phase of meiosis does this describe?

A

Early prophase I

111
Q

Crossing over occurs during the ______ phase of meiosis.

A

late prophase I

112
Q

What is a bivalent? When does it occur during meiosis?

A

a bivalent is the structure formed during synapsis of early prophase one that consists of paired homologous replicated chromosomes where each homolog consists of two sister chromatids.

113
Q

What are non-sister chromatids?

A

Chromatids from different homologs

114
Q

The nuclear envelope fully breaks down, and the two homologs within each bivalent become attached to microtubule fibers coming from opposing poles of the spindle apparatus—that is, each homolog in thebivalent is attached to a different pole. The homologs that were so closely paired in synapsis now begin to separate at many points along their length but stay joined by X-shaped structures called chiasmata. The chromosomes that meet to form a chiasma are non-sister chromatids. Crossing over occurs. What phase of meiosis does this describe?

A

Late prophase I

115
Q

The chromatids that meet to form a chiasma are __________.

A

non-sister chromatids

116
Q

Meiosis I is a _____ division.

A

reduction

117
Q

kinetochore microtubules move the pairs of homologous chromosomes (bivalents) to an imaginary plane midway between the poles of the spindle apparatus. Each bivalent straddles the imaginary plate with one homolog on one side and the other homolog on the other; and the alignment of each bivalent is independent of any other bivalent. What phase of meiosis does this describe?

A

Metaphase I

118
Q

Sister chromatids of each chromosome remain together, and each homolog in the pair attaches to a different spindle pole, allowing the homologous chromosomes in each bivalent to separate from each other as they are moved to opposite poles of the spindle apparatus. What phase of meiosis does this describe?

A

Anaphase I

119
Q

Homologs finish moving to opposite sides of the spindle during what phase of meiosis?

A

Telophase I

120
Q

A reduction in chromosome number occurs, with haploid daughter cells produced. The sister chromatids remain attached in each chromosome, however, meaning that the haploid daughter cells still contain replicated chromosomes. Does this describe meiosis I or Meiosis II?

A

Meiosis I

121
Q

Does DNA replicate between meiosis I and meiosis II?

A

No

122
Q

At a _____, the non-sister chromatids from each homolog are attached to each other at corresponding points. When _____(same) are broken, corresponding segments of maternal and paternal chromosomes are exchanged. In humans, an average of 1.5 _____(same) form on each chromosome.

A

Chiasmata x3

123
Q

_____ ___ works to separate the sister chromatids of the replicated chromosomes into separate cells. Each of these cells will contain unreplicated daughter chromosomes. During _____ ___, a spindle apparatus forms in both daughter cells. Microtubules that polymerize from the two spindle poles attach to kinetochores on opposite sides of every chromosome and begin moving the chromosomes toward the middle of each cell, just like in mitosis.

A

Meiosis II, prophase II

124
Q

Sister chromatids separate during what phase of meiosis?

A

Anaphase II

125
Q

The suppressor protein _____ is involved with the G1/ S transition checkpoint. It’s bound to mdm2 until DNA becomes damaged and it is released from mdm2

A

P53

126
Q

_____ inhibits the cycklin-cdk complexes and prevents phosphorylation of Rb so that E2F cannot be released to copy DNA, stopping cell cycle in its tracks.

A

P21

127
Q

When (rumor suppressor proteins/oncogenes) are mutated they lose their brakes to halt the cell cycle, while (tumor suppressor proteins/oncogenes) when mutated hit the accelerator.

A

Tumor suppressor proteins, oncogenes

128
Q

Haploid cells are brought together during what phase of meiosis?

A

The s-phase

129
Q

In meiosis _____ the homologous pairs are split up, one from each parent, into new cells.

A

1

130
Q

Detectable traits of an individual; observable characteristics (even molecular)

A

Phenotype

131
Q

Combination of alleles found in an individual

A

Genotype

132
Q

Independent assortment is:

A

two alleles for each gene are sorted into gametes independently of each other.

133
Q

Crossing over occurs frequently between genes that are (close together/ far apart)

A

far apart

134
Q

A _____ reveals an unknown parental genotype of a strain with a dominant phenotype.

A

testcross

135
Q

Pleiotropic:

A

Gene influencing many traits.

136
Q

Polygenic inheritance:

A

Many different genes influence one trait (ex. AaBBcC)