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Thurman Exam 3 > Exam 3 Student Questions > Flashcards

Exam 3 Student Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly describes the fatigue-resistant muscle fibers of the diaphragm?
    a. Have a slow-twitch response to electrical stimulation.
    b. Are highly susceptible to fatigue
    c. Have a rapid response to electrical stimulation
    d. Useful during brief periods of maximal ventilatory effort (i.e. coughing, sneezing).
A

Answer: A - Choices BCD are descriptions of fast-twitch muscle fibers.
Barash, P. G., Cullen, B. F., & Stoelting, R. K. (2014). Clinical anesthesia, 7th ed. (Pg. 264)

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2
Q
  1. The volume of gas remaining in the lungs at passive end expiration is known as the:
    a. Expiratory reserve volume
    b. Inspiratory reserve volume
    c. Functional residual capacity
    d. Residual volume
A

Answer: C

Barash, P. G., Cullen, B. F., & Stoelting, R. K. (2014). Clinical anesthesia, 7th ed. (Pg. 264)

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3
Q
  1. Match the airway structures with their appropriate type and function.
    A. Respiratory Bronchioles 1. Conductive
    B. Alveoli and Alveolar ducts and sacs 2. Respiratory
    C. Trachea to the terminal bronchioles 3. Transitional
A

Answer A3, B2, C1

Barash, P. G., Cullen, B. F., & Stoelting, R. K. (2014). Clinical anesthesia, 7th ed. (Table 11-2)

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4
Q
  1. Select two true statements about the adult bronchi.
    a. The left bronchus leaves the trachea at about 25 degrees from the vertical tracheal axis
    b. The angle of the right bronchus is about 45 degrees
    c. Unintentional endobronchial intubation is more likely to occur in the right main bronchus
    d. The right main bronchus is about 2.5cm long before it initially branes into lobar bronchi.
A

Answer: CD
The left bronchus leaves the trachea at about 45 degrees from the vertical tracheal axis while the right bronchus leaves the trachea at about 25 degrees.
Barash, P. G., Cullen, B. F., & Stoelting, R. K. (2014). Clinical anesthesia, 7th ed. (Pg. 265).

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5
Q
  1. These polygonal cells manufacture surfactant and have vast metabolic and enzymatic activity.
    a. Type 1 alveolar cells
    b. Type 2 alveolar cells
    c. Type 3 alveolar cells
    d. Type 4 alveolar cells
A

Answer: B Type 1 contain flattened nuclei and extremely thin cytoplasmic extensions that provide the surface suitable for gas exchange. Type 3 are alveolar macrophages and are an important element of immunologic lung defense. Type 4 alveolar cells don’t exist.
Barash, P. G., Cullen, B. F., & Stoelting, R. K. (2014). Clinical anesthesia, 7th ed. (Pg. 266).

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6
Q
  1. What muscle is responsible for dilating the oropharyngeal pharynx during spontaneous breathing to prevent the collapse of the upper airway upon inspiration?
    a. Cricothyroid muscle
    b. Genioglossus muscle
    c. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
    d. Trachealis muscle
A

Answer: B

Stoetling’s Pharmacology & Physiology in Anesthetic Practice (p. 549).

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7
Q
  1. Which medication is ideal for light sedation and MAC cases due to its ability to maintain reflex genioglossus activity?
    a. Versed
    b. Propofol
    c. Ketamine
    d. Etomidate
A

Answer: C

Stoetling’s Pharmacology & Physiology in Anesthetic Practice (p. 550).

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the larynx? (choose 2)
    a. The larynx is the organ of phonation
    b. The larynx lies anterior to the C2-C4 vertebrae
    c. The larynx’s primary support structure is the cricoid cartilage
    d. The inlet of the larynx is bordered by the epiglottis, arytenoids, and aryepiglottic folds
A

Answer: A & D

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9
Q
  1. Damage to this nerve may result in the inability to tense the true vocal cords?
    a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
    b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
    c. External superior laryngeal nerve
    d. Trigeminal nerve
A

Answer: C

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the trachea and bronchial structures? (Choose 3)
    a. The trachea originates at the cricoid cartilage and extends to the carina
    b. The right bronchus is longer and more horizontal than the left
    c. The left bronchus has an upper and lower lobe, while the right bronchus is separated into upper, middle, and lower lobes
    d. The trachea consists of 16 to 20 U-shaped cartilaginous rings
    e. The average length from the incisors to the vocal cords is 20 cm, plus an additional 10 cm to reach the tracheal carina.
    f. Airflow becomes more laminar and the Reynolds number approaches 2000 as air flows through the mouth to the bronchi
A

Answer: A, C, D

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11
Q
  1. The tracheobronchial tree has 23 generations of airways. The acinar airways begin at which airway generation?
    a. 4
    b. 7
    c. 16
    d. 21
A

Answer: C

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12
Q
  1. What is considered the primary site of gas exchange between blood and gas in the lungs?
    a. Conducting bronchioles
    b. Alveolar ducts
    c. Lamellar body
    d. Alveolus
A

Answer: D

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13
Q
  1. The function of Alveolar Type II cells includes: (choose 2)
    a. Prevention of alveolar collapse at low lung volumes
    b. To keep the airways clear of mucus and debris
    c. Production of pulmonary surfactant
    d. Formation of barrier between air space and pulmonary capillary endothelium
A

Answer: A, C

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14
Q
  1. What would be a typical response to chronic inflammation of respiratory epithelium from smoking? (choose 2)
    a. Ciliated cell hyperplasia
    b. Goblet cell hyperplasia
    c. Mucin production down-regulation
    d. Mucin production up-regulation
A

Answer: B, D

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15
Q
  1. Which alveolar defensive cell type has the ability to move freely in and out of the alveoli, phagocytizing foreign material?
    a. Monocytes
    b. Macrophages
    c. T Lymphocytes
    d. B Lymphocytes
A

Answer: B

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the rib cage?
    a. The rib cage contains two lungs, a single pleura, and a small opening at its apex that allows for entrance of only the trachea, esophagus, and blood vessels.
    b. The rib cage contains two lungs, two pleura, and a small opening at its apex that allows for entrance of only the trachea, esophagus, and blood vessels.
    c. The rib cage contains two lungs, two pleura, and a large opening at its apex that allows for entrance of the trachea, esophagus, blood vessels and several other structures that stem from the neck.
    d. The rib cage contains two lungs, a single pleura, and a large opening at its apex that allows for entrance of the trachea, esophagus, blood vessels and several other structures that stem from the neck.
A

Answer: B

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17
Q
  1. When developing your anesthetic plan for a patient, their diaphragmatic function is a key factor to consider because diaphragmatic movement normally accounts for:
    a. 75% of the change in chest volume
    b. 25% of the change in chest volume
    c. 50% of the change in chest volume
    d. 80% of the change in chest volume
A

Answer: A

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18
Q
  1. The trachea extends from the ____________ to the ___________.
    a. Vocal cords; carina
    b. Hyoid bone; carina
    c. Cricoid cartilage; carina
    d. Epiglottis; carina
A

Answer: C

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of type II pneumocytes (choose 3)\
    a. They are capable of producing both type I and type II pneumocytes
    b. They occupy less than 10% of the alveolar space
    c. They have a flat shape
    d. Provide the function of preventing large oncotically active molecules into the alveolus
    e. They are more numerous than type I pneumocytes
    f. They are very sensitive to oxygen toxicity
A

Answer: A, B, E

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20
Q
  1. The Tracheobronchial tree consists approximately how many dichotomous divisions?
    a. 23
    b. 17
    c. 27
    d. 19
A

Answer: A

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21
Q
  1. Identify the correct segments of the right upper lobe (select 3):
    a. Medial basal
    b. Apical
    c. Posterior
    d. Inferior lingular
    e. Anteromedial basal
    f. Anterior
A

Answer: B,C,F; the right upper lobe of the lung is separated into three segements, the apical, anterior, and posterior. Nagelhout p. 593 (chart)

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22
Q
  1. How many generations are typically present before alveoli are present?
    a. 12-15
    b. 15-18
    c. 20-25
    d. 24-27
A

Answer: C; there are typically 20-25 generations before alveoli are encountered. Nagelhout p. 593

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23
Q
  1. Which respiratory principle explains that an increase in volume creates a reduction in pressure, causing air to enter from the atmosphere?
    a. Fick’s Law
    b. Boyle’s Law
    c. Beer-Lambert Law
    d. Henry’s Law
A

Answer: B; Nagelhout p. 595

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24
Q
  1. Identify the characteristics that INCREASE with each succeeding generation? (choose 3):
    a. Muscular layer
    b. Goblet cells
    c. Ciliated cells
    d. Number of airways
    e. Cross-sectional area
    f. Cartilage
A

Answer: A, D, E; Nagelhout p. 594 (chart 26-3)

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is found in the middle subdivision of the mediastinum?
    a. Thoracic aorta
    b. Esophagus
    c. Thoracic duct
    d. Heart
A

Answer: D; Nagelhout p. 594 (chart 26-3)

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26
Q
  1. This cartilage is palpable just below the thyroid gland, corresponds with the beginning of the trachea and the esophagus, and is the only true ring of cartilage encircling the airway?
    a. Epiglottis
    b. Thyroid
    c. Cricoid
    d. Arytenoid
A

Answer: C Nagelhout p.591

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27
Q
  1. Select the 3 sets of paired cartilages from the following options: (choose 3)
    a. Arytenoid
    b. Thyroid
    c. Epiglottic
    d. Cuneiform
    e. Cricoid
    f. Corniculate
A

Answer: A,D,F Nagelhout p. 591

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28
Q
  1. Match the medical name to the causative agent in the pleural space
    a. Pneumothorax 1. Pus
    b. Tension Pneumothorax 2. Blood
    c. Hemothorax 3. Air under tension
    d. Pleural effusion 4. Serous fluid
    e. Pyothorax 5. Lymph
    f. Fibrothorax 6. Air
    g. Chylothorax 7. Organized blood clot
A

Answer: a-6, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1, f-7, g-5 Nagelhout table 26-2, p.594

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29
Q
  1. These small pores in the alveoli, known as the pores of ________, serve to allow collateral gas flow between alveoli and provide a mechanism of relief from gas stagnation from airway closure.
    a. Durant
    b. Kohn
    c. Horner
    d. Adair
A

Answer: B Nagelhout p.592

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30
Q
  1. Which procedures are performed by the anesthetist through the process of piercing the cricothyroid membrane? (Select 2)
    a. Tracheostomy
    b. Transtracheal block
    c. Superior Laryngeal Nerve Block
    d. Cricothyrotomy
A

Answer: B,D Nagelhout p.592

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31
Q 
1.	In patients with Congestive Heart failure, pulmonary wedge pressures can be used to study changes in? Select Two
A.	Right Atrial Pressure
B.	Left Atrial Pressure
C.	Pulmonary Vascular Resistance
D.	Pulmonary Capillary Pressure
A

Answer: B, D

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32
Q 
2.	During times of hypoxia, pulmonary vascular resistance will
A.	Decrease
B.	Increase
C.	Stay the same
D.	Rapid decrease, then increase slowly
A

Answers: B

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33
Q 
3.	During times of low oxygen levels, pulmonary vessels \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and systemic vessels \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.	Vasodilate, vasoconstrict
B.	Vasodilate, vasodilate
C.	Vasoconstrict, vasoconstrict
D.	Vasoconstrict, vasodilate
A

Answer: D

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34
Q 
4.	Increases in pulmonary capillary pressure and left atrium pressure above 30 mmHg result in?
A.	Peripheral edema
B.	Decrease pulmonary artery pressure
C.	Pulmonary edema
D.	Decrease in pulmonary venous pressure
A

Answer: C

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35
Q
  1. Match the correct pressure with the corresponding mean
    Left Atrial Pressure A. 14 mmHg
    Pulmonary Arterial Pressure B. 2 mmHg
    Pulmonary Capillary Pressure C. 15 mmHg
    Colloid Osmotic Pressure D. 7 mmHg
    (of pulmonary interstitial fluid)
A

Answers: LAP-B, PAP-C, PCP-D, COP-A

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36
Q 
Which nerve is responsible for innervating the hypopharynx?
A.	Vagus
B.	Facial
C.	Glossopharyngeal 
D.	Trigeminal
A

Correct answer A- vagus nerve. Both branches of the Vagus nerve (RLN and SLN) innervate the hypopharynx. NH pg 424

37
Q

In regards to the posterior cricoarytenoids what are their role, where do they receive innervation, and what is their main function?
A. Role: Respiration; Innervation: Superior laryngeal nerve; Main function: Abduction of the VC
B. Role: Phonation; Innervation: Superior laryngeal nerve; Main function: Abduction of the VC
C. Role: Respiration; Innervation: Recurrent laryngeal nerve; Main function: Adduction of the VC
D. Role: Respiration; Innervation: Recurrent laryngeal nerve; Main function: Abduction of the VC

A

Correct answer: D NH pg 425

38
Q

What is the primary function of the extrinsic muscles?
A. To control tension of the VC during phonation and swallowing
B. To control to opening and closing of the glottis during phonation and swallowing
C. To adjust the position of the trachea during phonation, breathing, and swallowing
D. To control the opening and closing of the laryngeal inlet.

A

Correct answer C. NH 425— Intrinsic muscles of the larynx control the tension of the vocal cords as well as the opening and closing of the glottis. Primary function of extrinsic is to adjust the position of the trachea during phonation, breathing, and swallowing

39
Q

Which of the following are true concerning the larynx? Select 2
A. The larynx begins with the epiglottis and extend to C6 (cricoid cartilage)
B. The larynx contains a total of 9 cartilages (3 paired and 3 unpaired)
C. In the adult the larynx begins at C2 and extends to C6
D. The epiglottis is largest laryngeal cartilage of the larynx

A

Correct answers A and B. NH 424 In the adult the larynx begins at C3 or C4 and the thyroid cartilage is the largest cartilage of the larynx.

40
Q
  1. Red A. Epiglottis
    1. Blue B. Cricoid
    2. Green C. Arytenoid
    3. Yellow D. Thyroid
A

Correct answer: Green - Epiglottis; Red Thyroid; Yellow Cricoid; Blue Arytenoid
Picture from powerpoint; description of anatomical locations for the cartilage NH 424

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect about bronchial circulation. Select 2
    A. It arises from the left side of the heart and sustain metabolic needs of the tracheobronchial tree.
    B. Provides a small amount of blood flow which is less than 4% of the cardiac output
    C. Low- pressure high flow circulation
    D. High pressure, low flow circulation that supplies systemic arterial blood to the trachea
    E. Supplies venous blood from all parts of the body to the alveoli capillaries where oxygen is added and CO2.
A

Answer C and E. Guyton and hall Pg 509.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are correct about vagus nerve? Select 2
    A. Provides sensory innervation to the tracheobronchial tree
    B. Vagal activity results to bronchoconstriction and increase bronchial secretion via muscarinic receptors.
    C. Mediates bronchodilation.
    D. Decreases secretion through beta-2 receptors
    E. Innervates the diaphragm
A

Answer A and B. Morgan and Mikhail pg. 492.

43
Q 
3. At what period is the pressure in the pulmonary artery is equal to the pressure in the right    ventricle.
A.	Diastole
B.	Refractory period
C.	Systole
D.	Expiration
E.	Inspiration.
A

Answer C. Guyton and Hall Pg. 509.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are correct pulmonary arteries? Select 2
    A. It arises from the descending thoracic aorta.
    B. It arises from the right ventricle and branches into the right and left pulmonary arteries which further branch to accompany the bronchi.
    C. Carries oxygenated blood to bronchi and bronchioles, terminating at the respiratory bronchioles.
    D. Provides oxygen to the to the conductive airways and pulmonary vessels.
    E. Supplies the total output of the right heart to pulmonary circulation.
A

Answer B and E. Morgan and Mikhail Pg 491

45
Q
  1. Lung compliance and inspiratory elastic work can be measured for a single breath by measuring?
    A. airway pressure, intrapleural pressure and tidal volume.
    B. Respiratory rate and peak pressures
    C. Functional reserve capacity and total lung capacity
    D. Vital capacity and expiratory rate
    E. Dead space and maximum inspiratory rate
A

Answer A. Barash 8Th Ed. pg 365

46
Q 
1. It is crucial for anesthesia providers to understand all the respiratory variables that come into play when putting the patient under general anesthesia. What respiratory value is represented by the gas volume in the lungs when the outward and inward forces on the lungs are equal?
 A. Total lung capacity
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Continuous positive airway pressure
D. Forced expiratory volume
A

Answer: B (Barash, p. 266)

47
Q 
2. There are three main types of alveolar cells within the body that play different physiologic roles. What type of alveolar cell is responsible for producing surfactant, an important substance to decrease surface tension within the alveoli?
 A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
A

Answer: B (Barash, p. 266)

48
Q 
3. The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which arises from specific nerve roots. What nerve roots are part of the phrenic nerve that innervates the diaphragm? Select 3.
 A. T12
B. T11
C. C3
D. C5
E. C6
F. C4
A

Answer: C, D, and F (Morgan & Mikhail, p. 492)

49
Q 
4. Left atrial pressure can be measured indirectly by a pulmonary artery catheter through the measurement of the PAOP. What would be an example of a normal pulmonary artery pressure in the absence of severe heart or lung disease?
 A. 34/20
B. 10/2
C. 14/6
D. 22/8
A

Answer: D (Stoelting’s Pharm & Physiology, p. 386)

50
Q 
5. According to the ventilation-perfusion zones described by West in 1964, there exist conditions under which intraalveloar pressure may exceed vascular pressure or vascular pressure may exceed intraalveloar pressure. Which zone of the lung consists of higher arterial and venous pressures than alveolar pressures, and where a pulmonary artery catheter should be situated?
 A. Zone I
B. Zone II
C. Zone III
D. Zone IV
A

Answer: C (Nagelhout, p. 601)

51
Q
  1. ) Which of the following correctly correspond to the cricoid cartilage? (Select 3)
    a. largest laryngeal cartilage
    b. lower limit of the larynx
    c. leaf-shaped
    d. most inferior of the cartilages
    e. level of C3-4 in child
    f. formed by 2 laminae
A

Answer: B, D, E
Not correct: A (this is the thyroid cartilage), C (this is the epiglottis), F (this is thyroid cartilage); Information from her PowerPoint, respiratory anatomy part II

52
Q
  1. ) Which of the following is NOT true for the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve?
    a. lengthens to increase tension on the vocal cords
    b. unilateral injury results in subtle changes
    c. bilateral injury results in hoarseness
    d. provides sensation from the inferior side of the epiglottis to the true cords
A

Answer: D (The providing of sensation from the inferior side of the epiglottis to the true cords is done by internal branch); information from her PowerPoint, respiratory anatomy part III

53
Q
  1. ) Which of the following correctly correspond to the respiratory bronchioles? (Select 3)
    a. perfused by the pulmonary circulation
    b. end of conducting airways
    c. first place in airway in which exchange of gas with blood occurs
    d. perfused by bronchial circulation
    e. divide into alveolar ducts called atria
A

Answer: A, C, E
Not correct: B (refers to terminal bronchioles), D (prior generations of bronchioles are perfused by bronchial circulation with the last area being the terminal bronchioles); information from her PowerPoint, respiratory anatomy part IV

54
Q 
1. The cricoid cartilage articulates with the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ posterosuperiorly, and the \_\_\_\_\_\_ inferolaterally and anteriorly?
A. Cuneiforms, Trachea
B. Arytenoids, Trachea
C. Arytenoids, Thyroid
D.   Cuneiforms, Thyroid
A

Answer. C. Arytenoids, Thyroid. Nagelhout ch. 26 page 591

55
Q 
2. In an adult of normal size, what is the approximate distance from the incisors to the carina?
A. 13 cm
B. 26 cm
C. 22 cm
D. 21 cm
A

Answer. B. 26 cm. Nagelhout ch. 26 page 592

56
Q 
3. What vertebrae corresponds with the level of the carina?
A. T3-T4
B. T1-T2
C. T5-T6
D.   T4-T5
A

Answer D. T4-T5. Naglehout ch. 26 page 592

57
Q
  1. What are the functions of the Alveolar-Capillary Membrane? (Select 2)
    A. Transport of respiratory gases like oxygen and CO2
    B. Prevention of toxic substances from entering the bloodstream through the lungs
    C. The production of a wide variety of local and humoral substances
    D. The production of surfactant to reduce surface tension and increase compliance in the lungs
A

Answers: A and C. Barash 8th edition page 363

58
Q 
5. Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to mucous membranes of the nose, hard and soft palate, and anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
A. Cranial Nerve X
B. Cranial Nerve IX
C. Cranial Nerve VII
D. Cranial Nerve V
A

Answer D. Cranial Nerve V or the Trigeminal Nerve. Nagelhout ch. 22 page 446

59
Q
  1. Carotid and aortic bodies are stimulated by what?
    a. Decreased PaO2
    b. Decreased SaO2
    c. Increased CO2
    d. Decreased CO2
A

A-Barash p 271; when PaO2 reaches 60-65 mm Hg the neural activity from these receptors increases

60
Q
  1. Which of the following are correctly paired regarding the stimuli to breathe? (2)
    a. The dorsal respiratory group is responsible for expiration.
    b. The dorsal respiratory group is responsible for inspiration.
    c. The ventral respiratory group is responsible for expiration.
    d. The ventral respiratory group is responsible for inspiration.
A

Answer: B, C Barash p 270

61
Q
  1. What is the “pacemaker” for the respiratory system?
    a. Ventral respiratory group
    b. Lateral respiratory group
    c. Dorsal respiratory group
    d. Medullary respiratory group
A

Answer: C; this serves as the source of elementary ventilator rhythmicity. Barash p 270

62
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the pneumotaxic center?
    a. To limit the time for inspiration
    b. To limit the time for expiration
    c. To limit the depth of expiration
    d. To limit the depth of inspiration
A

Answer: D; Barash p 270

63
Q
  1. The cease of spontaneous ventilation or the decreased ventilator effort due to lung distention, such as with high levels of PEEP is described by which reflex and protective mechanism?
    a. Pneumotaxic reflex
    b. Herin-Breuer reflex
    c. Bohr reflex
    d. Laplace reflex
A

Answer: B, protective lung mechanism which slows or ceases breathing when stretch receptors are activated by distention; not that clinically relevant as humans continue to breathe with even high levels of PEEP. Barash p 270

64
Q

1) Which of the following describes the amount of air that cannot be removed from the lungs voluntarily, and contributes to blood oxygen exchange between breaths or during periods of apnea?
a. FRC (functional residual capacity)
b. VC (vital capacity)
c. RV (residual volume)
d. ERV (expiratory reserve volume)

A

Answer C, Nagelhout, pg. 598

65
Q

2) The phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm and arises from which spinal nerve roots?
a. T1-T4
b. C2-T1
c. C5-T3
d. C3-C5

A

Answer D, Nagelhout, pg. 595

66
Q

3) During an interscalene brachial plexus block on the right side, the phrenic nerve was inadvertently injected with local. What would be the most likely outcome? (Select 2)
a. ipsilateral diaphragm paralysis
b. Abdominal muscle paralysis
c. Cephalad movement on inspiration of paralysed diaphragm
d. Complete diaphragm paralysis
e. Caudal movement on inspiration of paralysed diaphragm

A

Answer A & C, Nagelhout, pg. 595 - Phrenic nerve paralysis/injury will causes paralysis of the diaphragm on the affected side. Diaphragm paralysis causes the affected diaphragm to move in the opposite direction of normal.

67
Q

4) Match the following lung volumes with its corresponding definition.
a. RV 1. Maximum volume of air inspired from the resting end-inspiratory level
b. ERV 2. Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration
c. VT 3. Maximum volume of air expired from the resting end-expiratory level
d. IRV 4. Volume of air inspired or expired with each breath during quiet breathing

A

Answer A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, Nagelhout, pg. 598

68
Q

5) Select the answer that best describes closing volume.
a. The volume during inhalation when alveoli collapse from over inflation
b. The absolute volume of gas in the lung when small airways close
c. The sum of the closing capacity and the residual volume
d. The volume above residual volume where small airways close

A

Answer D, Nagelhout, pg. 598

69
Q 
The most important muscles that raise the rib cage.
External intercostal
Sternocleidomastoid
Anterior serrati
Scaleni
A

Answer: A, Guyton & Hall p. 497

“Muscles that cause lung expansion and contraction”

70
Q

During normal inspiration, expansion of the chest cage pulls outward on the lungs with greater force and creates more negative pressure (from - 5 cm H2O at beginning of inspiration), to an average of about ______.

  • 3.5 cm H2O
  • 7.5 cm H2O
  • 10 cm H2O
  • 15 cm H2O
A

Answer: B, Guyton & Hall p. 498

“Pleural pressure and its changes during respiration”

71
Q 
During expiration, alveolar pressure rises to this amount of centimeters of H2O pressure, which forces the 0.5 liter of inspired air out of the lungs during the 2 to 3 seconds of expiration.
- 2 cm H2O
  0 cm H2O
\+1 cm H2O
\+3 cm H2O
A

Answer: C, Guyton & Hall p. 498

“Alveolar pressure - The air pressure inside the lung alveoli”

72
Q 
The extent to which the lungs will expand for each unit increase in transpulmonary pressure (if enough time is allowed to reach equilibrium).
Recoil pressure
Elasticity
Lung resistance
Lung compliance
A

Answer: D, Guyton & Hall p. 499,

“Compliance of the lungs”

73
Q 
The work required to overcome the viscosity of the lung and chest wall structures.
Compliance work or elastic work
Tissue resistance work
Airway resistance work
Chest wall work
A

Chest wall work
Answer: B, Guyton & Hall p. 501 “Work of breathing”

74
Q
  1. The ultimate goal of respiration is to maintain proper concentrations of which of the following? (Select 3)a. nitrogen
    b. oxygen
    c. hydrogen
    d. potassium
    e. carbon dioxide
    f. sodium
A

Answer: b, c, e (Guyton & Hall, p. 541)

75
Q
  1. Oxygen acts almost entirely on peripheral chemoreceptors which are located where? (Select 2)

a. pneumotaxic center
b. aortic body
c. carotid body
d. ventral surface of the medulla

A

Answer: b, c (Guyton & Hall, p. 541)

76
Q
  1. When production and elimination of carbon dioxide becomes imbalanced in the body, establishing a new carbon dioxide equilibrium requires how much time?

a. 4-5 minutes
b. 20-30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes

A

Answer: b (Morgan & Mikhail, p. 520)

77
Q
  1. Which group is primarily active during inspiration?

a. ventral medullary respiratory group
b. dorsal medullary respiratory group
c. ventral peripheral chemoreceptor group
d. dorsal peripheral chemoreceptor group

A

Answer: b (Morgan & Mikhail, p. 521)

78
Q
  1. How does metabolic acidosis affect the CO2 response curve?
    a. shifts CO2 curve to the right
    b. shifts CO2 curve to the left
    c. creates a parabola effect on the CO2 curve
    d. does not change the CO2 curve
A

Answer: b (Nagelhout, p. 609)

79
Q 
1.) The stimulus for normal breathing is generated by neurons in what area of the brainstem?
A.) Hypothalamus
B.) Medulla
C.) Pons
D.) Midbrain
A

Answer: B, Medulla

80
Q 
2.) What is the primary controller of normal minute ventilation?
A.) HCO3 concentration
B.) PaCo2
C.) H+ concentration
D.) PaO2
A

Answer: C, Hydrogen concentration in the CSF is the primary controller of MV

81
Q

3.) This is diagnosed as 10-20 second periods of apnea followed by periods of hyperventilation
A.) Cheyne-Stokes
B.) Kussmaul Respirations
C.) Primary Alveolar hypoventilation Syndrome
D.) Sleep apnea

A

Answer: A, Cheyne-Stokes

82
Q 
4.) The innervation of these fibers is responsible for the feeling of dyspnea during congestive heart failure
A.) B-fibers
B.) A-delta fibers
C.) C-fibers
D.) A-alpha fibers
A

Answer: C, C-fibers

83
Q 
5.) The hypoxic drive in peripheral chemoreceptors may be decreased by:
A.) Acidosis
B.) volatiles
C.) Hypercarbia
D.) increased H+ concentrations
A

Answer: B, volatiles

84
Q
  1. On average how much Co2 does the adult body store?
  2. 60L
  3. 90L
  4. 100L
  5. 120L
A

Answer- 120L

M&M pg. 520

85
Q
  1. When an imbalance between production and elimination for C02 occurs, how long does it take to establish a new equilibrium?
  2. 5-10mins
  3. 2-3mins
  4. 20-30 mins
  5. 50-60 mins
A

Answer 20-30 mins

86
Q
  1. Where are the central chemoreceptors located at?
  2. Area of the 4th ventricle.
  3. Thalmus
  4. anteriorlateral surface of Medulla
  5. posterior ventral surface of medulla
A

Answer -3. Anteriorlateral surface of medulla

M&M pg. 521

87
Q
  1. Carotid bodies are most sensitive to what?
  2. ScV02
  3. Sa02
  4. Pac02
  5. Pa02
A

Answer- Pa02

M&M pg. 522

88
Q
  1. Impluses from the lung receptors (Stretch Receptors) are carried by which nerve?
  2. CN X
  3. CN VI
  4. CN VII
  5. CN XI
A

Answer- 1. CN X- Vagus Nerve M&M pg. 522

Thurman Exam 3 (1 decks)

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