Exam 4 Flashcards
(351 cards)
1
Q
Efferent vessels carrying blood AWAY from the heart?
A
Arteries
2
Q
Affarent vessels carrying blood TOWARD the heart.
A
Veins
3
Q
Microscopic vessels connecting small arteries to small veins
A
Capillaries
4
Q
Inside the blood verssel. Simple squamous tissue or endothelium, continuous with the endocardium
A
Tunica interna
5
Q
the thickest, smooth muscle, collagen and elastiv tissue. Produces vasomotion: vasconstruction and vasodilation
A
Tunica media
6
Q
Loose connective tissue, anchors vessels, and allows small nerves, lymphatic nerves, and smaller blood vessels to reach tissues of large vessels
A
Tunica externa
7
Q
Large vessels that have their own network of small vessels
A
vaso vasorum
8
Q
Why are arteries considered to be the resistance vessels of the cardiovascular systme?
A
Because they are relatively strong, resilient tissue structure that resists the high blood pressure within.
9
Q
Biggest arteries, absorb some pressure but also maintain it. Ex. Aorta
A
Conducting (elastic) arteries
10
Q
Midsized arteries that distribute blood to specific organs. Ex. femoral artery
A
Distributing (muscular) arteries
11
Q
Smallest arteries; less than .1mm in diameter; arterioles are smallest example and do not have specific names
A
Resistance arteries
12
Q
Short vessels linking arterioles and capillaries
A
metarterioles
13
Q
An abnormal widening or balloning of a portion of artery due to weakness in the wall of the blood vessel
A
Aneurysm
14
Q
Baroreceptors in internal carotoid artery wall; flossopharyngeal nerve transmits signals to vasometor and cardiac centers of brainstem
A
Carotid sinuses
15
Q
Chemoreceptors near branch point of common carotid artery; vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves transmit signals to respiratory centers of the brain
A
Carotid bodies
16
Q
Chemoreceptors in aortic arch; like carotid bodies, they signal respiratory centers of the brain
A
Aortic bodies
17
Q
Exchange vessels; nutrients, waste, and hormones, move between blood and tissue fluid
A
Capillaries
18
Q
Endothelial cells joined by tight junctions, but some intercellular clefts present
A
Continuous capillary
19
Q
Endothelial cells have filtration pores facillitating exchange
A
Fenestrated capillary
20
Q
Irregular, tortuous passages with wide gaps between endothelial cells
A
Sinusoid (discontinuous capillary)
21
Q
What are the 3 routes that materials can travel through a capillary wall?
A
The intercullar clefts, the filteration pores, and through endothelial cytoplasm by trtanscytosis or diffusion
22
Q
When a tissue is _____, precapillary sphincters relax (open) and capillaries fill with blood
A
Active
23
Q
When a tissue is ______, precapillary sphincters close and blood flows from metarteriole to thouroughfare channel
A
Inactive
24
Q
At rest what % of blood is found in the systemic veins?
A
64%
25
Veins are regarderd as the ________ of the cardiovascular system because they are relatively thin-walled and flaccid. They contain most of the blood?
Capacitance vessels
26
15um to 1mm in diamter; very porous, allow for exchange
postcapillary venules
27
Greater than 1 mm in diameter and have smooth muscle in wall (tunica media)
Muscular venules
28
Up to 10 mm diamerter, Individually named, and contains valves
Medium veins
29
Large lumens, very thin walls, no smooth muscle
Venous sinuses
30
Diameters greater than 15mm, have smooth muscle in all tunics
Large veins
31
What is simple path?
Artery to capillary to vein
32
What is portal system?
Sequence of two capillary beds
33
What is anastomosis
vessel merger without intervining capillary bed
34
What is the most common vascular disease?
Atherosclerosis;
35
What are the functions of lymphatic systems?
Recover fluid lost from blood capillaries; guard against pathogens, absorb lipids from small intestine
36
What are the components of lymphatic system?
Lymoh fluid, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic tissue, lymphatic organs
37
A clear colorless fluid, similar to blood plasma; low in proteins, supplies lymphocytes to bloodstream,
Lymph
38
Loosely connected overlapping endothelial cells
Lymphatic capillaries
39
What is the flow of lymph?
Lymphatic capillaries --> collecting vessels --> lymphatic trunks --> collecting ducts --> subclavian vein
40
Named by location: jugular, subclavian, bronchomediastinal, intercostal, intestinal, and lumbar
Lymphatic Trunks
41
Convergence of trunks in right thoracic cavity
Right lymphatic duct
42
Begins at cisterna chyli of abdomen
Thoracic duct
43
What is the flow of lymph aided by?
rhythmic contraction of lymphatic vessels
44
What lymphatic cells attack and kill cells and provide immunological surveillance?
Natual killer (NK) cells
45
Lymphatic cells that are thymus dependent. include Cytoxic, Helper, Regulatory and memory
T lymphocytes (T cells)
46
Cells that differentiate into plasma cells-- connective tissue cells that secrete defensive proteins called antibodies
B lymohocytes (B cells)
47
Develop from monocytes and display antigens to T cells
macrophages
48
Branched Macrophages; found in epidermis, mucous membranes, and lymphatic organs
Dendritic cells
49
Stationary cells; stroma of lymphatic organs
Reticular cells
50
Aggregations of lymphatictes in the connective tissues of mucous membranes and various organs
Lymphatic (lymphoid) tissues
51
What is prevalent in passages of respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts
MALT; mucosa-associated lyphatic tissue)
52
What are regarded as primary lymphatic organs?
Red bone marrow and Thymus
53
Why are the red bone marrow and thymus regarded as primary lymphatic organs?
because they are the sites where B and T lymphocytes become immunocompetent
54
What are the secondary Lymphatic organs>
lymphnodes, tonsils, and spleen
55
What is the site of hemopoiesis?
red bone marrow
56
What does the red bone marrow do?
Supplies lymphocytes and other blood cells; reticular cells secrete colony-stimulating factors for leukocyte production
57
What is a bilobed organ located between the sternum and aortic arch?
The Thymus
58
What does the Thymus do?
houses developing lymphocytes and secretes hormones
59
What seals off blood vessels and secrete chemical messengers promoting development of T cells?
Reticular epithelial cells
60
What is the presence of thymus in a newborn necessary for development?
Immunity
61
At what age does the thymus start shrinking?
15
62
what are the most numerous lymphatic organs that are bean shped and less than 3 cm long
Lymph nodes
63
What are the two functions of lymph nodes?
to cleanse the lymph and to act as a site of T and B cell activation
64
What are some physical traits of the lymoh nodes?
outer cortex and inner medulla
65
What leads to the node but few leave?
Afferent vessels lead, efferent leave
66
What locations are nodes concentrated in?
cervical, axillary, thoracic, abdominal, intestinal and meseteric, inguinal, and popliteal
67
What are the patches of lymphatic tissue at entrance of pharynx?
tonsils
68
What are the three setsx of tonsils?
pharyngeal tonsil (adenoids), palatine tonsiles, and lingual tonsils
69
What is the largest lymphatic organ measuring up to 12 cm long?
Spleen
70
What is the concentration of erythrocytes?
red pulp
71
What consists of lymphocytes and macrophages/
white pulp
72
A population of disease-fighting cells that reside in the mucous membranes, lymphatic organs, and other localities in the body?
Immune system
73
What are two types of nonspecific defenses in the immune system>
Barriers to invasion by skin and mucous membranes and general actions against pathogens that penetrate
74
What is the specific immunity defense?
Ability to defeat and remember specific pathogens based on their antigens
75
What are the two forms of specefic immunity
Humoral and cellular
76
What is Humoral immunity?
Done by B lymphocytes and antibodies; antibodies are secreted by plasma cells and circulate freely in body fluids
77
What is cellular immunity?
Done by cytotoxic T cells; after developing in thymus, they are distributed widely, especially to lyph nodes; T cells attack enemy cells with lethal hit of toxic chemicals
78
With age, what happens to the quantity of red marrow, lymphatic tissue, and thymic hormones?
It declines.
79
What is a result of fewer T cells due to decline in red marrow
slower response to antigens, inreased risk of cancer
80
What does poorer discrimination in antigens result in?
increase in autoimmune disease incidence
81
What are exaggerated immune responses?
Allergies
82
What are the functions of the Respiratory system?
Gas exchange
Communication
Olfaction
Control pH of body
Aids in regulation of blood pressure by assisting angiotension II production
Helps create pressure gradients for flow of lymph and venous blood
Expulsion of abdominal contents
83
Division of the respiratory system that consists of passages that serve only for airflow, without the exchange of gasses.
Conducting division
84
Divsion that consists of gas exchange areas
Respiratory division
85
The airway from the nose through the larynx is often called the ?
upper respiratory tract
86
The regions from the trachae through the lungs compose the?
lower respiratory tract
87
What are the functions of the nose?
it warms, cleanses, and humidifies air; it detcts odors in the airstream; and it serves as a resonating chamber that amplifies the voice
88
What is the chamber just inside the nostril?
vestibule
89
septal cartilage, vomer, perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone?
Nasal septum
90
The Pharynx, or throat, has three divisions:?
nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
91
What is posterior to choanae and soft palate, houses pharyngeal tonsil, and is pseudostratified epithelium?
Nasopharynx
92
What is posterior to root of tongue, entry from mouth is through fauces, stratified squamous epithelium?
Oropharynx
93
What is form tip of epiglottis to esophagus and stratified squamous epithelium?
Laryngopharynx
94
What is the voice box, keeps food out of the airway with epiglottis?
The Larynx
95
What is one of the prominent cartilages on the larynx?
thyroid cartilage on anterior aspect
96
What does the larynx house inside?
the vocal cords and vestibular folds
97
What is known as the "windpipe"
The trachae
98
The trachae is a tube lying ____ to esophagus?
anterior
99
What are the c-shaped rings made of?
hyaline cartilage
100
What is trachealis?
smooth muscle on posterior aspect
101
What is internal median ridge on lowest tracheal cartilage?
Carina
102
What happens at the inferior end of trachae?
splits to form two main bronchi
103
What is the outermost connective tissue connecting trachae to neighboring organs
Adventitia
104
The lungs have a _____ apex, and _____ base.
superior; inferior
105
The costal surface is pressed against?
the rib cage
106
The midiastinal surface exhibits a slit called?
hilum
107
The hilum which receives the main bronchus, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves constitute the ____ of the lung?
Root
108
The left lung has an indention called the _____ where the heart presses against it?
cardiac impression with notch
109
Lobes are separated by what?
fissures
110
The Left lung has how many lobes>
2
111
The right lung has how many lobes?
3
112
Each lung contains a branching sysstem of air tubes called?
the bronchial tree
113
Bronchus is wider and more vertical that the left one
main bronchus
114
How many total secondary (lobar) bronchi are there?
5, one for each lobe
115
What are all bronchi lined by?
ciliated pseudostratisfied columnar epithelium
116
What is the size of a bronchiole?
1mm or less in diameter
117
A bronchiole ventilates what?
a pulomonary lobule
118
Each bronchiole splits into over how many bronchioles?
50
119
What are the final branches of the conducting zone?
terminal bronchioles
120
What do respiratory bronchioles have?
alveoli
121
What are alveolar ducts?
elongated passages
122
What are clustered around atrium?
Alveolar sacs
123
What are 95% surface area; respiratory membrane is site of gas exchange--consists of type 1 cell and capillart cell
Squamous (type 1) alveolar cells
124
What is 5% of surface area, outnumber type 1 cells, produce a surfactant, and repair alveolar epithelium
Great (type II) alverolar cells
125
Each lung is enfolded in a two-layered seous membrane
the pleura
126
The layer on the lung surface
visceral pleura
127
Layer on inner surface of rib cage
parietal pleura
128
Space between the parietal and visceral pleurae which contains pleural fluid is called the?
Pleural cavity
129
What are the three functions of pleurae and pleral fluid?
Reduction of friction, creation of a pressure gradient, compartmentalization.
130
What is the prime mover for pulmonary ventilation?
Diaphragm
131
Contraction= ____; Relaxes for _____
inspiration; expiration
132
What is the primary respiratory pacemaker>
Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
133
What signals VRG to modify breathing>
Dorsal respiratory group
134
Signals DRG and VRG to modify breathing?
Pontine Respiratory Group (PRG)
135
Brainstem neurons that respond to pH of CSF?
Central chemoreceptors
136
Neurons in wall of aorta and carotoid arteries that respond to pH, O2, and CO2, content of blood
Peripheral chemoreceptors
137
The central receptors, peripheral chemoreceptors, stretch receptors in respiratory system, irritant receptors, and higher brain centers are part of what?
Respiratory input sources
138
When does fetal breathing begin by?
11 weeks; amniotic fluid is inhaled and exhaled
139
What do restrictive disorders do?
Stiffen lungs and reduce compliance (ease of inflation)
140
Obstuctive disorders do what?
narrow the airways and interfere with airflow
141
What is ingestion?
Intake of food
142
What is digestion?
mechanical and chemical breakdown
143
Whaqt is Absorption?
Uptake of nutrients
144
What is compaction?
Absorption of water and consolidation of indigestible residue
145
What is defication?
elimination of feces
146
What is the digestive tract?
A muscular tube extending from mouth to anus.
147
What are the tissue layers from the inner to outer surface?
Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis externa, Serosa
148
What does the mucosa layer containg?
Epithelioum, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae
149
What does the Muscularis externa layer contain?
Circular layer and longitudinal layer
150
What does the serosa layer contain?
Areolar tissue and mesothelium
151
Which layer has loose connective tissue with vessels and nerves?
submucosa
152
Which layer has smooth muscle for propulsion and mixing. Also inner circular layer and outer longitudal layer?
Muscularis externa
153
Which layer has areolar tissue topped with simple squamous mesothelium?
Serosa
154
Foregut, Midgut, hindgut, and hepatic portal system are part of what?
Circulation of digestive system
155
What contains the esophageal arteries and celiac trunk?
Foregut
156
What contains the superior mesentric artery?
Midgut
157
What contains the inferior mesentric artery?
Hindgut
158
What happens in the Hepatic Portal System
1. small intestine absorbs products of digestion.
2. Nutrient molecules travel in the hepatic portal vein to liver.
3. Liver monitors blood content
4. Blood enters general circulation by way of the hepatic way of the hepatic vein
159
What are connective tissue sheets holding abdominal viscera in place?
Mesentaries
160
Two layered membranes that may hang freely or connect organs together or to abdominal wall
Posterior and anterior mesenrary
161
Extends from lesser curvature of stimach to liver
Lesser omentum
162
Hangs down like an apron from stomach's greater curvature
Greater omentum
163
Mesentary of the colon
Mesocolon
164
What is the mouth known as?
the oral cavity
165
What is the median fold attaching each lip to gum?
Labial frenulum
166
What is the space just inside the lips and cheeks?
Vestibule
167
What is the vallate, foliate, and fungiform part of?
Lingual papillae
168
What is the attachment to the floor of the mouth
Lingual frenulum
169
What are the teeth collectively called?
Dentition
170
Chisel-like cuttin teeth used to bite off a peice of food?
Incisors
171
Pointed and act to puncture and shred food.
Canines
172
Crush and grind food?
Molars and premolars
173
How many deciduous teeth do we have?
20
174
How many permanent teeth?
32
175
What surrounds the neck of the tooth?
gingiva
176
What covers the crown of the tooth?
enamel
177
What are the extrinsic salivary glands?
Parotid, Submandibular, Sublingual
178
Which gland is near the ear and duct opens at 2nd upper molar?
Parotid
179
Which gland in uner the jaw and opens at lower central incisors?
Submanibular
180
Which glad in under the tongue and has several duct openings under tongue?
Sublingual
181
What do the intrinsic salivary glands include?
many small lingual, labial, and buccal glands
182
What does saliva contain?
```
Water (97-99.5%)
Amylase and lipase
mucus
lysozyme
immunolobulin a
electrolytes
```
183
What do the Oropharynx and laryngopharynx do?
Pass food
184
What do the walls of the Oropharynx and laryngopharynx contain?
skeletal muscle; deep longitudinal layer and superficial circular layer
185
The esophagus is posterior to the what?
trachae
186
Where does the esophagus start?
behind the larynx
187
What does the esophagus pass through?
esophageal hiatus of diaphram
188
Where does the esophagus end?
at lower esophageal sphincter located at the cardiac oritce to stomach
189
what is deglutition?
Swallowing; coordinated by swallowing center of medulla
190
The stomach is divided into 4 regions:
the cardiac region, the fundic region, The body, and the plyoric region
191
what are longitdinal folds in empty stomach?
Gastric rugae
192
Microscopic anatomy of stomach
```
Mucous cells (mucus)
Regenerative cells (new cells)
parietal cells (HCI, intrinsic factor,Ghrelin)
chief cells (pepsinogen, gastric lipase)
enteroendocrine cells (hormones)
```
193
Stomach protection from self-digestion: (3 things)
Mucus coat-think, highly alkaline
Tight junctions between epithelial cells prevent seepage of gastric juice
Epithlial cells are frequently replaced (they live only 2 to 6 days)
194
What is the first 25 cm of small intestine; circular folds;receives and mixes stomach contents, pancreatic juice, and bile; major duodenal papilla for bile and pancreatic ducts; minor duodenal papilla for accessory pancreatic duct; duodenojejunal flexure
Duodenum
195
1.0 to 1.7 m; mostly umbilical region; most digestion and absorption occur here; prominent circular folds, red color.
Jejunum
196
1.6 to 2.7 m; sparse folks, pink color; Peyer patches; illeocecal junction
lleum
197
What is part of the microscopic anatomy of small intesting?
Villi, Intestinal crypts (goblet and absorptive cells). Duodenal (Brunner) glands
198
A villus is covered with two kinds of epitheleal cells?
enterocytes and goblet cells
199
Seen deep in intestinal crypts are what?
Paneth cells that secrete lysozyme
200
In the large intestine, what is a pouch in the lower right abdominal quadrant?
Cecum
201
What is attactched to the Cecum at it's lower end?
Appendix - a blind tube
202
What is the portion of the large intestinge between the ileocecal junction and the rectum?
The colon
203
The colon is divided into 4 parts:
Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon
204
Which region of the colon is on the right side of the body and makes a 90 degree turn at the Right coloc flexure?
Ascending Colon
205
Which part of the colon makes a 90 degree downward turn at the left colic flexure?
Transverse colon
206
Which region of colon passes down the left side of the body
descending colon
207
Which region of colon is S-shaped?
Sigmoid colon
208
What part of the large intestine has transverse rectal folds (valves) and retains feces?
Rectum
209
The final 3 cm of the large intestine is what?
Anal canal
210
Anal columns are longitudal rdiges with depressions between them called what?
anal sinuses
211
The muscle tone of the Taeniae cole contracts the colon lengthwise and causes its wall to bulge forming pouches called what?
Haustra
212
The epithelium of the large intestine is mostly what?
simple coulumnar with the exception of the anal canal that has stratified squamous
213
The large intestine has intestinal crypts but no ____ or ____/
villi or circular folds
214
The large intestine has abundant?
lymphatic tissue
215
The mucosa is specialized for what of the large intestine?
Fluid and electrolyte absorption
216
What is the body's largest gland?
The Liver
217
What is the digestive function of the liver?
Bile production
218
What is derived from the decomposition of hemoglobin?
biliruben
219
The bacterial of the large intestine metabolize bilirubin to ____?
urobiliogen, where the brown color comes from in feces
220
What do bile acids/lecithin do?
emulsify fats
221
What is part of the gross anatomy of the liver?
Lobes, Falciform ligament, Porta heaptis, and round ligament.
222
What separates the right lobe from the left lobe in the liver?
falciform ligament
223
What is the area between the quadrate and caudate lobes?
Porta hepatis
224
What is a remnant of umbilical vein?
Round ligament
225
What are small cylinders with central vein, radiating plates of hepatocytes?
Hepatic lobules
226
What do hepatic macrophages do?
clean blood
227
What brings nutrient-rich blood from veins of GI tract to liver?
Hepatic portal vein
228
What brings arterial blood?
Hepatic artery
229
What is the route the arterial blood follows?
Aorta>celiac trunk > common hepatic a. > hepatic artery proper > hepatic a.
230
What exit from top of liver and empty into inferior vena cava?
Hepatic veins
231
What is the sac on the underside of liver; stores and concentrates bile, has a fundus and cervix; and has a cystic duct?
gallbladder
232
Two hepatic ducts merge to form the what?
common hepatic duct
233
The common hepatic duct merges with cystic duct to from what?
bile duct
234
Bile duct merges with main pancreatic duct to form what?
hepatopancreatic ampulla at major duodenal papilla
235
A spongy digestive gland posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach?
The pancreas
236
The pancreas is _____ what to the stomach?
retroperitoneal -- posterior to stomach
237
The head of the pancreas is near ____?
the deodenum
238
The endocrine inslets secrete what?
insulin and glucagon
239
What are the branching ducts of the pancreas>
Pancreatic duct, Accessory pancreatic duct
240
What are the functions of kidneys?
filter blood plasma and excrete wastes
regulate blood volume and blood pressure
regulate osmolarity
regulate electrolyte and acid base balance
secrete erythropoiten for red blod cell production
help synthaxize vitamin D for calcium homeostasis
Clear hormones and drugs; detoxify free radicals
Help support blood glucose levels during starvation
241
What is extracting wase from body fluids and eliminating them?
excretion
242
The most abundant of nitrogen waste is what?
Urea - highly soluble, most common in mammals
243
What is a condition developed from dysfunction of kidneys?
Azotemia - urea concentration in the blood is abnormally high
244
The kidneys are positioned against ______ abdominal wall?
posterior
245
The right kidney is ____ than the left?
Lower
246
What is the hilum of the kidney?
a slit where it receives the renal nerves, blood vessels, lynphatics, and ureter
247
What are the 3 layers of protection of a kidney?
Renal fascia, perirenal fat capsule, and fibrous capsule
248
What is a cavity with vessels and urine-collecting structures?
Renal sinus
249
What is the outer zone of the kidney?
renal cortex
250
What is the inner xone of the kidney?
renal medulla
251
What are extensions of the cortex called?
renal columns - project toward the sinus and divide the medulla into 6 to 10 renal pyramaids
252
What wraps renal artery?
Renal plexus of nerves and ganglia
253
The renal plexus includes what?
sympathetic, parasympathetic, and pain fibers
254
The nephron consists of two principal parts: ?
The renal corpuscle and the renal tubule
255
Which filters blood plasma?
renal copruscle
256
Which converts filterate into urine
renal tubule
257
What is a tube that extends 25 cm from kidney to bladder?
ureter tube
258
Ureters have a three layered wall:?
mucosa - has transitional epithelium
Muscularis - multiple layers of smooth muscle
Adventia - connective tissue binding to surrounding organs
259
What is a sac of the pelvic cavity?
Bladder
260
What is a muscular layer in the bladder?
Detrusor
261
What wrinkles of mucosa?
Rugae
262
What i the triangular region on floor of bladder defined by two ureter inlets and one uretha outlet?
Trigone
263
What are the secondary sex organs of male?
ducts, glands, penis
264
What are the secondary sex organs of female?
uterine tubes, uterus, vagina
265
The scrotum is dicided into right and left compartments by an internal ____?
median septum
266
What is the perineal raphe
and external seam
267
What is a bundle of lymphatic vessels, testicular nerves, fibrouse connective tissue, and a sperm duct?
a spermatic cord
268
The scrotum has 3 mechanisms for regulating the temperature of the testes: ?
cremaster muscle - elevates testes
Dartos muscle - smooth muscle, wrinkles scrotum
Pampiniform plexus - vein network of spermatic cord
269
What are the connective tissues of the testes?
tunica vaginalis and tunica albuginea
270
There are hundreds of lobules in the testes that contain one to three what?
seminiferous tubules
271
What are seminiferous tubules?
slender ducts in which the sperm are produced
272
What is between the seminiferous tubules?
Interstitial cells - source of testosterone
273
Where do the sperm mature?
rete testis
274
What is the process of sperm production?
spermatogenesis
275
First step of spermatogenesis is that Type A undergoes ______, forming Type A and on Type B spermatogonium
mitosis
276
What happens in 2nd step of spermatogenesis?
Type B sperm because primary spermatocyte
277
In step 3 of spermatogenesis, the primary sperm undergoes ____ , forming two ______?
meiosis II forming two haploid secondary spermatocytes
278
The secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II forming _____?
four haploid spermatids
279
What happens in the final step of spermatogenesis?
the spermatids differentiate into sperm (spermiogenesis)
280
What does the head of a sperm contain?
nucleus, acrosome- lysosome, and flagellar basal body
281
What does the tail of the sperm contain?
midpiece- many mitochondria, principle piece, and endpiece
282
Which duct arises from the posterior side of testis and carry sperm to epididymis?
Efferent ductules
283
Which duct contains a head, body, and tail and is sperm storage and maturation
Epididymis
284
Which duct is a long tube with smooth m. in wall and the last portion ampulla is widened
Ductus (vas) deferens
285
The duct that passes through prostate gland, where the DD mets the seminal vesicle; Empties into uretha?
Ejaculatory duct
286
What are the three regions of the male uretha?
Prostatic, membranous, spongy (penil)
287
What are the three sets of accessory glands in the male reproductive system?
Seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands
288
Which pair of glands are posterior to bladder and empty into ejaculatory duct?
Seminal vesicles
289
Which gland surrounds urethra and ejaculatory ducts and empties into urethra?
Prostate gland
290
Which pair of glands are near base of penis and sevretes clear fluid that neutralizes urethra, lubricates head?
Bulbourethral glands
291
What does Semen contain?
```
2-5 ml per ejaculation
10% sperm
30% prostatic fluid
60% seminal vesicle fluid
sperm coutn about 50 to 120 million/ml
```
292
Half of the penis is what?
Internal root
293
The other half of penis is what?
Shaft and glands
294
What is the prepuce?
the foreskin
295
What forms the erectile tissue?
Corpus spongiosum, corpora cavernosa, and internal pudendal artery
296
what is the capsule of the ovaries called?
Tunica albuginea
297
The interior of the ovary is divided into what?
a central medulla and cortex
298
What does the cortex contain?
ovarian follicles, which contains egg and supporting follicular cells
299
What are the connective tissue legaments of the ovaries?
Ovarian ligament, Suspensory , mesocarium and broad
300
Which ligament has a medial attachment to the ovary?
Ovarian
301
Which ligament has a lateral attachment to pelvic wall?
Suspensory
302
Which ligament has an anterior peritoneal anchor?
mesovarium
303
Which ligament is vertically oriented sheet of pertoneum
Broad ligament
304
The ovary receives blood from two arteries: ?
the ovarian branch of uterine artery and ovarian artery
305
Egg production is called?
oogenesis
306
The primary oocyte (diploid) completes meiosis I forming what?
one secondary oocyte and one polar body (haploid)
307
The secondary oocyte is ovulated and will complete meiosis II if what?
fertilized
308
The stages of oogenesis are accompanied by what?
folliculogenesis - a series of changes in the follicle cycle
309
The primary oocyte is initially enclosed in a primordial follicle which is
egg and one layer of follicular cells
310
What is the primary follicle
larger egg, one layer of cubodial follicular celss
311
What is secondary follicle
larger egg, two or more layers of granulosa cells
312
What is tertiary follicle
contains fluid filled pockets or a single fluid filled antrum among granulosa cells
313
Mature (graafian) follicle
large blister bulging from ovary
314
Ovulation of secondary oocyte from mature follicle occurs around what day of menstrual cycle?
day 14
315
What does a collapsed follicle become?
corpus luteum
316
If there is no pregnancy, it involutes and becomes what?
corpus albicans - a scar
317
What are uterine tubes also called?
oviducts or fallopian tubes
318
Where does the uterine lead from?
Leads from the ovary to the uterus and is ciliated
319
What projects from infundibulum toward the ovary?
Fimbriae
320
What is the middle segment of the uterine tube?
ampulla
321
What is the segment near the uterus that is narrower?
Isthmus
322
What is the thick muscular chamber that opens into the roof of the vagina and usually tilts forward over the urinary bladder?
The Uterus
323
The uterus has three sections: ?
Fundus, body, cervix
324
What does the uterine wall consist of?
Perimetrium - external serosa
Myometrium - smooth muscle
Endometrium - functional layer, basal layer
325
Which layer of the endometrium regenerates new lining?
Basal layer
326
Which layer of the endometrium is superficial and sheds with the period?
Functional layer
327
What are the ligaments of the Uterus?
Broad, Cardinal. Uterosacral, Round
328
Which ligament of the uterus contains the mesoalpinx and mesometrium
Broad
329
Which ligament is lateral from cervix to pelvic wall
Cardinal
330
Which ligament of the uterus is on the posterior side
Uterosacral
331
Which ligament of the uterus is on the anterior surface?
Round
332
What is the blood supply of the uterus?
Uterine artery branches to acuate glands
333
What is the prolferative phase?
lining is rebuilt after menstruation
334
What is the Secretory phase?
Lining thickens by secretion (not mitosis)
335
What is the Menstrual phase>
After ischemia, menstrual fluid is discharged vaginally
336
What has a thin distensible wall of mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia
Vagina
337
What are fornices?
superior extensions around cervix
338
What are frictional ridges at the lower end of the vagina?
vaginal rugae
339
What is the membrane across the opening of the vagina?
Hymen
340
What is metaplasia?
the transformation of one tissue type to another
341
What are the tissue changes in the vagina?
simple cubodial to stratified squamous
342
What is considered the external genitalia?
Vulva
343
What is the anterior mound of adipose tissue
mons pubis
344
What are thick folds between thighs
Labia majora
345
What are the jairless, thin, medial folds?
Labia minora
346
What is the area enclosed by labia minora?
Vestibule
347
Erectile; area of sexual stimulation
clitoris
348
Erectile tissues deep to labia majora/
Vestibular bulbs
349
Which glands provide lubrication?
Greater and lesser vestibular and Paraurethral glands
350
What attaches the dermis to fascia of pectoralis major m. of the breast?
Suspensory ligaments
351
What is each lobe of the mammory gland drained by?
a lactiferous duct
