Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Bile is stored in the
a. duodenum
b. gallbladder
c. liver
d. appendix
e. pancreas
A
B. Gallbladder
2
Q
Obesity is defined as a body weight more than ___ percent above the ideal body weight for an individual.
a. 15
b.5
c.10
d. 20
e.30
A
D. 20%
3
Q
Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except:
a. activating the spermatozoa
b. producing buffers
c. propelling spermatozoa and fluids along the reproductive tract
d. producing spermatozoa
e. meeting the nutrient needs of spermatozoa for motility
A
D. producing spermatozoa
4
Q
- which of the following is not a function of the ovaries?
a. responding directly to Gn RH
b. formation of immature gametes
c. secretion of inhibin
d. production of oocytes
e. secretion of hormones
A
A. responding directly to GnRH
5
Q
___ are the organs of milk production
a. bartholin’s glands
b. mammary glands
c. the pudenda
d. lactiferous ducts
e. cowper’s gland
A
B. Mammary glands
6
Q
The ___ is a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac
a. raphe
b. rete testis
c. tunica albuginea
d. cremaster muscle
e. dartos muscle
A
E. Dartos muscle
7
Q
Secondary spermatocytes each contain
a. twice the diploiid number of chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes, each with a pair of duplicate chromatids
c. 23 single. chromosomes
d. 46 pairs of chromosomes
e. 46 chromosomes
A
B. 23 chromosomes, each with a pair of duplicate chromatids
8
Q
The onsent of the first uterine cycle is called
a. menses
b. menstrual cycle
c. menarche
d. menopause
e. menstruation
A
C. Menarche
9
Q
Name the structures enclosed by the broad ligament, and describe the function of the mesovarium.
A
A.
10
Q
Which of the following is not required for arousal to occur?
a. there must be sufficient blood hydrostatic pressure
b. Nitric oxide must be present
c. the sacral spinal cord must be intact
d. sympathetic stimulation of sacral nerves
e. parasympathetic stimulation of pelvic nerves
A
D. Sympathetic stimulation of sacral nerves
11
Q
“Natural family planning” is an alternative term for which form of birth control?
a. hormonal post-coital contraception
b. oral contraceptives
c. an intrauterine device
d. the rhythms method
e. vasectomy
A
D. The rhythms method
12
Q
Figure 26-2: Identify the structure labeled “11”
a. vagina
b. cervix
c. infundibulum
d. uterus
e. ureter
A
d
13
Q
The main organs of the female reproductive tract include all of the following except the
a. ovaries
b. mammary glands
c. urinary bladder
d. vagina
e. uterus
A
C. urinary bladder
14
Q
The process of spermiogenesis produces
a. secondary spermatocytes
b. primary spermatocytes
c. spermatozoa
d. spermatogonia
e. spermatids
A
C. Spermatozoa
15
Q
Spermatids mature into spermatozoa by the process of
A) spermatogenesis.
B) meiosis.
C) spermiogenesis.
D) mitosis.
E) capacitation.
A
C. Spermiogenesis
16
Q
The average length of the uterine cycle is
a. 16 days
b. 28 days
c. 21 days
d. 19 days
e. 35 days
A
B. 28 days
17
Q
The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the
a. zone reticularis
b. zona pellucida
c. peripapilla
d. fornix
e. areolaa
A
E. Areola
18
Q
The broad ligament does all of the following except
a. stay continuous with the parietal peritoneum
b. attach to the floor of the pelvic cavity
c. subdivide the peritoneal cavity
d. enclose the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus
e. support and stabilizes the position of the ovary
A
E. Support and stabilizes the position of the ovary
19
Q
The ___ is the region between the developing oocyte and the granulosa cells
a. egg nest
b. corona radiata
c. antrum
d. corpus albicans
e. zona pellucida
A
e. zona pellucida
20
Q
What roles do the ovaries perform?
a. secrete FSH and LH to control female reproductive cycles
b. secrete femal and male sex hormans and secrete catecholamines
c. produce ooxytes, anchor and support the uterus structurally, and act as the site for fertilization
d. produce oocytes and provide the site for fetal development
e. produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin
A
e. produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin
21
Q
What are the functions of the bulbo-urethral glands?
A) Bulbo-urethral glands produce testosterone.
B) Bulbo-urethral glands produce inhibin.
C) Bulbo-urethral glands produce the antibiotic protein, seminalplasmin.
D) Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis.
E) Bulbo-urethral glands produce about 60 percent of the volume of semen.
A
D) Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis.
22
Q
The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called
A) spermatozoa.
B) spermatids.
C) spermatogonia.
D) primary spermatocytes.
E) secondary spermatocytes
A
E) secondary spermatocytes
23
Q
The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is
A) menses.
B) the secretory phase.
C) the follicular phase.
D) the proliferative phase.
E) the luteal phase.
A
A) menses.
24
Q
________ is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the endometrium.
A) Menstruation
B) Menopause
C) Perimenopause
D) Menarche
E) Ovulation
A
A) Menstruation
25
Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the A) ampullae.
B) labia majora.
C) vestibular arches.
D) mons pubis.
E) fornices.
B) labia majora
26
The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is
A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) LH.
D) FSH.
E) luteosterone.
B) progesterone.
27
The region where blood vessels enter the ovary is called the
A) ovarian hilum.
B) ovarian umbilical cord.
C) tunica albuginea.
D) infundibulopelvic ligament.
E) ovarian ligament.
A) ovarian hilum.
28
Spermatozoa functionally mature within the A) seminal gland.
B) rete testes.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) ductus deferens.
D) epididymis.
29
Contraction of the dartos muscle
A) produces an erection.
B) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. C) elevates the scrotal sac.
D) initiates seminal emission.
E) propels sperm through the urethra.
C) elevates the scrotal sac.
30
Which of the following is not true of interstitial cells?
A) They respond to luteinizing hormone.
B) They produce inhibin.
C) They help establish male secondary sex characteristics.
D) They are found in the tissue between seminiferous tubules.
E) They produce testosterone.
B) They produce inhibin.
31
Nurse cells are not
A) also called Sertoli cells.
B) found in the seminiferous tubules.
C) involved in coordinating spermatogenesis. D) precursors to gametes.
E) important in forming the blood-testis barrier.
D) precursors to gametes.
32
Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) ovary
B) uterus
C) vagina
D) labium
E) clitoris
C) vagina
33
Which of the following is greater?
A) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at puberty
B) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth
B) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth
34
Interstitial cells produce
A) sperm.
B) inhibin.
C) nutrients.
D) androgen-binding protein.
E) androgens.
E) androgens.
35
Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) ductus deferens
B) testis
C) prostate gland
D) epididymis
E) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
A) ductus deferens
36
All of the following are true of the vagina except that it 36)
A) holds spermatozoa prior to their passage to the uterus.
B) forms the lower portion of the birth canal.
C) receives the penis during coitus.
D) loses a portion of its lining during menses.
E) serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids.
D) loses a portion of its lining during menses.
37
Which of these glands secretes a fluid that lubricates the tip of the penis?
A) prostate
B) Bartholin's gland
C) seminal gland
D) vestibular gland
E) bulbourethral gland
E) bulbourethral gland
38
The ________ is the outer lining of the uterus.
A) germinal epithelium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) endometrium
E) uterine lumen
C) perimetrium
39
Which of the following properly describes the cervix?
A) It contains fingerlike projections called fimbriae.
B) It connects the ampulla and infundibulum.
C) Its outer layer is called the perimetrium.
D) It connects to the uterine cavity by the internal os.
E) It is a constricted passageway at the superior end of the uterine cavity.
D) It connects to the uterine cavity by the internal os.
40
The ________ is an opening through which the spermatic cord passes.
A) infundibulum
B) inguinal canal
C) seminiferous tubule
D) efferent ductule
E) scrotal cavity
B) inguinal canal
41
During meiosis I, in maternal and paternal systems, chromosomes fuse together during the process called ________ to form a ________.
A) prophase I; chromatid
B) synapsis; tetrad
C) metaphase II; tetrad
D) synapsis; chromatid
E) synapsis; spermatid
B) synapsis; tetrad
42
The space bounded by the labia minora is the
a. vestibule
b. clitoris
c. isthmus
d. fornix
e. hymen
a. vestibule
43
The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the
A) vagina.
B) uterine tube.
C) cervix.
D) ovary.
E) uterus.
E) uterus.
44
How many sperm will eventually be produced from each primary spermatocyte?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6
d. 4
45
What ovarian cycle changes would result if the LH surge did not occur?
A) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation
would not occur, and the corpus luteum would not form.
B) If the LH surge did not occur, follicles would not develop, estrogen levels would increase, and
the oocyte would not develop.
C) If the LH surge did not occur, the menstrual phase would continue past day 7, inhibin
secretion would not occur, and estrogen secretion would not occur.
D) If the LH surge did not occur, oocyte and follicular development would be faster and estrogen
and progesterone levels would be higher.
E) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation
would occur around day 7, and the corpus albicans would not form.
A) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation
would not occur, and the corpus luteum would not form.
46
Cite the similarities that exist between certain structures in the reproductive systems of females and males.
A) The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue.
B) The seminal glands in males are similar to the greater vestibular glands in females and both males and females produce gametes outside of the body.
C) The ductus deferens in males is similar to the vagina in females and both males and females have folds of tissue called hymen.
D) The prostate gland in males is similar to the uterus in females and the both the male penis and female vagina contain erectile tissue.
E) The scrotum in males is similar to the mons pubis in females and the urethra of both males and females travels through the reproductive structures.
A) The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue.
47
The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the
A) corpus spongiosum.
B) penile urethra.
C) glans penis.
D) membranous urethra.
E) corpus cavernosum.
A) corpus spongiosum.
48
The ________ is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine 48) tubes.
A) fundus
B) internal os
C) cervix
D) myometrium
E) body
A) fundus
49
Describe the three layers of the uterine wall.
A) The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular
layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.
B) The endometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the myometrium is the inner, glandular
layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.
C) The endometrium is the outer, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular
layer; the perimetrium is the inner, incomplete serosal layer.
D) The endometrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer; the myometrium is the inner,
muscular layer; the perimetrium is the middle, glandular layer.
E) The endometrium is the outer, muscular layer; the myometrium is the middle, incomplete serosal layer; the perimetrium is the inner, glandular layer.
A) The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular
layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.
50
The ________ is the inner lining of the uterus.
A) germinal epithelium
B) perimetrium
C) myometrium
D) uterine lumen
E) endometrium
E) endometrium
51
Which of the following interactions is incorrect regarding the reproductive system?
A) The endocrine system provides hormones that regulate the gonads.
B) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are both involved in erection and ejaculation.
C) The gonads produce hormones that influence muscular development.
D) The male urethra is a structure shared by the urinary and reproductive systems.
E) A vasectomy is an effective way of preventing ovulation.
E) A vasectomy is an effective way of preventing ovulation.
52
Contraction of the cremaster muscles
A) propels sperm through the urethra.
B) moves sperm through the ductus deferens.
C) relaxes the scrotal sac.
D) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity.
E) both relaxes the scrotal sac and propels sperm through the urethra.
D) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity.
53
List the products of glycolysis.
A) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH
B) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH
C) 1 molecule of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH
D) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 4 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH
E) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ADP, 4 molecules of NADH
A) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH
54
Urea is formed in the
A) stomach.
B) large intestine.
C) liver.
D) small intestine.
E) kidneys.
C) liver.
55
Identify when most of the CO2 is released during the complete catabolism of glucose.
A) preparatory step
B) citric acid cycle
C) electron transport chain
D) glycolysis
E) Calvin cycle
B) citric acid cycle
56
What is basal metabolic rate?
A) the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an average person
B) the minimum resting energy expenditure of a sleeping person
C) the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person
D) the amount of heat generated by an awake, alert person
E) the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an athlete
C) the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person
57
What happens to the ammonium ions that are removed from amino acids during deamination?
A) they combine with fatty acids and enter beta-oxidation
B) they combine with CO2 and enter the urea cycle
C) they combine with CO2 and are exhaled
D) they combine with pyruvate and enter the citric acid cycle
E) they are removed directly by the kidneys
B) they combine with CO2 and enter the urea cycle
58
A deficiency in vitamin D would result in which of the following disorders?
A) pernicious anemia
B) night blindness
C) scurvy
D) rickets
E) pellagra
D) rickets
59
The food pyramid recommends many servings a day of dark-green and orange vegetables and 59) citrus fruits. Which vitamin is not particularly abundant in these food groups?
A) D
B) C
C) E
D) A
E) All of the answers are correct; folic acid
A) D
60
Most of the absorbed nutrients enter into which blood vessel?
A) hepatic portal vein
B) aorta
C) hepatic artery
D) superior mesenteric artery
E) inferior vena cava
A) hepatic portal vein
61
The vitamin whose deficiency causes beriberi is A) thiamine.
B) folic acid (folate).
C) riboflavin.
D) cobalamin.
E) niacin.
A) thiamine.
62
A balanced diet would include all of the following, except
A) adequate substrates for the production of energy.
B) essential amino acids and fatty acids.
C) enough calories to produce 100 million trillion ATPs.
D) both fat soluble and fat insoluble vitamins.
E) adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals.
C) enough calories to produce 100 million trillion ATPs.
63
A disorder caused by the ingestion of excessive quantities of a fat-soluble vitamin is known as A) Kwashiorkor.
B) hypovitaminosis.
C) avitaminosis.
D) hypervitaminosis.
E) carbohydrate loading.
D) hypervitaminosis.
64
64) Explain the role of glycogen in cellular metabolism.
A) It is the primary fuel that enters the electron transport chain.
B) It is the primary fuel that enters glycolysis.
C) It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve.
D) It is the primary fuel that enters the citric acid cycle.
E) It can easily be converted to other non-carbohydrate fuel sources.
C) It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve.
65
Describe the source of intestinal gas.
A) churning of food in the stomach increases the carbon dioxide that is mixed into the chyme
B) as bile emulsifies lipids some gas is released in the process
C) as certain foods are broken down they release trapped gases
D) bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon
E) swallowing excess air during eating generates pockets of air that remain in the food
D) bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon
66
The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called
A) metabolism.
B) anabolism.
C) catabolism.
D) oxidative phosphorylation.
E) glycolysis.
A) metabolism.
67
Define energetics.
A) Energetics is the force generated by muscular contractions.
B) Energetics is the balance of food intake with energy expenditure.
C) Energetics is how much energy is derived from food.
D) Energetics is the study of the flow of energy and its change from one form to another.
E) Energetics is the sum of all the energy created by nutrient breakdown in the body.
D) Energetics is the study of the flow of energy and its change from one form to another.
68
A(n) ________ is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids.
A) incomplete protein
C) fat-soluble vitamin
B) complete protein
D) water-soluble vitamin
A) incomplete protein
69
Compare oxidation and reduction.
A) Oxidation is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is
gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons.
B) Oxidation is the gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons.
B) Oxidation is the gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons.
70
Cells do not synthesize new organic components for which of the following reasons?
A) production of secretions
B) creation of essential amino acids
C) regulation of homeostasis
D) growth and repair
E) structural maintenance
B) creation of essential amino acids
71
Of these — carbohydrates, lipids, or proteins — which releases the greatest amount of energy per gram during catabolism?
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) carbohydrates
D) carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins all release the same amount of energy
A) lipids
72
Describe the roles of LDLs and HDLs.
A) LDLs deliver excess cholesterol to adipocytes and HDLs remove excess cholesterol from
adipocytes.
B) LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine and HDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the
liver.
C) LDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues and HDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the
liver.
D) LDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver and HDLs deliver cholesterol to
tissues.
E) LDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver and LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine.
C) LDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues and HDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the
liver.
73
Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called
A) chylomicrons.
B) water-soluble vitamins.
C) low-density lipoproteins.
D) essential fatty acids.
E) high-density lipoproteins.
D) essential fatty acids.
74
Essay: Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have?
Ketosis is a high concentration of ketone bodies in body fluids. Ketone bodies are metabolites with the ketone group
that form during starvation states. When glucose levels are low, the liver turns to fats and amino acids to make energy. This produces much acetyl-CoA, which leads to production of ketone bodies. Because most ketone bodies are acidic, they lower the pH of body fluids. If severe, the ketosis can injure the CNS, heart, and other organs. In extreme cases, death can result.
75
What molecule forms the common substrate for the citric acid cycle?
a. acetate ion
b. FAD
c. glucose
d. pyruvate
e. NAD
a. acetate ion
76
All of these are responses or processes controlled by the heat-gain center except
A) hunter's response.
B) nonshivering thermogenesis.
C) the countercurrent mechanism.
D) vasoconstriction.
E) increased respiration depth.
E) increased respiration depth.
77
________ carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver.
A) Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
B) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
C) Very-high-density lipoproteins (VHDLs)
D) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
E) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
78
What heat transfer process accounts for about one-half of a person's heat loss when indoors?
A) radiation
B) convection
C) sensible perspiration
D) insensible perspiration
E) conduction
A) radiation
79
At the Holy Frijoles restaurant, you order a burrito grande with extra sour cream and cheese and an order of tortilla chips with guacamole. You're very satisfied with your meal–it's a lot of food–and as
you finish off the last of the chips, the satiety center in your ________ starts letting you know that you've had enough to eat now.
A) mid-brain
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebellum
D) pons
E) medulla oblongata
B) hypothalamus
80
List the reactants required and products generated by mitochondria.
A) reactants: 2 carbon substrates, CO2, and H2O; products: 4 carbon substrates, O2, and ATP
B) reactants: CO2, H2O, and ATP; products: 2 carbon substrates and O2
C) reactants: 2 carbon substrates and O2; products: CO2, H2O, and ATP
D) reactants: 2 carbon substrates and O2, and ATP; products: CO2 and H2O
E) reactants: CO2 and H2O; products: 2 carbon substrates, O2, and ATP
C) reactants: 2 carbon substrates and O2; products: CO2, H2O, and ATP
81
The largest lipoproteins, ________, are produced by intestinal epithelial cells from the fats in food.
A) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
B) chylomicrons
C) very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
D) low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
E) intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
B) chylomicrons
82
Identify the segment of the small intestine found within the epigastric region.
A) jejunum
B) duodenum
C) ileocecal valve
D) ileum
E) cecum
B) duodenum
83
Trace a drop of bile from the hepatic ducts to the duodenal lumen.
A) hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, bile duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal
lumen
B) hepatic ducts, liver sinusoids, cystic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen
C) hepatic ducts, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen
D) hepatic ducts, cystic duct, bile duct, common hepatic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen
E) hepatic ducts, bile duct, duodenal lumen
A) hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, bile duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal
lumen
84
Describe a portal triad.
A) A portal triad consists of two lobes of the liver and the gallbladder.
B) A portal triad consists of an interlobular vein, an interlobular artery, and an interlobular bile duct.
C) A portal triad consists of the three primary lobes of the liver.
D) A portal triad consists of a central vein, bile canaliculi, and bile ductules.
E) A portal triad consists of three hepatocytes forming a lobule.
B) A portal triad consists of an interlobular vein, an interlobular artery, and an interlobular bile duct.
84
________ are also known as canines.
A) Cuspids
B) Molars
C) Bicuspids
D) Secondary teeth
E) Incisors
A) Cuspids
85
Which of the following cranial nerves are not involved in stimulating salivary reflexes or taste buds?
A) Facial (VII)
B) Hypoglossal (XII)
C) Glossopharyngeal (IX)
D) Vagus (X)
E) Trigeminal (V)
B) Hypoglossal (XII)
86
Define hemorrhoids.
A) Hemorrhoids are ulcers in the large intestine from acidic chyme that was not neutralized.
B) Hemorrhoids are polyps that form in the sigmoid colon.
C) Hemorrhoids are distended veins in the distal portion of the rectum.
D) Hemorrhoids are collections of fat along the serosa of the rectum.
E) Hemorrhoids are pouches in the wall of the colon.
C) Hemorrhoids are distended veins in the distal portion of the rectum.
87
Explain the function of lacteals.
A) They primarily deliver hormones to the digestive mucosa.
B) They transport materials that cannot enter lymphatic capillaries.
C) They release defensins and lysozyme.
D) They increase the surface area of the small intestine.
E) They transport materials that cannot enter blood capillaries.
E) They transport materials that cannot enter blood capillaries.
88
The first teeth to appear are not associated with
A) baby teeth.
B) milk teeth.
C) deciduous teeth.
D) wisdom teeth.
E) primary teeth.
D) wisdom teeth
89
What is the primary function of the duodenum?
A) The primary function of the duodenum is to regulate the speed that food enters the large intestine.
B) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce acid for the digestion of protein.
C) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce vitamin K.
D) The primary function of the duodenum is to absorb water.
E) The primary function of the duodenum is to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small
intestine.
E) The primary function of the duodenum is to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small
intestine.
90
The root of each tooth sits in a bony cavity known as a(n)
A) alveolus.
B) sulcus.
C) buccal.
D) cement.
E) ileum.
A) alveolus.
91
Essay: Name the major hormones that regulate digestive activities:
Gastrin, secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), cholecystokinin (CCK), vasoactive peptide (VIP), and enterocrinin.
92
Gastric pits are
A) acid scars in the esophagus.
B) ridges in the body of the stomach.
C) openings into gastric glands.
D) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach.
E) hollows where proteins are stored.
C) openings into gastric glands.
93
What is the primary digestive function of the pancreas?
A) to produce buffers and enzymes for the digestion of starches, lipids, nucleic acids, and
proteins
B) to produce bile for the digestion of lipids
C) to produce hormones that increase digestion in the small intestine
D) to produce acid for the digestion of proteins in the stomach
E) to produce mucus for the ease of feces passing through the rectum
A) to produce buffers and enzymes for the digestion of starches, lipids, nucleic acids, and
proteins
94
On average, the body produces ________ of saliva in a day.
A) 0.50-1.0 L
B) less than 0.25 L
C) 1.5-2 L
D) 1.0-1.5 L
E) more than 2.5 L
D) 1.0-1.5 L
95
During deglutition,
A) the larynx elevates and the epiglottis closes.
B) the soft palate elevates.
C) the lower esophageal sphincter opens.
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.
D) All of the answers are correct.
96
Which other systems work with the digestive system to support the cells and tissues of the human body?
A) respiratory, cardiovascular, and urinary systems
B) nervous, lymphatic, and endocrine systems
C) endocrine, lymphatic and integumentary systems
D) reproductive, integumentary, and lymphatic systems
E) skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems
A) respiratory, cardiovascular, and urinary systems
97
What type of muscle cells are arranged in sheets or layers, with adjacent muscle cells electrically connected by gap junctions and mechanically connected by dense bodies?
A) visceral smooth muscles
B) cardiac muscles
C) multi-unit smooth muscles
D) skeletal muscles
A) visceral smooth muscles
98
Name the four layers of the digestive tract beginning from the lumen of the digestive tract.
A) muscular layer, serosa, submucosa, mucosa B) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscular layer C) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscular layer D) mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa E) serosa, muscular layer, submucosa, mucosa
D) mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa
99
The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A) antrum.
B) pylorus.
C) cardia.
D) body.
E) fundus.
D) body.
100
Essay: Name and briefly describe the important characteristic of each of the three phases of gastric secretion
The three phases of gastric secretion (named according to the location of the control center involved) are the cephalic
phase, which prepares the stomach to receive ingested materials; the gastric phase, which begins with the arrival of
food in the stomach; and the intestinal phase, which controls the rate of gastric emptying.
101
Name the major functions of the large intestine.
A) producing digestive enzymes, producing acidic chyme, digesting proteins, fats and
carbohydrates
B) reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces, absorbing vitamins, and storing fecal material
C) detoxifying alcohol and drugs, producing bile, storing bile
D) emulsifying lipids, synthesizing clotting factors, and absorbing and inactivating lipid-soluble drugs
E) producing buffers, absorbing vitamins, and storing bile
B) reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces, absorbing vitamins, and storing fecal material
102
Identify the four regions of the colon.
A) cecum, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus
B) cardia, pylorus, body, sigmoid colon
C) ileum, cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon
D) duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum
E) ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
E) ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
103
Which of the following descriptions is not related to cholecystokinin
A) causes the relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter
B) increases the sensation of hunger
C) accelerates the production and secretion of digestive enzymes
D) causes the gallbladder to contract and eject bile
E) secreted when chyme enters the duodenum
B) increases the sensation of hunger
104
Which of the following is true regarding the central and local mechanisms controlling gastric and intestinal activities?
A) The gastric phase only lasts for minutes.
B) The intestinal phase triggers mucus and bicarbonate to help protect the duodenum from arriving acid.
C) The cephalic phase includes the release of bile from the gallbladder.
D) The intestinal phase increases the stimulation of the stomach's stretch receptors.
E) The cephalic phase begins as food enters the stomach.
B) The intestinal phase triggers mucus and bicarbonate to help protect the duodenum from arriving acid.
105
Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds.
A) mucosa
B) submucosal plexus
C) submucosa
D) adventitia
E) muscularis mucosa
E) muscularis mucosa
106
The middle segment of the small intestine is the
A) ileum.
B) pylorus.
C) jejunum.
D) duodenum.
E) cecum.
C) jejunum.
107
Essay: Describe the two positive feedback loops involved in the defecation reflex
The two positive feedback loops in the defecation reflex are (1) the short intrinsic myenteric defecation reflex, whereby
stretch receptors in the rectal walls promote a series of peristaltic contractions in the sigmoid colon and rectum, moving feces toward the anus; and (2) the long parasympathetic defecation reflex, whereby parasympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord, also activated by stretch receptors, stimulate mass movements that push feces toward the rectum from the descending colon and sigmoid colon. Defecation occurs with the voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter.
108
The ________ is a double sheet of peritoneal membrane that suspends the visceral organs and carries nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
A) lamina propria
B) mesentery
C) serosa
D) fibrosa
E) adventitia
B) mesentery
109
Chief cells secrete
A) gastrin.
B) intrinsic factor.
C) mucus.
D) pepsinogen.
E) hydrochloric acid.
D) pepsinogen.
110
The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the
A) greater omentum.
B) ligamentum teres.
C) hepatic ligament.
D) lesser omentum.
E) falciform ligament.
E) falciform ligament.
111
During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying.
B) production of gastric juice slows down.
C) the vagus nerve innervates the stomach.
D) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells.
E) the stomach responds to distention.
C) the vagus nerve innervates the stomach
112
Pancreatic endocrine cells secrete all of the following except
A) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GH-IH).
B) pancreatic polypeptide.
C) insulin.
D) amylase.
E) glucagon.
D) amylase.
113
Explain the significance of the alkaline mucous layer lining the interior surface of the stomach.
A) The mucous layer keeps food from sticking to the walls of the stomach so it can enter the small intestine.
B) The mucous layer protects epithelial cells from the acid and enzymes in the gastric lumen.
C) The mucous layer protects against foreign pathogens in the gastric lumen.
D) The mucous layer modifies the pH of food for better digestion.
E) The mucous layer activates antibodies to kill microorganisms in the gastric lumen.
B) The mucous layer protects epithelial cells from the acid and enzymes in the gastric lumen.
114
Essay: Imagine eating a soda cracker, which is basically starch, fat, protein, and salt. How would each of these components be digested? Where within the digestive system would they be digested? Are any accessory organs involved?
Digestion begins in the oral cavity. Food triggers saliva from the parotids, rich in amylase, and from the
submandibulars, rich in mucus. The tongue and teeth cooperate to mix all together and form a bolus. Digestion of fats and starch begins due to lingual lipase and salivary amylase. Swallowing reflexes send it to the stomach. Acid and pepsin greet the bolus. Peptides form from the wheat proteins due to action of pepsin. It then travels into the small intestine, where pancreatic lipase and amylase complete fat and starch digestion. Pancreatic enzymes reduce peptides to amino acids. The salt in the cracker is absorbed, and fatty acids diffuse into the epithelial cells because of their lipid character. Fat goes to lacteals and sugars and proteins go to the capillaries.
115
The enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates is
A) lactase.
B) rennin.
C) carbonic anhydrase.
D) amylase.
E) lysozyme.
D) amylase.
116
The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.
A) stratified columnar
B) transitional
C) stratified squamous
D) simple squamous
E) pseudostratified
C) stratified squamous
117
Approximately ________ liters of fluid are secreted and reabsorbed into the peritoneal cavity each day.
a. 10
b. 2
c. 5
d. 7
e.1
d. 7
118
Describe the alkaline tide.
A) The alkaline tide is the release of hormones that influence digestion.
B) The alkaline tide is the active transport of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen.
C) The alkaline tide is the release of intrinsic factor.
D) The alkaline tide is the sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream.
E) The alkaline tide is the activation of carbonic acid inside parietal cells.
D) The alkaline tide is the sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream.
119
Which of the following statements about the tongue is false?
A) It secretes lingual lipase.
B) The dorsal surface is covered with papillae.
C) The uvula attaches to the base.
D) It is composed of skeletal muscle.
E) It is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII).
C) The uvula attaches to the base.
120
Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase?
A) sublingual
B) mandibular
C) submandibular
D) lingual
E) parotid
E) parotid
121
What is the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers?
A) parotid
B) sublingual
C) mandibular
D) submandibular
E) lingual
D) submandibular
122
The ________ is composed of smooth muscle fibers and is not under voluntary control.
A) anal canal
B) rectum
C) sigmoid flexure
D) external anal sphincter
E) internal anal sphincter
E) internal anal sphincter
123
Lacteals
A) produce milk.
B) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
C) carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.
D) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
E) secrete digestive enzymes.
C) carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.
124
Figure 22-2: Which of the following is not found in layer "3"?
A) lymphatic vessels
B) arteries
C) veins
D) nerves
E) lacteals
E) lacteals
125
Which of the following statements is false?
A) Secretin and CCK are produced by the stomach and are important hormones in regulating digestion.
B) Teniae coli of the large intestine correspond to the muscularis mucosa of the small intestine.
C) The gastroileal and gastroenteric reflexes accelerate movement of materials throughout the small intestine.
D) The external anal sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle.
E) Parietal cells are activated during the cephalic phase.
A) Secretin and CCK are produced by the stomach and are important hormones in regulating digestion.
126
Describe mass movements.
A) movements of chyme out of the small intestine into the colon
B) powerful peristaltic contractions that occur in response to the amount of blood flow to the digestive organs
C) powerful peristaltic contractions that occur in response to distension of the stomach and duodenum
D) movements of chyme out of the esophagus into the stomach
E) movements of chyme out of the stomach into the small intestine
C) powerful peristaltic contractions that occur in response to distension of the stomach and duodenum
127
Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?
A) mesentery proper
B) greater omentum
C) diaphragm
D) falciform ligament
E) lesser omentum
B) greater omentum
128
A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the 129) A) appendix.
B) ileum.
C) pancreas.
D) haustra.
E) gallbladder.
A) appendix.
129
A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in
A) increased protein digestion in the stomach.
B) a lower pH in the stomach during gastric digestion.
C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.
D) a higher pH in the stomach during gastric digestion.
E) decreased gastrin production.
D) a higher pH in the stomach during gastric digestion.
130
The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the 131)
A) sight, thought, or smell of food.
B) entry of chyme into the small intestine.
C) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.
D) entry of chyme into the large intestine.
E) entry of food into the stomach.
E) entry of food into the stomach.
131
Describe two central reflexes triggered by stimulation of the stretch receptors in the stomach wall.
A) The cephalic reflex opens the esophagus during swallowing and the gastric reflex opens the cardiac sphincter.
B) The gastroileal reflex opens the ileocecal valve and the colonic reflex closes the ileocecal valve.
C) The gastric reflex opens the cardiac sphincter and the enteric reflex opens the pyloric sphincter.
D) The enterogastric reflex closes the pyloric sphincter and the gastroenteric reflex stimulates motility and secretion in the small intestine.
E) The gastroenteric reflex stimulates motility and secretion in the small intestine and the gastroileal reflex opens the ileocecal valve.
E) The gastroenteric reflex stimulates motility and secretion in the small intestine and the gastroileal reflex opens the ileocecal valve.
132
Figure 22-2: Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to
A) shorten.
B) dilate.
C) secrete enzymes.
D) fold for increased surface area.
E) constrict.
E) constrict.
133
Which accessory organ of the digestive system is responsible for almost 200 known functions?
A) gallbladder
B) salivary glands
C) pancreas
D) appendix
E) liver
E) liver
134
Why might severing the branches of the vagus nerves that supply the stomach provide relief for a person who suffers from chronic gastric ulcers (sores on the stomach lining)?
A) it would block the flow of hydrogen ions down the vagus nerve
B) it would block parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions
C) it would block somatic nerve activity to the myenteric plexus
D) it would block stomach stretch sensory neurons from being activated
E) it would block sympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions
B) it would block parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions
135
The roof of the oral cavity is formed by
A) the hard palate.
B) the uvula.
C) the frenulum.
D) both the hard palate and the soft palate.
E) the soft palate.
D) both the hard palate and the soft palate.
136
The ________ mechanically digests ingested food.
A) esophagus
B) large intestine
C) anus
D) stomach
E) small intestine
D) stomach
137
Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) mechanical processing
B) filtration
C) compaction
D) absorption
E) ingestion
B) filtration
138
The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D)
E) two large and four small
D fours???
139
The villi are most developed in the
A) colon.
B) esophagus.
C) jejunum.
D) duodenum.
E) stomach.
C) jejunum.
140
Describe enteroendocrine cells.
A) endocrine cells in the epithelium of the digestive tract
B) endocrine cells in the submucosal layer of the digestive tract
C) endocrine cells in the accessory organs that deliver hormones to the digestive tract
D) endocrine cells in the serosa layer of the digestive tract
E) endocrine cells in between the layers of the muscular layer of the digestive tract
A) endocrine cells in the epithelium of the digestive tract
141
An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is
A) enteropeptidase.
B) gastrin.
C) secretin.
D) cholecystokinin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
D) cholecystokinin.
142
The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the
A) common bile duct.
B) hepatic portal vein.
C) bile canaliculus.
D) common pancreatic duct.
E) porta hepatis.
A) common bile duct.
143
What is the function of parietal cells?
A) secrete a variety of hormones
B) secrete mucous
C) secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid D) absorb nutrients
E) secrete pepsinogen
C) secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid
144
What bacterium is responsible for most peptic ulcers?
A) Helicobactor pylori
B) Salmonella
C) Candida albicans
D) Escherichia coli
E) Staphylococcus aureus
A) Helicobactor pylori
145
What anatomical feature of the stomach allows the organ to form chyme?
A) the wide body gives ample space
B) the muscular pyloric sphincter contracts
C) the rugae allows the lumen to expand
D) the long greater curvature produces an angle creating a pouch
E) the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning
E) the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning
146
Name the regions and functions of the pharynx.
A) buccal pharynx, labial pharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus
B) buccal pharynx, lingual pharynx, and oral pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland
secretions
C) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus
D) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus
E) labial pharynx, palatopharynx, and lingual pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland
secretions
C) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus
147
Pancreatic exocrine cells secrete all of the following except
A) bicarbonate.
B) insulin.
C) lipases and amylase.
D) nucleases.
E) peptidases and proteinases.
B) insulin.
148
The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called
A) rugae.
B) plicae.
C) villi.
D) papillae.
E) cardia.
A) rugae.
149
The order of the small intestine segments, from proximal to distal, is
A) jejunum, duodenum, ileum.
B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum.
C) ileum, jejunum, duodenum.
B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum.
