Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Advanced Patho > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

(88 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhea attributed to?

A

Excessive endometrial prostaglandin production

Primary dysmenorrhea causes painful periods and is linked to increased prostaglandin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common causes of secondary dysmenorrhea?

A
  • Endometriosis
  • Endometritis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Polyps
  • Tumors
  • Ovarian cysts
  • Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

Secondary dysmenorrhea results from pelvic pathologic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

The presence of functioning endometrial tissue or implants outside the uterus

Common sites include pelvic peritoneum, ovaries, and uterosacral ligaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common symptoms of endometriosis?

A
  • Pain
  • Infertility
  • Dysmenorrhea
  • Dysuria
  • Dyspareunia
  • Constipation
  • Abnormal vaginal bleeding

Symptoms vary in frequency and severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What defines Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

A

At least two of the following three features: * Irregular ovulation * Elevated levels of androgens * Appearance of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

PCOS is a leading cause of infertility in the United States.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a major risk factor for infertility associated with PCOS?

A

Glucose intolerance/insulin resistance

Insulin resistance can worsen hyperandrogenic states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

An acute inflammatory process caused by infection

PID can lead to scarring, adhesions, and obstruction of fallopian tubes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are two sexually transmitted infectious causes of PID?

A
  • Gonorrhea
  • Chlamydia

These infections can lead to significant reproductive health issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

Present in what percentage of PID cases?

A

A noninflammatory condition resulting from an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria

BV can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and is present in up to 66% of PID cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Pelvic Organ Prolapse (POP)?

This affects what percentage of women on examination?

A

The descent of one or more pelvic structures: the vaginal wall, uterus, or apex of the vagina

More than 50% of women have some version of POP on examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a cystocele?

Symptoms?

A

Descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone into the vaginal canal

Symptoms include urinary issues and pelvic discomfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a rectocele?

What causes exacerbation?

A

The bulging of the rectum and posterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal

Childbirth may increase damage associated with rectocele.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a spermatocele?

A

Benign cystic collections of fluid in the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis

Spermatoceles are filled with milky fluid that contains sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ovarian cancer often referred to as?

A

The ‘silent killer’

Ovarian cancer is commonly asymptomatic until large tumors are present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What genetic predispositions are associated with ovarian cancer?

A
  • BRCA1
  • BRCA2

Genetic factors contribute to the risk of developing ovarian cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Family history
  • Genetic factors (BRCA1 and BRCA2)
  • Environmental factors (smoking, alcohol, obesity)

Environmental and lifestyle factors can increase breast cancer risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A

Enlargement of the prostate due to nodular hyperplasia and glandular cell enlargement

BPH can lead to bladder outflow obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common type of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Prostate cancer is usually androgen-dependent and develops in the peripheral prostate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the first manifestations of prostate cancer?

A
  • Slow urinary stream
  • Hesitancy
  • Incomplete emptying
  • Frequency
  • Nocturia
  • Dysuria

Symptoms progress and do not remit unlike BPH-related symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does erectile dysfunction (ED) often indicate?

A

Endothelial damage

ED might be the first symptom of underlying vascular issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is infertility defined as?

It affects what percentage of couples?

A

The inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse

Infertility affects approximately 15% of all couples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is gonorrhea caused by?

What type of bacteria presentation?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Gonorrhea is a gram-negative diplococcus that can be asymptomatic in many cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is chlamydia caused by?

A

C. trachomatis

Chlamydia is responsible for several syndromes, including nongonococcal urethritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis caused by gonorrhea?

A

Systemic treatment is indicated for all newborns with known exposure - erythromycin eye drops (?)

Topical antibiotics may not be effective in eliminating neonatal infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are some syndromes caused by C. trachomatis?
* Acute urethral syndrome * Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) * Mucopurulent cervicitis * Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) ## Footnote Chlamydia is a leading cause of preventable infertility and ectopic pregnancy.
26
What is the most common sexually transmitted virus in the United States?
Human papillomavirus (HPV) ## Footnote HPV infection is the most common symptomatic viral STI in teens and young adults.
27
What percentage of healthy individuals will spontaneously eliminate HPV?
70% ## Footnote Most cases of HPV are transient.
28
What characterizes obstructive pulmonary diseases?
Airway obstruction is worse with expiration ## Footnote Infiltration of the lung by inflammatory cells and cytokine release are involved.
29
What is the most common type of asthma?
Allergic asthma ## Footnote Early asthmatic response involves antigen exposure to bronchial mucosa.
30
What is Status Asthmaticus?
Severe bronchospasms leading to respiratory failure ## Footnote It results in increased CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis.
31
What defines chronic bronchitis?
Hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough for at least 3 months for 2 consecutive years ## Footnote Continual bronchial inflammation causes bronchial edema.
32
What is emphysema characterized by?
Destruction of alveoli walls through breakdown of elastin ## Footnote This leads to air trapping and hyperexpansion of the chest.
33
What causes cor pulmonale?
Hypoxemia and hypercapnia leading to pulmonary vasoconstriction ## Footnote It results in hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricle.
34
What are common examples of restrictive lung diseases?
* Aspiration * Pulmonary edema * Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) * Pneumoconiosis ## Footnote These diseases are characterized by decreased compliance of the lungs.
35
What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) ## Footnote The first symptom in 25% of people with PE is death.
36
What are the two main categories of lung cancer?
* Non–Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) * Small Cell Lung Carcinomas (SCLCs) ## Footnote NSCLC includes squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and large cell carcinoma.
37
What is the characteristic growth pattern of small cell lung carcinomas?
Rapid growth and early metastasis ## Footnote This type has the worst prognosis of all lung cancers.
38
What are common risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
* Low-birth weight * Large family size * Lower socioeconomic status * Sleeping on soft bedding * Parental smoking ## Footnote Education is key to prevention.
39
What causes gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
Reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus ## Footnote Abnormalities in lower esophageal sphincter function and esophageal motility can contribute.
40
What is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection ## Footnote NSAID use can also contribute to duodenal ulcers.
41
What distinguishes gastric ulcers from duodenal ulcers?
Gastric ulcers occur due to increased permeability to hydrogen ions ## Footnote Duodenal ulcers are more common and usually occur in younger individuals.
42
What characterizes ulcerative colitis?
Begins in the rectum and may extend proximally to the entire colon ## Footnote Lesions are limited to the mucosal epithelium.
43
What is the typical age range for the onset of ulcerative colitis?
10-40 years
44
What is the typical age range for the onset of Crohn's disease?
10-30 years
45
True or False: Family history is more common in Crohn's disease than in ulcerative colitis.
True
46
In ulcerative colitis, the lesions are limited to which layer?
Mucosal layer
47
In Crohn's disease, what type of lesions are commonly found?
Skip lesions
48
What are the common clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis?
* Abdominal pain * Diarrhea * Bloody stools
49
True or False: Small intestinal malabsorption is common in ulcerative colitis.
False
50
What complication can occur due to diverticular disease?
* Abscess * Fistula * Obstruction * Bleeding * Perforation
51
What is cirrhosis?
An irreversible inflammatory, fibrotic liver disease
52
What is the primary cause of alcoholic cirrhosis?
Toxic effects of alcohol metabolism
53
What is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) associated with?
* Obesity * Insulin resistance * High cholesterol * Metabolic syndrome * Type 2 diabetes mellitus
54
What is portal hypertension?
Increased pressure in the portal venous system
55
What is a common complication of portal hypertension?
* Esophageal varices * Ascites * Hepatic encephalopathy
56
What causes cholelithiasis?
Impaired metabolism of cholesterol, bilirubin, and bile acid
57
What is acute pancreatitis often caused by?
Reflux of bile acid into the pancreatic duct
58
What is the most common craniofacial malformation in newborns?
Cleft lip and cleft palate
59
What is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS)?
Acquired narrowing and distal obstruction of the pylorus
60
What is Hirschsprung disease?
Congenital absence of parasympathetic plexuses in the colon
61
What is intussusception?
Telescoping of a portion of the intestine into another
62
Common clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults include?
* Confusion * Poorly localized abdominal discomfort
63
What is painful bladder syndrome (PBS) also known as?
Interstitial cystitis (IC)
64
What is the most common type of kidney stone?
Calcium oxalate
65
Acute glomerulonephritis (AG) is commonly caused by which factors?
* Infection * Ischemia * Free radicals * Drugs * Toxins * Vascular disorders
66
What do microorganisms split urea into, and what effect does this have on urine?
Ammonia, making alkaline urine that increases the risk of stone formation
67
What are common causes of Acute Glomerulonephritis (AG)?
* Infection * Ischemia * Free radicals * Drugs * Toxins * Vascular disorders
68
What is the most common type of immune injury in AG?
Related to antigen-antibody complexes in the glomerulus
69
What are severe symptoms of Acute Glomerulonephritis?
* Sudden onset of hematuria * Red blood cell casts * Proteinuria * Edema * Hypertension * Impaired renal function
70
What is Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?
A rapid and potentially reversible decline in renal function
71
What eGFR level indicates renal insufficiency?
25 to 30 ml/minute
72
What is the most common reason for prerenal AKI?
Inadequate kidney perfusion
73
List some causes of prerenal AKI.
* Hypovolemia * Reduced cardiac output * Systemic hypotension * Acute myocardial infarction
74
What are some causes of intrarenal AKI?
* Renal vein thrombosis * Renal artery stenosis * Acute tubular necrosis * Immune-complex diseases
75
What characterizes postrenal AKI?
Disorders associated with urinary tract obstruction
76
What systemic diseases are associated with Chronic Kidney Failure (CKD)?
* Diabetes mellitus * Hypertension * Systemic lupus erythematosus
77
What are two factors that advance renal disease in CKD?
* Proteinuria * Angiotensin II activity
78
What is the role of erythropoietin (EPO) in the kidneys?
Stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells
79
What accelerates hypocalcemia in CKD?
Impaired renal synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D
80
What triggers secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?
Decreased calcium levels
81
What develops when GFR decreases to less than 20-25% of normal in ESRF?
Metabolic acidosis
82
What is hypospadias?
Condition when the urethral meatus is located on the ventral portion of the penis
83
What is vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?
Urine sweeps up into the ureter and flows back into the bladder
84
What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome?
* Membranous glomerulonephritis * Minimal change disease
85
What is the characteristic protein excretion level in nephrotic syndrome?
3.0 g or more of protein in the urine per day
86
What are the consequences of hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome?
* Decreased serum protein * Edema
87
What causes hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome?
Decreased catabolism of lipids due to reduced concentration of lipoprotein lipase
88
Fill in the blank: The basement membrane in the kidney's glomerulus becomes abnormally ______ in nephrotic syndrome.
permeable

Advanced Patho (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions