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Astronomy 10 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the main components of a spiral galaxy?

A

The main components of a spiral galaxy are the central bulge, the disk, and the halo.

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2
Q

True or False: The central bulge of a spiral galaxy primarily consists of young stars.

A

False: The central bulge primarily consists of older stars.

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3
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is the region of a spiral galaxy where most of the stars, gas, and dust are located.

A

disk

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4
Q

Which part of a spiral galaxy contains globular clusters and dark matter?

A

The halo contains globular clusters and dark matter.

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5
Q

What is the role of spiral arms in a spiral galaxy?

A

Spiral arms are regions of higher density that promote star formation and contain young stars.

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6
Q

What type of stars are Population 1 stars?

A

Population 1 stars are younger, metal-rich stars found in the disk of the galaxy.

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7
Q

True or False: Population 2 stars are typically found in the galactic halo and are older and metal-poor.

A

True

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Population 1 stars primarily reside in the ______ of the galaxy.

A

disk

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9
Q

Which type of stars, Population 1 or Population 2, are associated with open star clusters?

A

Population 1 stars

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10
Q

What is a key characteristic that differentiates Population 2 stars from Population 1 stars?

A

Population 2 stars have a lower metallicity compared to Population 1 stars.

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11
Q

What is the main difference between open clusters and globular clusters?

A

Open clusters are loosely bound groups of stars, while globular clusters are tightly bound groups of stars.

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12
Q

True or False: Open clusters are typically found in the halo of a galaxy.

A

False

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: Globular clusters are generally found in the _____ of a galaxy.

A

halo

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14
Q

Which type of star cluster is older, open clusters or globular clusters?

A

Globular clusters are older.

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15
Q

Multiple Choice: Where are open clusters primarily located within a galaxy? A) Halo B) Disk C) Bulge

A

B) Disk

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16
Q

What are Cepheid variables?

A

Cepheid variables are a type of pulsating star that vary in brightness over a regular period due to changes in their size and temperature.

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17
Q

True or False: Hubble used Cepheid variables to measure distances to galaxies.

A

True

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: The relationship between the period of a Cepheid variable and its __________ allows astronomers to determine its intrinsic brightness.

A

luminosity

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19
Q

How did Hubble prove the existence of other galaxies?

A

Hubble used the observed brightness of Cepheid variables in the Andromeda Galaxy to calculate its distance, demonstrating that it was outside the Milky Way.

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20
Q

Multiple Choice: What was the significance of Hubble’s findings about Cepheid variables? A) They confirmed the existence of black holes B) They proved that the universe is static C) They provided evidence of other galaxies D) They disproved the Big Bang theory

A

C) They provided evidence of other galaxies

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21
Q

What is Hubble’s law?

A

Hubble’s law states that the recessional velocity of a galaxy is directly proportional to its distance from Earth.

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22
Q

True or False: Hubble’s law implies that the universe is expanding.

A

True

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23
Q

Fill in the blank: Hubble’s law can be expressed with the equation v = H0 × d, where ‘v’ is the _____ and ‘d’ is the distance.

A

velocity

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24
Q

What does Hubble’s constant (H0) represent in Hubble’s law?

A

Hubble’s constant represents the rate of expansion of the universe.

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25
Choose the correct answer: According to Hubble's law, if a galaxy is twice as far away, it will recede at a speed that is: a) half as fast, b) the same speed, c) twice as fast.
c) twice as fast
26
What is cosmological redshift?
Cosmological redshift is the phenomenon where light from distant galaxies is shifted towards longer wavelengths due to the expansion of the universe.
27
True or False: Cosmological redshift is caused by the relative motion of galaxies moving away from each other.
True
28
Fill in the blank: As the universe expands, the wavelengths of light from distant objects _____ as they travel through space.
stretch
29
Which law describes the relationship between redshift and distance in an expanding universe?
Hubble's Law
30
What is the significance of cosmological redshift in understanding the universe?
It provides evidence for the expansion of the universe and helps estimate the distance and velocity of faraway galaxies.
31
What is a starburst galaxy?
A starburst galaxy is a type of galaxy that is experiencing an exceptionally high rate of star formation.
32
True or False: Starburst galaxies typically have a lower rate of star formation compared to normal galaxies.
False
33
Fill in the blank: Starburst galaxies may originate from _____ interactions or mergers between galaxies.
gravitational
34
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of starburst galaxies? (a) Low luminosity (b) High luminosity (c) No star formation
b) High luminosity
35
What is one potential outcome of the intense star formation in starburst galaxies?
The potential outcome is the formation of supernovae and the eventual creation of new stellar populations.
36
What are radio galaxies primarily characterized by?
They are characterized by the presence of strong radio emissions, often from jets of charged particles.
37
True or False: Seyfert galaxies are a type of active galactic nucleus with high luminosity and broad emission lines.
True
38
Fill in the blank: Quasars are often considered to be the most __________ objects in the universe.
luminous
39
Which type of galaxy typically has a significant amount of star formation occurring?
Seyfert galaxies
40
Compare the distance from Earth: Quasars are generally found at much greater distances than __________ and __________.
radio galaxies; Seyfert galaxies
41
What are quasars?
Quasars are extremely bright and distant objects powered by supermassive black holes at the center of galaxies.
42
True or False: Quasars are the most energetic objects in the universe.
True
43
Fill in the blank: Quasars emit energy equivalent to _______ galaxies combined.
thousands of
44
What is the primary source of energy for quasars?
The gravitational energy released as matter falls into supermassive black holes.
45
Which type of radiation do quasars primarily emit?
Quasars primarily emit electromagnetic radiation, including radio waves, visible light, and X-rays.
46
What does redshift in quasars indicate about their movement?
Redshift indicates that quasars are moving away from Earth.
47
True or False: A higher redshift value of a quasar suggests it is closer to Earth.
False
48
Fill in the blank: The redshift of a quasar is primarily caused by the __________ of the universe.
expansion
49
How does the redshift of a quasar relate to its distance from Earth?
A greater redshift corresponds to a greater distance from Earth.
50
What is the significance of redshift in understanding the formation of quasars?
Redshift helps astronomers determine the age and development of quasars in the early universe.
51
What are proteins primarily made of?
Proteins are primarily made of amino acids.
52
True or False: RNA is responsible for storing genetic information.
False: DNA is responsible for storing genetic information; RNA plays a role in protein synthesis.
53
Fill in the blank: DNA stands for __________.
Deoxyribonucleic acid.
54
Which molecule serves as a template for protein synthesis?
Messenger RNA (mRNA) serves as a template for protein synthesis.
55
What is the relationship between DNA, RNA, and proteins in the process of gene expression?
DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into proteins.
56
What is a nucleobase?
A nucleobase is one of the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA, which include adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.
57
True or False: Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA.
True
58
Fill in the blank: A nucleotide consists of a nucleobase, a phosphate group, and a ________ sugar.
pentose
59
Which of the following is NOT a nucleobase: adenine, uracil, ribose?
ribose
60
Short answer: How do nucleobases pair in DNA?
Adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine pairs with guanine.
61
What was the primary aim of the Miller-Urey experiment?
To simulate the conditions of early Earth and test the hypothesis of abiogenesis.
62
True or False: The Miller-Urey experiment produced amino acids from inorganic compounds.
True
63
Fill in the blank: The experiment used a mixture of ______, methane, ammonia, and hydrogen to simulate early Earth's atmosphere.
water vapor
64
Which method was used to provide energy in the Miller-Urey experiment?
Electric sparks to simulate lightning.
65
What significant conclusion can be drawn from the results of the Miller-Urey experiment?
Organic compounds necessary for life can be formed from inorganic precursors under specific conditions.
66
What is a gene?
A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for building proteins, which determine traits.
67
True or False: A trait is a characteristic that is determined by genes.
True
68
Fill in the blank: Genes are located on __________.
chromosomes
69
What is the relationship between DNA, genes, and traits?
DNA is the molecule that contains genes, which in turn determine the traits of an organism.
70
Multiple Choice: Which of the following best defines a trait? A) A type of DNA B) A characteristic of an organism C) A sequence of nucleotides D) A type of gene
B) A characteristic of an organism
71
What is the definition of evolutionary mutation?
A change in the DNA sequence of an organism's genome that can lead to new traits.
72
True or False: Genetic drift has a more significant impact in large populations than in small populations.
False
73
Fill in the blank: Natural selection is the process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to ______ more offspring.
produce
74
Which of the following is a mechanism of evolution? (A) Mutation (B) Migration (C) Genetic Drift (D) All of the above
D) All of the above
75
Short Answer: How does migration affect genetic variation in a population?
Migration introduces new alleles into a population, increasing genetic variation.
76
What is the habitable zone?
The habitable zone is the region around a star where conditions might be right to support life, specifically where liquid water could exist on a planet's surface.
77
True or False: The habitable zone is the same for all stars.
False: The habitable zone varies depending on the size and temperature of the star.
78
Fill in the blank: The presence of an atmosphere can extend the ________ of a planet by trapping heat through the greenhouse effect.
habitable zone
79
Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect in Earth's atmosphere?
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
80
What role does atmospheric pressure play in determining a planet's position in the habitable zone?
Atmospheric pressure affects the boiling point of water; higher pressure can allow water to remain liquid at higher temperatures, potentially expanding the habitable zone.
81
Drake’s equation
Nc= Nx Np x fh x fl x fi x fc
82
What are the five basic features exhibited by all life?
Organic molecules, metabolism, reproduction, mutation, sensitivity.
83
Where in the galaxy is the solar system found?
About 2/3 of the way out.

Astronomy 10 (2 decks)

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