Flashcards in Exam 4 Deck (90)
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1
Triacylglycerols are stored in _______ cells in animals
Adipose
2
The hormones _________ stimulate lipolysis when energy reserves are low.
Epinephrine and Glucagon
3
The brain uses __________ instead of glucose for its source of ATP production during long-term fasting
Ketone bodies
4
In diabetes, untreated chronic ketone body production will ______ blood pH levels.
Lower
5
Beta oxidation of odd-numbered fatty acids produces acetyl CoA and ______
Propionyl CoA
6
Fatty acids synthesis primarily takes place in the _______
cytoplasm
7
________ is the product of the committed step in fatty acid synthesis
Malonyl CoA
8
Citrate serves as signal for a high-energy state as it stimulates _______
Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
9
Double bonds are introduced into fatty acids in the ________ compartment of the cell
Endoplasmic Reticulum
10
Glycerol released during lipolysis is absorbed by the liver for use in:
Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis
11
Fats stored in adipose tissue is used by the liver and other tissues for:
Making ketone bodies and conversion of acetyl CoA for the CAC
12
Fatty acids are linked to glycerol with:
Ester linkages
13
Complete oxidation of palmitate yields _____ molecules of ATP
106
14
Enzymes that digest the triacylglycerols into free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol are called:
Lipases
15
Acetyl CoA carboxylase is globally regulated by:
Phosphorylation and desphosphorylation
16
Intermediates from which pathways are utilized for fatty acid synthesis
-Glycolysis
-CAC
-PPP
17
Activation of acetyl CoA results in the production of
Malonyl CoA
18
Which of the following is essential fatty acid?
Linoleate
19
The carrier of an acyl chain through the synthetic protein complex is
ACP
20
Excess NH4+ is converted into urea by the_____
urea cycle
21
The hydrolysis of arginine by arginase produces ornithine and ______
Urea
22
The urea cycle id linked to gluconeogenesis via formation of _____, a precursor of glucose synthesis
Furmate
23
Succinyl CoA is a point of entry into the citric acid cycle of _______
Nonpolar Amino Acids
24
_________ transfer amino groups from an amino acid to alpha-ketogluatarate
Aminotransferases
25
An amino acid that serves as a nitrogen source in the synthesis of amino acids from alpha-ketoacids is ______
glutamate
26
The process of converting N2 to NH3 is called_____
Nitrogen Fixation
27
The final product pathway, which inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes its production typically, takes place at the ________ step.
Committed
28
Glutamine synthetase is an example of _______ inhibition
Cumulative Feedback
29
______ is a versatile nitrogen donor in the synthesis of a wide range of compounds
Glutamine
30
In the Urea cycle, the second nitrogen of urea enters the cycle in the form of which metabolite?
Aspartate
31
The urea cycle is
a way to remove excess NH4+
32
Which amino acids can be directly deaminated to produce NH4+
Serine and Threonine
33
In the urea cycle, free NH4+ is coupled with carboxyphosphate to form
Carbonic acid
34
Ketogenic amino acids are degraded to which metabolites?
Acetyl CoA and Acetoacetyl CoA
35
Organisms capable of carrying out reduction of atomspheric nitrogen include
Some bacteria
36
The carbon skeletons for amino acids are intermediates found in
Glycolysis, CAC, and PPP
37
Amino acids synthesized by humans are
nonessential amino acids
38
Transaminases use what as a coenzyme
Pyridoxine
39
3-Phosphoglycerate is the precursor for
Serine, Glycine, Cysteine
40
In bacteria, the _________ sequence is a purine rich region that is approximately 10 base pairs upstreams of the start site and directs the protein synthesis machinery to the start site
Shine-Dalgarno
41
________ si the initial amino acid in a bacterial protein
fMet
42
_______ include IF1, IF2, and IF3 in prokaryotes and are required for the invitation of protein synthesis
Initiation factors
43
G or translocase use the energy of _____ hydrolysis to move the mRNA by one codon in protein synthesis
GTP
44
In the ribosome, A stands for _______ and P stands for_______
Aminoacyl and Peptidyl
45
Proteins are synthesized from the ________ direction
amino-carboxyl
46
Sixty percent of human genes are regulated by____
mirco RNA
47
Eukaryotic mRNA is
circular
48
Chloramphenicol acts by:
inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity on the 50S ribosome
49
Peptide bond formation is
Exergonic and catalyzed by 23S RNA
50
What is the direction of translation of mRNA
5'-3'
51
Signals that define the beginning and end of protein synthesis are contained in:
mRNA
52
What factors are necessary for the correct placement of mRNA ash initiating tRNA on the ribosome?
IF1, IF2, IF3
53
Eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation differs primarily in which step?
initiation
54
What is the order of tRNA binding sites on the 70S ribosome with respect to the 5'-3' direction of the mRNA
EPA
55
Elongation factor G is also called what?
translocase
56
A group of genes under the control of a single promoter
Operon
57
________ is a required cofactor for RNA polymerase
Covalent Cation
58
DNA sequences that direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site are called________
Promoters
59
Expression of B-galactosidase requires the induction of an operon by removal of a______
repressor
60
Promoter sites in E.Coli are located _____ and ______ nucleotides upstream of the start site
-10 and -35
61
The first step of transcription in eukaryotes depends on the ______ subunit of RNA polymerase
Sigma
62
Cis-acting elements that have no promoter activity but can stimulate the effectiveness of promoters are called _______
enhancers
63
The enzyme that removes the acetyl group for a lysine of a histone is called_______
histone deacetylase
64
In eukaryotes, transcription is initiated by the binding of a transcription factor to the _____ box, which is located -24 and -32 upstream of the initiation site
TATA
65
The nuclear membrane is important in gene expression because it separates the processes of ______ from that of ______
Transcription and Translation
66
In prokaryotes function of RNA Polymerase are
-Searching for promoter sites
-unwinding short stretches of DNA
-detecting termination signals
67
The pribnow box is:
the site where promoters bind
68
The protein that binds DNA sequences and helps RNA polymerase initiate transcription is
sigma
69
In transcription, the 3' hydroxyl group
attacks the alpha-phosphoryl group on an incoming nucleotide
70
In E.coli what proteins are synthesized when B-galactosidase is synthesized?
-sigma 70 of RNA Polymerase
-RNA helicase
-Fibonuclease
-galactoside permease
71
In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II
-is sensitive to alpha-amanitin
-catalyzes mRNA synthesis
72
In eukaryotes enhancer sites are often located
at a distance from the transcription start site
73
Differential gene expression is caused by
control of transcription
74
Cis-acting elements
are DNA sequences the regulate expression
75
Noncoding regions of RNA are called
intron RNA
76
RNA polymerase I is responsible for the transcription of
18S rRNA and 28S rRNA
77
What modifications are made to eukaryotic tRNA transcripts
-Modification of base and ribose moieties
-An intron removed by endonuclease
-Cleavage of the 5' leader by RNase P
-The nucleotides CCA are added
78
The 5'cap of mRNA
-contains GTP in a 5'-5' linkage
-protects mRNA
79
The polypyrimidine tract
-is found at the 5' end of a junction
-is found at the 3' end of an intron
-contains a stretch of 10 pyrimidines
80
A spliceosome is made of
snRNP and snRNA
81
Thallasemia can occur when there are mutation in pre-RNA or splicing factors of:
hemoglobin beta
82
Ribozymes are
RNA
83
The carboy-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II
Binds factors need for pre-mRNA capping, splicing, and polyadenylation
84
A mutation in an enzyme that catalyzes a transesterification reaction would inhibit
mRNA splicing
85
Nearly all mRNA precursors in higher eukaryotes are modified by
Splicing
86
_________ catalyzes the synthesis of precursors for tRNA
RNA polymerase III
87
Recognition of the 5' splicing site by ____ is the first step in splicing
U1
88
Self-splicing by RNA requires a ______ cofactor
guanosine
89
The immediate product go RNA polymerase II is referred to as _____
pre-RNA
90
