EXAM 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major nervous systems?

A

The Central Nervous System and The Peripheral Nervous System.

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2
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System has two further divided systems, what are they and what do they do?

A

The autonomic system and the somatic system. They work together to control cognition, mobility, and sensory perception.

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3
Q

What is the CNS composed of and what does each composition do?

A

Brain:which directs the regulation and function of the nervous system and other body systems. Spinal Cord: which initiates reflex activity and transmits impulses to and from the brain.

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4
Q

What does the posterior and anterior part of the spinal nerves do?

A

Posterior: carries sensory information (sensory perception) to the cord.
Anterior: transmits motor impulses (mobility) to the muscles of the body.

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5
Q

The ANS is divided in to what two other categories?

A

Sympathetic (fight or flight) and Parasympathetic (rest and digest)

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6
Q

What are the key parts o a NEURO assessment?

A
Appearance 
Speech
Affect 
Motor function
Medical History
ADL performance
Family Medial History
Patients Memory (especially recent memory)
Mental Status (orientation)
Establish baseline
Compare left and right sides, and upper and lower extremities.
LOC
Cranial nerves
PERRLA
Glasgow Coma Scale
The Cardinal Fields of Gaze
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7
Q

What does a decrease in mental status of an older adult often mean? What are important assessments to make?

A

An infectious process. ( Most commonly a UTI)
Also can mean hyper or hypoglycemia and hypoxia.
Spo2/ FSBS/ Asses for s/sx of infection I.E.: fever/ sputum production/ urine with sediment or odor/ red or draining wounds.

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8
Q

What is the Glasgow coma scale, what are the three assessment categories and what are the ranges of the scores?

A

used reliably to help describe the patient’s level of consciousness.
Eye opening, Motor response, and verbal response.
Score ranges from 3(coma) 15(best/normal).

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9
Q

What is the 1st category of GCS?

A
Eye opening: 
Spontaneous 4
Sound 3
Pain 2
Never 1
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10
Q

2nd category of GCS?

A
Motor response:
Obeyed commands 6
Localized pain 5
Normal flextion (withdraw) 4
Abnormal flextion 3
Extension 2
None 1
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11
Q

3rd category of GCS

A
Verbal response:
Orientated 5
Confused conversation 4
Inappropriate words 3
Incomprehensible sounds 2
None 1
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12
Q

What are signs of altered cognition?

A

headache; restlessness, irritability, or unusual quietness; slurred speech; and a change in the level of orientation.

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13
Q

What is decerebrate and decorticate posturing?

A

Decerebrate: outward flextion (more severe)
Decorticate: inward

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14
Q

What is decerebrate or decorticate posturing and pinpoint or dilated nonreactive pupils a late sign of? And what is each associated with?

A
Neurologic deterioration 
Decerebrate is usually associated with
dysfunction in the brainstem area.
Decorticate is seen in the patient with
lesions that interrupt the corticospinal pathways.
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15
Q

What is one of the first priorities in head trauma or multiple injuries?

A

Rule out cervical spine fracture.

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16
Q

What are nervous system changes r/t aging?

A
Slower processing time.
Recent memory loss.
Decreased sensory perception of touch.
Chang in perception of pain.
Change in sleep patterns.
Altered balance and coordination. Increased risk for infection.
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17
Q

What are interventions for Slower

processing time and its rationale?

A
Provide sufficient time for the
affected older adult to respond to
questions and/or direction.
Allowing adequate time for processing
helps differentiate normal findings from
neurologic deterioration.
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18
Q

What are interventions for recent memory loss and its rationale?

A
Reinforce teaching by repetition,
using written teaching, and
employing memory aids like
electronic alarms or applications for
electronic devices that provide
recurrent alerts.
Greatest loss of brain weight is in the
white matter of the frontal lobe.
Intellect is not impaired, but the learning
process is slowed.
Repetition helps the patient learn new
information and recall it when needed.
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19
Q

What are nursing interventions for decreased sensory perception of touch and its rationale?

A
Remind the patient to look where
his or her feet are placed when
walking.
Instruct the patient to wear shoes
that provide good support when
walking.
If the patient is unable, change his
or her position frequently (every
hour) while he  or she is in the bed or chair.Decreased sensory perception may cause
the patient to fall.
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20
Q

What are nursing interventions for change in perception of pain and its rationale.

A

Ask the patient to describe the
nature and specific characteristics of pain Monitor additional assessment
variables to detect possible health
problems. Accurate and complete nursing
assessment ensures that the interventions
will be appropriate for the older adult.

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21
Q

What are nursing interventions for changes in sleep patterns and its rationale?

A

Ascertain sleep patterns and
preferences. Ask if sleep pattern
interferes with ADLs.
Adjust the patient’s daily schedule
to his or her sleep pattern and
preference as much as possible (e.g.,
evening versus morning bath). Older adults require as much as
younger adults. It is more common for
older adults to fall asleep early and arise early. Assess sleep habits.
Provide usual bedtime routines.
Decrease noise and light at night. Age-related changes include more time
in bed spent awake before falling asleep,
reduced sleep time, daytime napping,
and changes in circadian rhythm
leading to “early to bed and early to Rise.”

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22
Q

What are nursing interventions for altered balance and decreased coordination and its rationale?

A
Instruct the patient to move slowly
when changing positions.
If needed, advise the patient to hold
on to handrails when ambulating.
Assess the need for an ambulatory
aid, such as a cane. 
The patient may fall if moving too
quickly.
Assistive and adaptive aids provide
support and prevent falls.
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23
Q

What are nursing interventions for increased risk for infection and its rationale?

A
Monitor carefully for infection.
Older adults often have structural
deterioration of microglia, the cells
responsible for cell-mediated immune
response in the central nervous system
(CNS).
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24
Q

What does PERRLA mean? And what cranial nerve is this testing?

A
Pupils
Equal
Round
Reactive to 
Light
Accommodation 
Cranial nerve III Oculomotor (pupil constriction)
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25
Q

What is pronator drift?

A

If there is a cerebral or
brainstem reason for muscle weakness, the arm on the weak side will
start to fall, or “drift,” with the palm pronating (turning inward).

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26
Q

What is a Babinski’s sign? An what does a POSITIVE one mean and what could is be caused from?

A

a dorsiflexion of
the great toe and fanning of the other toes, is abnormal in anyone older
than 2 years and represents the presence of central nervous system
(CNS) disease. POSITIVE (abnormal) which is “up going” of the toes. It can mean drug and alcohol
intoxication, after a seizure, or in patients with multiple sclerosis or liver disease.

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27
Q

What can hyperactive reflexes mean?

A

Hyperactive reflexes indicate possible upper motor neuron disease,
tetanus, or hypocalcemia.

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28
Q

What can hypoactive reflexes mean?

A

Hypoactive reflexes may result from lower
motor neuron disease (damage to the spinal cord), disease of the
neuromuscular junction, muscle disease, or health problems such as
diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, or hypokalemia.

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29
Q

What does FAST stand for and what is it used fro?

A

Face (symmetrical/ smile/ stick out tong)
Arms (raise both equally)
Speech (slurred?/ can they make a sentence? Recognition and recall)
Time (window of time for intervention/ orientation x3)

Time is brain cells.

A tool used to recognize a stroke.

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30
Q

The three steps to stroke recognition?

A

Ask the person to smile or stick out their tong.
Ask the person to make a complete sentence.
Ask the person to raise both arms.

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31
Q

What are the components of the brain? What happens if there is damage or changes to these components?

A
Cerebral Spinal Fluid 10%
Intravascular Blood 12%
Brain Tissue 78%
Skull 
ICP
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32
Q

What factors can influence ICP?

What is normal ICP range?

A

 Arterial pressure
 Venous pressure
 Intraabdominal and intrathoracic pressure
 Posture
 Temperature
 Blood gases (CO2 levels)
• Cushing’s Triad increase pulse pressure (BP),decrease pulse, irregular respirations
10-15mm/Hg Elevated if greater than 20mm/Hg

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33
Q

What is normal Cerebral Perfusion pressure?

A

Normal is 60-100mm Hg.

Less than 55mm Hg is associated with ischemia death.

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34
Q

What factors can affect cerebral blood vessels?

A

Increase in CO2=vessel dilation=increased ICP.
Decrease in O2=edema=increased ICP
Hydrogen ion concentration= anaerobic metabolism: Acidosis= decrease in oxygen and Alkalosis= increased CO2

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35
Q

What can cause Increased Intracranial Pressuer?

A

LIFE THREATNING. Increase in any of the following: Brain tissue/Blood/CFS and increased cerebral edema(caused by hypoxia)

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36
Q

What is a migraine? What is used to describe it? What are the symptoms?

A

Migraine: A migraine headache is a common clinical syndrome characterized by
recurrent episodic attacks of head pain that serve no protective purpose.
Migraine headache pain is usually described as throbbing and unilateral.
Migraine can be accompanied by associated symptoms such as nausea or
sensitivity to light, sound, or head movement. At risk for Stroke and epilepsy. Most common in women.

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37
Q

What is a generalized seizure?

A

Generalized:may occur in adults and involve both cerebral hemispheres. The tonic-clonic seizure lasting 2 to 5 minutes
begins with a tonic phase that causes stiffening or rigidity of the muscles,
particularly of the arms and legs.

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38
Q

What are the risks for seizures?

A
metabolic disorders
Acute alcohol withdraw
Electrolyte imbalance
Heart disease
High fever
Stroke
Substance abuse
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39
Q

What are precautions with seizures?

A
Oxygen
Suction equipment
Airway
IV access
Side rails up and padded.
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40
Q

What is the management of an acute seizure?

A

 Medication depends on type of seizure
 Medication for tonic-clonic seizure activity
may include:
 Lorazepam (Ativan)
 Diazepam (Valium)
 Diastat
 IV phenytoin (Dilantin) or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

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41
Q

What is a status epilepticus and what is the treatment?

A
 Prolonged seizures that last more than 5 min 
or repeated seizures over course of 30 min –
medical emergency! 
 Establish airway 
 ABGs
 IV push lorazepam, diazepam 
 Rectal diazepam 
 Loading dose IV phenytoin
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42
Q

What are the two different types of meningitis and the clinical manifestations of each?

A
 General symptom 
 Fever 
 Neurologic symptoms 
 Headache 
 Photophobia 
 Indications of increased ICP 
 Nuchal rigidity 
 Positive Kernig’s, Brudzinski’s signs 
 Decreased mental status 
 Focal neurologic deficits 
 GI symptoms 
 Nausea and vomiting
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43
Q

What lab tests would you perform for for meningitis?

A
 CSF analysis 
 CT scan 
 Blood cultures 
 Counterimmunoelectrophoresis 
 Polymerase chain reaction 
 CBC 
 X-rays to determine presence of infection
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44
Q

What is the drug therapy for meningitis?

A
 Broad-spectrum antibiotic 
 Hyperosmolar agents 
 Anticonvulsants 
 Steroids (controversial) 
 Prophylaxis treatment for those in close 
contact with meningitis-infected patient
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45
Q

The wife of a patient recently diagnosed with
Alzheimer’s disease asks the nurse if there is a cure for
her husband’s illness.
What is the nurse’s best response?

A

A. Eating a balanced diet that includes lots of soy products
can prevent Alzheimer’s disease.
B. Cholinesterase inhibitor drugs such as donepezil (Aricept)
can slow the progression of the disease.
C. Removal of neuritic plaques can prevent vascular
degeneration and improve brain cell function.
D. Decreasing the levels of neurotransmitters in the brain can
slow the progression of the disease.

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46
Q

The wife states that her husband is able to perform most of his own
ADLs, and wants to keep her husband safely and independently
functioning in their home as long as possible.
To help her husband maintain safe independence, which action
should the nurse recommend?

A

A. Ensure that door locks can be easily opened by the patient.
B. Take the patient out into crowds of people as often as possible.
C. Vary times for meals, bedtime, and getting up in the morning.
D. Place outfits on hangers, then allow the patient to choose what to
wear.

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47
Q

At a 6-month follow-up appointment, the wife states that
the patient occasionally has difficulty finding the correct
words to use when he is communicating.
What term does the nurse use to document this
assessment data?

A

A. Apraxia
B. Aphasia
C. Anomia
D. Agnosia

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48
Q

At an 18-month follow-up appointment, the wife
states that her husband seems depressed most
of the time and has become less talkative over
the past few months.
Which medication could be helpful for this
patient’s symptoms?

A

A. Sertraline (Zoloft)
B. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
C. Imipramine (Tofranil)
D. Desipramine (Norpramin)

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49
Q

The patient’s wife calls the physician’s office to report that she is
concerned, because the last time her husband took a walk in the
neighborhood where they have lived for 35 years, he got lost and a
neighbor brought him back home.
What measures should the nurse recommend for patient safety?
(Select all that apply.)

A

A. “Enroll him in the Safe Return program.”
B. “Have him wear an ID bracelet or badge at all times.”
C. “Place him in a geri-chair when you can’t be with him.”
D. “Ask your doctor to prescribe a sedative drug to keep him calm.”
E. “Take him for a walk two or three times a day in different
neighborhoods.”

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50
Q

During the call, the wife states that she must go out of
town for 3 days to care for an elderly cousin, and she is
concerned about her husband’s care.
Which nursing response is appropriate?

A

A. “Can you return home sooner than 3 days?”
B. “Why are you choosing to care for your cousin instead of
your spouse?”
C. “Your husband only has mild Alzheimer’s disease, so
staying home alone is acceptable.”
D. “There are organizations that may be able to provide an
interim caretaker for your husband.”

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51
Q

What is a Cerebral angiography (arteriography)?

A

is done to visualize the cerebral
circulation to detect blockages in the arteries or veins in the brain, head,
or neck.
It remains the gold standard for the diagnosis of intracranial
vascular disease and is required for any transcatheter therapy or for
surgical intervention.

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52
Q

What are special precautions taken for iodinated or osmolar contrast agents?

A
Informed consent
Allergies
Renal disease(liver failure)
Diabetic Nephropathy
HF
Dehydration
Old age
NSAIDS/Metformin
Contrast w/in 72 hours
Kidney function
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53
Q

What is a Computed Tomography (CT)?

A

CT scanning is an accurate, quick, easy,
noninvasive, painless, and least-expensive method of diagnosing neurological problems. CT scans
distinguish bone, soft tissue (e.g., the brain, vascular system, and
ventricular system), and fluids such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or
blood. Tumors, infarctions, hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and bone malformations can also be identified.
Claustrophobic (pre-procedure sedation)
Remove hairpins/wigs/hair pieces.
May feel warm cool sensation with contrast or metallic taste.

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54
Q

What is an MRI and the nursing interventions for it?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI or MR) has advantages over CT in the
diagnostic imaging of the brain, spinal cord, and nerve roots. It does not
use ionizing radiation but, instead, relies on magnetic fields. NO METAL. Some tattoos are lead based, so make sure to ask. Ask about metal implants.

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55
Q

What is an LP? And what are some nursing interventions for it?

A

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap) is the insertion of a spinal needle into the
subarachnoid space between the third and fourth (sometimes the fourth
and fifth) lumbar vertebrae.
A lumbar puncture (LP) is used to:
• Obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure readings with a manometer
• Obtain CSF for analysis
• Check for spinal blockage caused by a spinal cord lesion
• Inject contrast medium or air for diagnostic study
• Inject spinal anesthetics
• Inject selected drugs
Not recommended for SEVERE ICP.

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56
Q

What are normal CSF findings?

A
Less than 20cm H2O pressure
Clear and colorless
0-5 small lymphocytes
15-45mg/dl or proteins (up to 70 in older adults)
8:1 albumin/globulin ratio
50-75 or 60-70% glucose
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57
Q

What ia an EEG and hat are some nursing interventions for it?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG) records the electrical activity of the
cerebral hemispheres.
Hair is clean w/o hair products.
Avoid sedative or stimulants w/in 12-24 hrs.
Do not fast, can cause hypoglycemia.
Ensure quite room with sign to ensure people know.

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58
Q

What is an EMG?

A

Electromyography (EMG) is used to identify nerve and muscle disorders
as well as spinal cord disease. Especially used for MS and Mysthasia Gravis.

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59
Q

What is the circle or willis?

A

It is where all three, anterior,middle, and posterior arteries are joined together.

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60
Q

What is post op for LP?

A

Pt will be in side-lying fetal position.
Keep pt prone for 4-8hrs.
Encourage fluid.
Check for leakage.
Ask about headache and notify position if persistent with medication.

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61
Q

What are factors tha can trigger a migraine?

A

Aged cheese or other foods with tyramine
• Caffeine found in beverages such as coffee, tea, cola OR caffeine
withdrawal
• Chocolate
• Foods with yeast such as pastry and fresh breads
• Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
• Nitrates (meats), pickled or fermented foods
• Nuts
• Artificial sweeteners
• Smoked fish
Stress/Fatigue/Anger/Conflict

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62
Q

What are common medications that trigger migraines?

A
  • Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  • Estrogens
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Nifedipine (Procardia, Nifed )
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63
Q

What are Common medications that treat migraines?

A
Mild:
Acetaminophen
NSAIDS
Severe:
Triptan, Midrin and Ergotamine can cause rebound headaches
Chronic:
Botox
Prevention:
CCB
Beta Blockers
NSAIDS
Antieptileptic drugs
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64
Q

What are the three categories of Migraines?

A

Migraine with an aura (classic)
Migraine w/o an aura (common)
Atypical

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65
Q

What are the assessment findings for a migraine with an aura and its phases? (Classic)

A

1) Prodrome:
• Aura develops over a period of several minutes and lasts no longer
than 1 hour.
• Pain may be preceded by:
Visual disturbances
Flashing lights
Lines or spots
Shimmering or zigzag lights
• A variety of neurologic changes, including:
Numbness, tingling of the lips or tongue
Acute confusional state
Aphasia
Vertigo
Unilateral weakness
Drowsiness
2)• Headache is accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
• Pain usually begins in the temple. It increases in intensity and becomes
throbbing within 1 hour.
3)• Pain changes from throbbing to dull.
• Headache, nausea, and vomiting usually last from 4 to 72 hours. (Older
patients may have aura without pain, known as a visual migraine.)

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66
Q

What are the assessment findings for a migraine w/o an aura? (Common)

A

• Migraine begins without an aura before the onset of the headache.
• Pain is aggravated by performing routine physical activities.
• Pain is unilateral and pulsating.
• One of these symptoms is present:
Nausea and/or vomiting
Photophobia (light sensitivity)
Phonophobia (sound sensitivity)
• Headache lasts for 4 to 72 hours.
• Migraine often occurs in the early morning, during periods of stress, or
in those with premenstrual tension or fluid retention.

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67
Q

What are the assessment findings for an Atypical migraine and what are the different types?

A

• Status migrainous:
Headache lasts longer than 72 hours.
• Migrainous infarction:
Neurologic symptoms are not completely reversible within 7 days.
Ischemic infarct is noted on neuroimaging.
• Unclassified:
Headache does not fulfill all of the criteria to be classified a migraine.

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68
Q

What are complementary measures to take for a migraine?

A
Yoga
Meditation
 Massage 
Exercise
Biofeedback
Vitamin
B12
(riboflavin)
Coenzyme Q10
Magnesium supplement to maintain
normal serum values have a role in migraine prevention.
Acupuncture
Herbal medication
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69
Q

What are cluster headaches?

A

Cluster headaches are manifested by brief (30 minutes to 2 hours), intense unilateral pain that generally occurs in the spring and fall without warning. It is classified as the most common chronic short-duration headache with pain lasting less than 4 hours. Typically in Men 20-50 years old.
Neuroimaging studies suggest that cluster headaches are related to an overactive and enlarged hypothalamus. The headaches occur at about the same time of day for about 4 to 12 weeks (hence the term
cluster), followed by a period of remission for 9 months to a year

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70
Q

What’s are nursing assessment for Cluster headaches?

A

Question the patient about prescribed drugs for both the prevention and
relief of the headache, as well as OTC drugs and herbal preparations he
or she may be taking. . Ask the patient to recall a typical week’s activities and any recent changes in lifestyle. Explore the
relationship of cluster headache onset with emotional and behavioral
precipitating factors such as bursts of anger, prolonged anticipation,
excessive physical activity, and excitement. Ask him or her to identify
bedtimes and waking times to help assess changes in activity or lack of
continuity in the sleep-wake cycle.
The patient often paces, walks, or sits and
rocks during an attack. The headache usually occurs with:
• Ipsilateral (same side) tearing of the eye
• Rhinorrhea (“runny nose”) or congestion
• Ptosis (drooping eyelid)
• Eyelid edema
• Facial sweating
• Miosis (constriction of pupils)

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71
Q

What are nursing interventions for cluster headaches?

A
Consistent sleep-wake cycle
Same medications a migraine PLUSE:
Lithium 
Corticosteroids
OTC civamide (a capsaicin isomer), available as a nasal spray
Oral melatonin
Oral glucosamine
Wear sunglasses 
Sit away from window
O2 12L via Mask for 15-20min
For CHRONIC resistant to meds SURGERY LAST RESORT.
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72
Q

What is a partial seizure?

A

Partial: also called focal or local seizures, begin in a part of one
cerebral hemisphere. They are further subdivided into two main classes:
Complex partial seizures: may cause loss of consciousness (syncope), or
“black out,” for 1 to 3 minutes.
Simple partial seizure: remains conscious throughout the episode.
In addition, some
partial seizures can become generalized tonic-clonic, tonic, or clonic
seizures. Partial seizures are most often seen in adults and generally are
less responsive to medical treatment when compared with other types.

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73
Q

What are unclassified seizures?

A

Unclassified, or idiopathic, seizures account for about half of all
seizure activity. They occur for no known reason and do not fit into the
generalized or partial classifications.

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74
Q

What are secondary seizures?

A

Secondary seizures result from an underlying
brain lesion, most commonly a tumor or trauma. They may also be
• Metabolic disorders
• Acute alcohol withdrawal
• Electrolyte disturbances (e.g., hyperkalemia, water intoxication,
hypoglycemia)
• Substance abuse
• High fever
• Stroke
• Head injury
Heart Disease

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75
Q

What is status electives? What is the treatment?

A

Prolonged seizure that lasts more than 5 minutes. Or repeated seizures over a course of 30min. MEDICAL EMERGENCY.
Airway/ABGs/IV push diazepam, lorazepam/loading dose of IV phenytoin.

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76
Q

What cant you administer warfin with?

A

Phenytoin

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77
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A
Fever 
Headache 
Photophobia
ICP
Nuchal rigidity 
\+ Kernigs/babinski signs
Decreased mental status 
N/V
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78
Q

What are the lab assessments of meningitis?

A
CSF analysis 
CT scan
Blood cultures
Counterimmunoelectrophoresis
Polymerase chain reaction
CBC
X-ray 
Lumbar puncture
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79
Q

What is the drug therapy for meningitis?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotic
Hyper-osmolor agents (mannitol)
Steroids
Prophylaxis treatment for those who were in close contact.

80
Q

What is meningitis ?

A

Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, specifically the pia
mater and arachnoid. Bacterial and viral organisms are most often
responsible for meningitis.

81
Q

What are the CSF findings in VIRAL vs BACTERIAL meningitis?

A

BACTERIAL VIRAL
Appearance Cloudy,turbid Clear
WBCs. Increased Increased
Protein Increased Slightly increased
Glucose Decreased Most often normal,
but may be decreased
CSFpressure Elevated Normal or elevated

82
Q

What is the nursing care with a patient who has meningitis?

A
ABC
VS 2-4hr
Manage pain
Stay ontop of ordered drugs
Routine labs
Is&Os
ROM q4hr
Rotation to prevent bed sores
Bed rest w/ HOB elevated 30 degrees
83
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue and often the
surrounding meninges. It affects the cerebrum, the brainstem, and the
cerebellum. A viral agent most often causes the disease, although
bacteria, fungi, or parasites may also be involved (e.g., malaria)

84
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that is the
one of the most common neurologic disorders of older adults. It is a
debilitating disease affecting motor ability and is characterized by four
cardinal symptoms: tremor, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia or akinesia
(slow movement/no movement), and postural instability.

85
Q

What is Parkinson’s keys features?

A
• Posture:
Stooped posture
Flexed trunk
Fingers abducted and flexed at the metacarpophalangeal joint
Wrist slightly dorsiflexed
• Gait:
Slow and shuffling
Short, hesitant steps
Propulsive gait
Difficulty stopping quickly
• Motor:
Bradykinesia (slow movement)
Muscular rigidity
Akinesia
Tremors
“Pill-rolling” movement
Masklike face
Difficulty chewing and swallowing
Uncontrolled drooling, especially at night
Fatigue
Difficulty getting into and out of bed
Reduced arm swinging on one side of the body when walking
Micrographia (change in handwriting or handwriting gets smaller)
• Speech:
Soft, low-pitched voice
Dysarthria (slurred speech)
Echolalia (automatic repetition of what another person says) and
repetition of sentences
Hypophonia (soft voice), change in voice volume or articulation
• Autonomic dysfunction:
Orthostatic hypotension
Excessive perspiration
Oily skin
Seborrhea
Flushing
Changes in skin texture
Blepharospasm (eyelid spasm)
• Psychosocial assessment:
Emotionally labile
Depressed
Paranoid
Easily upset
Rapid mood swings
Impaired cognition (i.e., dementia or delirium)
Delayed reaction time
Sleep disturbances
86
Q

What is nursing management for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Care of the Patient with Parkinson Disease
• Allow the patient extra time to respond to questions.
• Administer medications promptly on schedule to maintain continuous
therapeutic drug levels.
• Provide medication for pain, tingling in limbs, as needed.
• Monitor for side effects of medications, especially orthostatic
hypotension, hallucinations, and acute confusional state (delirium).
• Collaborate with physical and occupational therapists to keep the
patient as mobile and as independent as possible in ADLs.
• Allow the patient time to perform ADLs and mobility skills.
• Implement interventions to prevent complications of immobility, such
as constipation, pressure ulcers, and contractures.
• Schedule appointments and activities late in the morning to prevent
rushing the patient, or schedule them at the time of the patient’s
optimal level of functioning.
• Teach the patient to speak slowly and clearly. Use alternative
communication methods, such as a communication board. Refer to
speech-language pathologist.
• Monitor the patient’s ability to eat and swallow. Monitor actual food
and fluid intake. Collaborate with the dietitian.
• Provide high-protein, high-calorie foods or supplements to maintain
weight.
• Recognize that Parkinson disease affects the patient’s body image.
Focus on the patient’s strengths.
• Assess for depression and anxiety.
• Assess for insomnia or sleeplessness.

87
Q

What is dementia?

A

Dementia is a loss of brain function that is chronic and progressive.
Dementia affects the ability to learn new information. It also impairs
language, judgment, and behavior.

88
Q

Although symptoms of dementia can vary greatly, at least two of these
cognitive functions must be significantly impaired for a diagnosis of
dementia, what are they?

A
Memory
• Communication and language
• Attention span or ability to focus and pay attention
• Reasoning and judgment
• Visual perception
89
Q

What is huntington disease?

A

Huntington disease (HD) is a hereditary disorder transmitted as an
autosomal dominant trait at the time of conception. HD is called an
autosomal dominant disorder because only one copy of the defective gene,
inherited from one parent, is necessary to produce the disease. This
movement disorder causes both neurologic and behavioral symptoms
that usually begin between the ages of 30 and 50 years and worsen
during the next one to two decades. Patients typically die from
pneumonia, heart failure, or other complication of immobility.

90
Q

What factors can lead to low back pain?

A
Changes in support structures: 
Spinal Stenosis 
Hypertrophy of the intraspinal ligaments
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis 
Changes in vertebral support and malalignment: 
Scoliosis 
Lordosis
Vascular changes:
 Diminished  blood supply to the spinal cord or cauda equina
Blood dyscrasias
91
Q

What are health promotion and maintenance for prevention of back injuries/back pain?

A

Good posture
Proper lifting
Excersize
Ergonomics
Equipments that can be used (I.E. LIFTS)
• Use safe manual handling practices, with specific attention to bending,
lifting, and sitting.
• Assess the need for assistance with your household chores or other
activities.
• Participate in a regular exercise program, especially one that promotes
back strengthening, such as swimming and walking.
• Do not wear high-heeled shoes.
• Use good posture when sitting, standing, and walking.
• Avoid prolonged sitting or standing. Use a footstool and ergonomic
chairs and tables to lessen back strain. Be sure that equipment in the
workplace is ergonomically designed to prevent injury.
• Keep weight within 10% of ideal body weight.
• Ensure adequate calcium intake. Consider vitamin D supplementation
if serum levels are low.
• Stop smoking. If you are not able to stop, cut down on the number of
cigarettes or decrease the use of other forms of tobacco.

92
Q

What are nonsurgical therapies for back pain?

A

Nonsurgical conservative management of LBP includes positioning, drug
therapy, physical therapy, weight control, and smoking cessation.

93
Q

What is the Williams position, and what is it for?

A

Williams position is typically more comfortable and therapeutic for
the patient with LBP from a bulging or herniated disk. In this position, the
patient lies in the semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees to
keep them flexed or sits in a recliner chair.

94
Q

What is the drug therapy for chronic LBP?

A

Patients having chronic low back pain (LBP) are treated with NSAIDs,
opioids, and/or antidepressants (as adjunctive therapy)

95
Q

What are the minimally invasive procedures for LBP?

A

Percutanious lumbar diskectomy
Thermodiskectomy
Laser-assisted laparoscopic lumbar diskectomy

96
Q

What are conventional open surgical procedures for LBP?

A

Diskectomy
Laminectomy
Spinal fusion

97
Q

What is the post op care for a pt recieving surgery for LBP?

A
Prevention/assessment of complications
Neurologic assessment 
Vital signs
Pt's ability to void
Wound care
CSF check 
Pt positioning/ mobility 
Discharge teaching: home care management/community resources
98
Q

What are some best practices to limit back injury while moving objects?

A

• Avoid lifting objects of more than 10 pounds without assistance or aid
until the surgeon approves.
• Push objects rather than pull them.
• Do not twist your back during movement.
• Use handles or grips to prevent unintended shifting of the object
during movement.
• Avoid prolonged sitting or standing. Use a footstool to lessen back
strain.
• Sit in chairs with good support.
• Avoid shoulder stooping; maintain proper posture.
• Do not walk or stand in high-heeled shoes for prolonged periods (for
women).

99
Q

What are some best practices to limit back injury while moving people?

A

• Establish an interdisciplinary team responsible for reviewing and
implementing OSHA guidelines for the prevention of musculoskeletal
disorders. Originally developed for nursing homes, these guidelines
provide guidance for education and practice and programs for health
care workers and other stakeholders involved in patient handling,
transfers, and movement.
• Build and support a culture of safety in health care settings that protects staff as well as patients from injury.
• Improve communication channels among nurses, physical therapists,
and family caregivers to facilitate safe patient handling and movement
tasks.
• Develop policies and procedures for the therapeutic use of patient
handling equipment:
Select equipment that first provides safety of patients, staff, and
family caregivers.
Train all staff and family caregivers in the proper and safe operation
of all ergonomic-appropriate equipment.
Encourage patient participation in the use of assistive equipment like
sit and stand lifts that are used as an ambulation aid.
• Develop competency-based assessments that demonstrate proficiency
for use of all patient handling approaches and equipment.
• Encourage quality improvement projects and research that support safe
and effective patient handling and movement while maximizing
patient-assisted or patient-independent movement. For example,
investigate the cost-effectiveness of ergonomic interventions.

100
Q

What is cervical neck pain? What is it usually from?

A

Cervical neck pain most often results from a bulging or herniation of
the nucleus pulposus (HNP) in an intervertebral disk. The disk tends to herniate laterally where the annulus fibrosus is
weakest and the posterior longitudinal ligament is thinned. The result is
spinal nerve root compression with resulting motor and sensory
manifestations, typically in the neck, upper back (over the shoulder), and
down the affected arm. The disk between the fifth and sixth cervical
vertebrae (C5-6) is affected most often.

101
Q

What’s are the five PRIMARY mechanisms that may result in an SCI?

A

1) HYPERFELXTION: injury occurs when the head is suddenly and forcefully accelerated forward.
2)HYPEREXTENSION injuries occur most often in vehicle collisions in which the vehicle is struck from behind or during falls when the patient’s chin is struck.. The head is suddenly accelerated and then decelerated.
3) AXIAL LOADING (vertical compression) allow to the top of the head or jumping forcefully and landing hard.
4) ROTATION injuries are caused by turning the head beyond the normal range.
5) PENETRATING TRAUMA to the spinal cord is classified by the speed of the
object (e.g., knife, bullet) causing the injury.

102
Q

What are Secondary injuries that worsens the primary injury?

A
  • Hemorrhage
  • Ischemia (lack of oxygen, typically from reduced/absent blood flow)
  • Hypovolemia (decreased circulating blood volume)
  • Impaired tissue perfusion form neurogenic shock (a medical emergency)
  • Local edema
103
Q

What are the riorities in the initial assessment with a spinal cord injury?

A

Therefore the first priority for the patient with an SCI is to assess the patient’s airway, breathing pattern, and circulation
status.
Indications for intra-abdominal hemorrhage/bleeding around fractured sights.
LOC (Glascow’s coma scale)
Leavel of injury is the lowest neurologic
segment with intact or normal motor and sensory function. Tetraplegia
(also called quadriplegia) (paralysis) and quadriparesis (weakness)
involve all four extremities, as seen with cervical cord and upper thoracic
injury. Paraplegia (paralysis) and paraparesis (weakness) involve only the
lower extremities, as seen in lower thoracic and lumbosacral injuries or lesions.

104
Q

What is spinal shock?

A

Spinal shock, also called spinal shock syndrome, occurs immediately
as the cord’s response to the injury. The patient has complete but
temporary loss of motor, sensory, reflex, and autonomic function that
often lasts less than 48 hours but may continue for several weeks. NOT THE SAME AS NEUROGINIC SHOCK.

105
Q

What are key findings in the Cardiovascular system for a pt with a SCI?

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia
occur because of loss of sympathetic input. These changes may lead to
cardiac dysrhythmias. A systolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg requires
treatment because lack of perfusion to the spinal cord could worsen the patient’s
condition.

106
Q

What are key findings in the Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary system for a pt with a SCI?

A

Assess the patient’s abdomen for manifestations of internal bleeding,
distention, or paralytic ileus. Hemorrhage may result from the trauma, or
it may occur later from a stress ulcer or the administration of steroids.
Assess serum glucose levels
to avoid complications from hypoglycemia and sustained hyperglycemia.
Autonomic dysfunction initially causes an areflexic (neurogenic)
bladder (no reflex ability for bladder contraction), which later leads to
urinary retention. Assess for bladder distention and urine stasis.

107
Q

What are the The priority NANDA-I nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems for
patients with an acute spinal cord injury (SCI)?

A
  1. Risk for respiratory distress/failure related to aspiration or
    diaphragmatic denervation (e.g., impaired phrenic nerve impulses in
    patients with cervical injury)
  2. Potential for cardiovascular instability related to loss or interruption of
    sympathetic innervation or hemorrhage
  3. Potential for secondary spinal cord injury related to hypoperfusion,
    edema, or delayed spinal column stabilization
  4. Impaired Physical Mobility related to spinal compression and edema
    (NANDA-I)
  5. Spastic or flaccid bladder and bowel related to direct neurologic
    damage or disruption in nerve impulses
  6. Risk for Compromised Resilience from injury requiring need for life
    change (NANDA-I)
108
Q

What is the priority nursing saftey for a pt with a SCI? Hint: s/sx of NEUROGINIC SHOCK.

A

Monitor the patient with acute spinal cord injury at least hourly for:
• Pulse oximetry (Spo2) <90% or symptoms of aspiration (e.g., stridor,
garbled speech, or inability to clear airway)
• Symptomatic bradycardia, including reduced level of consciousness
and deceased urine output
• Hypotension with systolic blood pressure (SBP) <90 or mean arterial
pressure (MAP) <65 mm Hg
Notify the physician immediately if these symptoms occur, because this
problem is an emergency! Respiratory compromise from aspiration may be
treated with intubation or bronchial endoscopy. Neurogenic shock is
treated symptomatically by providing fluids to the circulating blood
volume, adding vasopressor intravenous therapy, and providing
supportive care to stabilize the patient.

109
Q

What is The most commonly used device for

immobilization of the cervical spine?

A

The halo fixator is a static traction device. Four pins (or
screws) are inserted into the skull. The metal halo ring may be attached
to a plastic vest or cast when the spine is stable, allowing increased
patient mobility.

110
Q

What are nursing priority for a halo fixator device?

A

Never move or turn the patient by holding or pulling on the halo device. Do not adjust the screws holding it in place. Check the patient’s
skin frequently to ensure that the jacket is not causing pressure.
Pressure is avoided if one finger can be inserted easily between the
jacket and the patient’s skin. Monitor the patient’s neurologic status for
changes in movement or decreased strength. A special wrench is needed
to loosen the vest in emergencies such as cardiopulmonary arrest. Tape
the wrench to the vest for easy and consistent accessibility. Do not use
sharp objects (e.g., coat hangers, knitting needles) to relieve itching
under the vest; skin damage and infection will slow recovery.

111
Q

What is Patient and Family Education: Preparing for Self-Management of a halo device?

A

• Be aware that the weight of the halo device alters balance. Be careful
when leaning forward or backward.
• Wear loose clothing, preferably with hook and loop (Velcro) fasteners
or large openings for head and arms.
• Bathe in the bathtub, or take a sponge bath. (Some physicians allow
showers.)
• Wash under the lambs wool liner of the vest to prevent rashes or sores;
use powders or lotions sparingly under the vest.
• Have someone change the liner if it becomes odorous.
• Support the head with a small pillow when sleeping to prevent
unnecessary pressure and discomfort.
• Try to resume usual activities to the extent possible; keep as active as
possible. (The weight of the device may cause fatigue or weakness.)
However, avoid contact sports and swimming.
• Do not drive because vision is impaired with the device.
• Keep straws available for drinking fluids.
• Cut meats and other food into small pieces to facilitate chewing and swallowing.
• Before going outside in cold temperatures, wrap the pins with cloth to
prevent the metal from getting cold.
• Have someone clean the pin sites as recommended by physician or
hospital protocol.
• Observe the pin sites daily for redness, drainage, or loosening; report
changes to the physician.
• Increase fluids and fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
• Use a position of comfort during sexual activity.

112
Q

What is drug therapy for a SCI?

A

Dextran, a plasma expander, may be used to increase capillary blood flow
within the spinal cord and to prevent or treat hypotension. Atropine
sulfate is used to treat bradycardia if the pulse rate falls below 50 to 60
beats per minute. Hypotension, if severe, is treated with continuous
intravenous sympathomimetic agents such as dopamine or other
vasoactive agent.
Centrally-acting skeletal muscular relaxants, such as tizanidine
(Zanaflex, Sirdalud), may help control severe muscle spasticity. However, these drugs cause severe drowsiness and sedation in most patients and
may not be effective in reducing spasticity. As an alternative to these
drugs, intrathecal baclofen (ITB) (Lioresal) therapy may be prescribed.

113
Q

What are some nursing interventions for a SCI?

A
The patient with an SCI is especially at risk for pressure ulcers (impaired
skin tissue integrity), venous thromboembolism (VTE), contractures,
orthostatic hypotension, and fractures related to osteoporosis.
Frequent positioning (1-2 h) Low weight heparin and pressure stockings for VTW prevention.
114
Q

What is Autonomic dysreflexia (AD)?

A

sometimes referred to as autonomic
hyperreflexia, is a potentially life-threatening condition in which noxious
visceral or cutaneous stimuli cause a sudden, massive, uninhibited reflex
sympathetic discharge in people with high-level SCI.

115
Q

What are some s/sx of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

• Sudden, significant rise in systolic and diastolic blood pressure,accompanied by bradycardia
• Profuse sweating above the level of lesion—especially in the face, neck, and shoulders; rarely occurs below the level of the lesion because of sympathetic cholinergic activity
• Goose bumps above or possibly below the level of the lesion
• Flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion—especially in the
face, neck, and shoulders
• Blurred vision
• Spots in the patient’s visual field
• Nasal congestion
• Onset of severe, throbbing headache
• Flushing about the level of the lesion with pale skin below the level of the lesion
• Feeling of apprehension

116
Q

What is the Emergency Care of the Patient Experiencing Autonomic
Dysreflexia?

A

• Place patient in sitting position (first priority!), or return to previous
safe position.
• Page/notify care provider.
• Assess for and treat the cause:
• Check for urinary retention or catheter blockage:
• Check the urinary catheter tubing (if present) for kinks or obstruction.
• If a urinary catheter is not present, check for bladder distention and
catheterize immediately if indicated:
• Consider using anesthetic ointment on tip of catheter before catheter
insertion to reduce urethral irritation.
• Determine if a urinary tract infection or bladder calculi (stones) are
contributing to genitourinary irritation.
• Check the patient for fecal impaction or other colorectal irritation,
using anesthetic ointment at rectum. Disimpact if needed.
• Examine skin for new or worsening pressure ulcer symptoms.
• Monitor blood pressures every 10 to 15 minutes.
• Give nifedipine or nitrate as prescribed:
• Patients with recurrent autonomic dysreflexia may receive an alpha
blocker prophylactically.

117
Q

What is the teaching plan for the patient with an SCI ?

A

• Mobility skills
• Pressure ulcer prevention
• ADL skills
• Bowel and bladder program
• Education about sexuality and referral for counseling to promote sexual
health
• Prevention of autonomic dysreflexia with appropriate bladder, bowel,
and skin care practices and recognition of early signs or symptoms of
autonomic dysreflexia

118
Q

What do What Patients Need to Know About Aging with Spinal Cord
Injury?

A

NURSING INTERVENTION: RATIONALES
Follow guidelines for adult vaccination,
particularly influenza and pneumococcus
vaccination recommendations. Respiratory complications are the mostcommon cause of death after spinal cord injury (SCI). The vaccine to prevent herpes
zoster (shingles) can help prevent skin
breakdown.
For women, have Papanicolaou (Pap) smears
and mammograms as recommended by the
American Cancer Society or your health care
provider.
Limitations in movement may make breast
self-examination difficult.
Take measures to prevent osteoporosis, such as
increasing calcium intake, avoiding caffeine,
and not smoking. Exercise against resistance
can maintain muscle strength and slow bone
loss.
Women older than 50 years often lose bone
density, which can result in fractures. Men can
also have osteoporotic fractures as a result of
immobility.
Practice meticulous skin care, including
frequent repositioning, using pressure-reduction
surfaces in bed and chairs/wheelchairs, and
applying skin protective products like Mepilex.
As a person ages, skin becomes dry and less
elastic, predisposing the patient to pressure
ulcers.
Take measures to prevent constipation, such as
drinking adequate fluids, eating a high-fiber
diet, adding a stool softener or bowel stimulant
daily, and establishing a regular time for bowel
elimination.
Constipation is a problem for most patients
with SCI, and bowel motility can slow,
contributing to constipation later in life.
Modify activities if joint pain occurs; use a
powered rather than a manual wheelchair. Ask
the health care provider about treatment
options.
Arthritis occurs in more than half of people
older than 65 years. Patients with SCI are more
likely to develop arthritis as a result of added
stress on the upper extremities when using a
wheelchair

119
Q

What is MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a life-long inflammatory disease of unknown
etiology that affects the brain and spinal cord. It is one of the leading
causes of neurologic disability in young adults. This chronic disease is
characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation (flare), which is
commonly referred to as a relapsing-remitting course. Patients progress at
different rates and over different lengths of time. However, as the
severity and duration of the disease progress, the periods of exacerbation
become more frequent. Patients with MS have a normal life expectancy as
long as the effects of the disease are treated.

120
Q

What are the key features of MS?

A

• Muscle weakness and spasticity
• Fatigue
• Intention tremors
• Dysmetria (inability to direct or limit movement)
• Numbness or tingling sensations (paresthesia)
• Hypalgesia (decreased sensitivity to pain)
• Ataxia (decreased motor coordination)
• Dysarthria (slurred speech)
• Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
• Diplopia (double vision)
• Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements)
• Scotomas (changes in peripheral vision)
• Decreased visual and hearing acuity
• Tinnitus (ringing in the ears), vertigo (dizziness)
• Bowel and bladder dysfunction
• Alterations in sexual function, such as impotence
• Cognitive changes, such as memory loss, impaired judgment, and
decreased ability to solve problems or perform calculations
• Depression

121
Q

What is ALS?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease,
is an upper and lower motor neuron disease of adult onset. It is
characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity
that eventually lead to paralysis. Beginning in one area of the body, motor
weakness and deterioration spread until the entire body is involved,
including the ability to talk, swallow, and breathe. As a result of loss of
lower motor neurons (LMNs) found in the spinal cord and brainstem, the
muscles to which they connect weaken, atrophy, and die.

122
Q

What are the key features of ALS?

A
  • Tongue atrophy
  • Weakness of the hands and arms
  • Beginning muscle atrophy of the arms
  • Fasciculations (twitching) of the face or tongue
  • Difficulty controlling crying or laughing (emotional incontinence)
  • Nasal quality of speech
  • Dysarthria (slurred speech)
  • Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
  • Fatigue while talking
  • Stiff or clumsy gait
  • Abnormal reflexes
123
Q

What might you NOTICE if the patient is experiencing impaired
mobility and sensory perception as a result of spinal cord health problems?

A

• Weakness or paralysis of one or more extremities
• Report of decreased sensation in one or more extremities
• Muscle spasticity or flaccidity
• Forward bent position when ambulating
• Limp or altered gait
• Bladder incontinence or retention
• Bowel incontinence or retention
• Report of pain at or above the site of injury along the spinal column
and/or in one or more extremities
• Difficulty breathing

124
Q

What should you INTERPRET to a

patient experiencing inadequate mobility and sensory perception as a result of spinal cord health problems?

A

• Assessing airway patency and breathing pattern
• Assessing use of accessory muscles, pattern of respiratory effort, and
rate and depth of breathing
• Assessing level of consciousness
• Taking vital signs
• Performing a complete physical assessment
• Performing a complete neurologic assessment

125
Q

how should you RESPOND to a
patient experiencing inadequate mobility and sensory perception as a result of
Spinal cord health problems?

A

• Establishing an airway as needed
• Stabilizing the spine by positioning until surgery or other treatment is
provided
• Preparing for imaging assessment tests
• Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• Collaborating with the health care team, especially the physical
therapist and the occupational therapist, if needed

126
Q

On what should you REFLECT to a
patient experiencing inadequate mobility and sensory perception as a result of
Spinal cord health problems?

A

• Monitor the patient for changes in condition, including deterioration of
neurologic status.
• Consider how to best collaborate with the health care team when caring
for patients with spinal cord injury or illness.
• Think about family reaction to the injury or illness and what additional
resources could have been used or should be used in the future.

127
Q

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome ?

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute inflammatory
polyradiculoneuropathy that affects the axons and/or myelin of the
peripheral nervous system, causing motor weakness and abnormalities
in sensory perception. It is an uncommon disorder, affecting males slightly
more than females and peaking after age 55 years.

128
Q

What are the key features of Gillian-Barre syndrome?

A
Ascending muscle weakness
Decreased DTRs
Ataxia
Pain(cramping)
Facial weakness
Difficulty speaking
Tachycardia 
Cardiac dysrythmias
129
Q

Drug therapy for Gillian-Barre syndrome?

A

The patient may receive either plasma exchange (also

known as plasmapheresis) or IVIG.

130
Q

What is Plasmapheresis?

A

Plasmapheresis removes the circulating antibodies thought to be
responsible for the disease. In this procedure, plasma is selectively
separated from whole blood. The blood cells are returned to the patient
without the plasma.

131
Q

What is nursing saftey priority for Gillian-Barre Syndrome?

A

In the initial phase of Guillain-Barré syndrome, monitor the patient
closely with each interaction for signs of respiratory distress, such as
dyspnea, air hunger, adventitious breath sounds, decreased oxygen
saturation, and cyanosis. In addition, assess respiratory rate, rhythm,
and depth every 1 to 2 hours. In collaboration with the respiratory
therapist (RT), check vital capacity every 2 to 4 hours and auscultate the
lungs at 4-hour intervals. Monitor the patient’s ability to cough and
swallow for any change. Assess cognitive status, especially in older
adults; a decline in mental status often indicates hypoxia.

132
Q

What is Myasthenia gravis?

A

Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an acquired autoimmune disease
characterized by muscle weakness. There are two types of MG: ocular and
generalized. About two thirds of patients initially present with reports
about vision that arise from disturbances of the ocular muscles. MG may
take many forms—from mild disturbances of the cranial and peripheral
motor neurons to a rapidly developing, generalized weakness that may
lead to death from respiratory failure. MG can present at any age, and the
incidence is slightly higher among men. It is a progressive disease.
MG is caused by distorted acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) in the
muscle motor end plate membranes. Antibodies are attached to the
AChRs. As a result, nerve impulses are reduced at the neuromuscular
junction; nerve impulses do not result in muscle contraction. MG and
hyperplasia (abnormal growth) of the thymus gland are related because
thymoma (encapsulated thymus gland tumor) occurs in a few cases.

133
Q

What are the key features of MG?

A
Motor Manifestations
• Progressive (proximal) muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive
use and usually improves with rest
• Poor posture
• Ocular palsies
• Ptosis; incomplete eyelid closure
• Diplopia
• Respiratory compromise
• Loss of bowel and bladder control
• Fatigue
Sensory Manifestations
• Muscle achiness
• Paresthesias
• Decreased sense of smell and taste
134
Q

What is the differences between a cholinergic and a myasthenic crisis and what test is used to distinguish the two?

A
Tensilon testing (Tensilon) is given intravenously; muscle movement improves
immediately in patients with myasthenia or myasthenia crisis.
  1. Myasthenic crisis—an exacerbation (flare-up or worsening) of the
    myasthenic symptoms caused by not enough anticholinesterase drugs
  2. Cholinergic crisis—an acute exacerbation of muscle weakness caused
    by too many anticholinesterase drugs
    Sudden increases in weakness accompanied by hypersalivation, sweating, and increased
    bronchial secretions help identify this as a cholinergic crisis rather than a
    myasthenic crisis. A cholinergic crisis is more likely to be associated with
    nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
135
Q

What is the drug therapy of MG?

A

Two groups of drugs are typically prescribed for the treatment of
myasthenia gravis (MG): anticholinesterases and immunosuppressants.
Be sure to give these drugs on time to maintain blood levels and thus improve
muscle strength. Monitor and document the patient’s response to drug
therapy. Provide information for the patient and the family about the
indications for, effectiveness of, and side effects of the drugs used in the treatment of MG.

136
Q

What is Emergency Care for a Cholinergic Crisis.?

A

In cholinergic crisis, do not give anticholinesterase drugs while the patient
is maintained with mechanical ventilation. Atropine 1 mg IV may be
given and repeated, if necessary. When atropine is prescribed, observe
the patient carefully. Secretions can be thickened by the drug, which
causes more difficulty with airway clearance and possibly the
development of mucus plugs.

137
Q

What are some ways to Improve Nutrition in Patients with Myasthenia Gravis?

A

• Assess the patient’s gag reflex and ability to chew and swallow.
• Provide frequent oral hygiene as needed.
• Collaborate with the dietitian, speech-language pathologist, and
occupational therapist to plan and implement meals that the patient
can eat and enjoy.
• Cut food into small bites or request a soft or edentulous diet, and
encourage the patient to eat slowly.
• Observe the patient for choking, nasal regurgitation, and aspiration.
• Provide high-calorie snacks or supplements (e.g., puddings).
• Keep the head of the bed elevated during meals and for 30 to 60
minutes after the patient eats.
• Consider thickening liquids to avoid choking or aspiration.
• Monitor caloric and food intake.
• Weigh the patient daily.
• Monitor serum prealbumin levels.
• Administer anticholinesterase drugs as prescribed, usually 45 to 60
minutes before meals.

138
Q

What is the surgical management for a pt with MG?

A

For patients with MG, thymectomy (removal of the thymus gland) is
usually performed early in the disease. The procedure is not always
immediately effective. Those who have surgery within 2 years of the
onset of myasthenic symptoms show the most improvement, but many
patients do not experience a change in status despite thymectomy.

139
Q

What is the Nursing Safety Priority for a pt redialing a thymectomy?

A

For the patient having a thymectomy, monitor respiratory effort and
promote effective gas exchange. Observe for signs of pneumothorax or
hemothorax, including:
• Chest pain
• Sudden shortness of breath
• Diminished or delayed chest wall expansion
• Diminished or absent breath sounds
• Restlessness or a change in vital signs (decreasing blood pressure or a
weak, rapid pulse)
If respiratory distress or symptoms of ineffective gas exchange occur,
provide oxygen to the patient and raise the head of the bed to at least 45
degrees. Then report any of these signs and symptoms to the surgeon or
Rapid Response Team immediately!

140
Q

What are factors that may Factors Precipitate or Worsen Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Stress the importance of lifestyle adaptations such as avoiding heat
(e.g., sauna, hot tubs, sunbathing), crowds, overeating, erratic changes in
sleep habits, or emotional extremes.

141
Q

What characteristics does Trigeminal neuralgia have?

A

• Affects the trigeminal (fifth cranial) nerve
• Occurs more often in people older than 50 years and in women more
often than men
• Causes a specific type of facial pain, which occurs in sudden, intense
facial spasms
• Is usually provoked by minimal stimulation of a trigger zone (like
dental procedures)
• Is unilateral (one-sided) and confined to the area innervated by the
trigeminal nerve, most often the second and third branches
• Is familial due to an inherited pattern of blood vessel formation

142
Q

What is thought to be the cause of Trigeminal neuralgia?

A

The cause of trigeminal neuralgia is thought to be related to impaired
inhibitory mechanisms in the brainstem caused by excessive firing of
irritated fibers in the trigeminal nerve. Trauma and infection of the teeth,
jaw, or ear may be contributing factors. Patients younger than 30 years
with pain in more than one branch of the trigeminal nerve may be
further evaluated to rule out the possibility of a tumor or multiple
sclerosis

143
Q

What is the priority care for a patient with TN?

A

Pain management.

144
Q

What is drug therapy for TN?

A

The first choice for drug therapy is carbamazepine (CBZ, Tegretol), an
antiepileptic drug (AED)
Other drugs, such as
gabapentin (Neurontin), pregabalin (Lyrica), and baclofen (Lioresal,
Kemstro), a muscle relaxant, may be used. Some patients also achieve
pain relief with complementary therapies, such as acupuncture.

145
Q

What is a nursing saftey priority for TN?

A

Teach the patient who has had percutaneous stereotactic rhizotomy to
avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side because the protective
mechanism of pain will no longer warn of injury. Instruct him or her to
inspect the eye daily for redness or irritation and report to the health
care provider any change or blurred vision. Stress the importance of
regular dental examinations because the absence of pain may not warn
the patient of potential problems.

146
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy, is an acute paralysis of cranial nerve
VII but may also affect cranial nerves V (trigeminal) and VIII
(vestibulocochlear [auditory]). The condition is also known as cranial
polyneuritis. Although the incidence may be slightly higher among
people with diabetes, Bell’s palsy occurs in all ages; however, it is more
commonly seen in young adults.

147
Q

What is the medical management for Bells palsy?

A

Medical management usually includes corticosteroids, 30 to 60 mg daily,
during the first week after the onset of symptoms. Antiviral drugs such as acyclovir (Zovirax), famciclovir (Famvir), or valacyclovir (Valtrex) may
be prescribed for 7 to 10 days after symptoms begin. Mild analgesics may
help relieve the pain. Nursing care is directed toward managing the major
neurologic deficits and providing psychosocial support. Because the eye
does not close, the cornea must be protected from drying and
subsequent ulceration or abrasion can occur.

148
Q

What might you NOTICE if a patient is experiencing impaired mobility,
altered sensory perception, or pain as a result of acute or chronic peripheral
nervous system disorders?

A

• Report of muscle weakness in face, arms, or legs
• Inability to swallow or clear the upper airway
• Changes in respiratory rate and pattern indicating respiratory
compromise or failure
• Loss of sensation in face or extremities
• Report of burning, tingling sensations in face or extremities
• Report of pain in extremities or face
• Ptosis and either dry eye or excessive tearing

149
Q

What should you INTERPRET to a
patient experiencing impaired mobility, and/or sensory perception, and/or pain
as a result of peripheral nervous system disorders?

A
  • Completing a neurologic assessment
  • Assessing a patient’s airway and breathing ability
  • Performing a comprehensive pain assessment
150
Q

how should you RESPOND to a
patient experiencing impaired mobility, and/or sensory perception, and/or pain
as a result of peripheral nervous system disorders?

A

• Notifying health care provider or contacting Rapid Response Team if
patient has problems with breathing or experiences a sudden change
in neurologic status
• Establishing an airway and promoting ease in breathing (e.g., put
patient in sitting position, provide oxygen, set up suction)
• Having emergency equipment like ventilator and tracheostomy set
available for patient who has respiratory compromise
• Assisting with ADLs as needed
• Providing analgesics and other pain-relief measures

151
Q

On what should you REFLECT as you assess and manage care for a
patient with problems of the peripheral nervous system?

A

• Continue to observe patient for changes in functional ability and gas
exchange.
• Consider multiple approaches to managing pain.
• Think about ways to promote independence in mobility and self-care.
• Think about health care team members with whom you will need to
collaborate to improve mobility.
• Consider how to provide a safe environment for patients with
decreased sensory perception.
• Develop a teaching plan for the patient and family for continuing care.

152
Q

What is a transient ischemic

attack (TIA)?

A

Ischemic strokes often follow warning signs such as a transient ischemic
attack (TIA). Temporary neurologic dysfunction resulting from a brief
interruption in cerebral blood flow is easy to ignore or miss, particularly
if symptoms resolve by the time the patient reaches the emergency
department (ED). Typically resolve within 30-60min.

153
Q

What are key features of a TIA?

A
Transient Ischemic Attack
Symptoms resolve typically within 30 to 60 minutes.
Visual Deficits
• Blurred vision
• Diplopia (double vision)
• Blindness in one eye
• Tunnel vision
Motor Deficits
• Weakness (facial droop, arm or leg drift, hand grasp)
• Ataxia (gait disturbance)
Sensory Perception Deficits
• Numbness (face, hand, arm, or leg)
• Vertigo
Speech Deficits
• Aphasia
• Dysarthria (slurred speech)
154
Q

What are prevention measures or treatment for a TIA?

A

• Reducing high blood pressure, the most common risk factor for stroke,
by adding or adjusting drugs to lower blood pressure
• Taking aspirin or another antiplatelet drug (e.g., clopidogrel [Plavix]) to
prevent strokes (Aw & Sharma, 2012)
• Controlling diabetes and keeping blood sugar levels in a target range,
typically 100-180 mg/dL
• Promoting lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, eating heart-
healthy foods, and being more active

155
Q

What s a stroke?

A

A stroke is caused by an interruption of perfusion to any part of the
brain. The National Stroke Association uses the term brain attack to
convey the urgency for acute stroke care similar to that provided for
acute myocardial infarction. A stroke is a medical emergency, and it should be
treated immediately to reduce permanent disability. Third leading cause of death in the U.S.

156
Q

What is an acute ischemic stroke caused by?

A

An acute ischemic stroke is caused by the occlusion (blockage) of a
cerebral artery by either a thrombus or an embolus. A stroke that is
caused by a thrombus (clot) is referred to as a thrombotic stroke,
whereas a stroke caused by an embolus (dislodged clot) is referred to as
an embolic stroke.

157
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

In this

type of stroke, vessel integrity is interrupted and bleeding occurs into the

158
Q

What is a Intracerebral Hemmorrhage?

A
Intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) describes bleeding into the brain tissue
generally resulting from severe or sustained hypertension
159
Q

What is a Subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is much more common and results
from bleeding into the subarachnoid space—the space between the pia
mater and arachnoid layers of the meninges covering the brain. This type
of bleeding is usually caused by a ruptured aneurysm or arteriovenous
malformation.

160
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

An aneurysm is an abnormal ballooning or blister along a normal
artery, which usually develops in a weak spot on the artery wall, typically
along the posterior circulation such as the basilar artery, vertebral artery,
or the superior cerebral artery. Larger aneurysms are more likely to
rupture than smaller ones.

161
Q

What is an arteriovenous malformation?

A

An arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is an uncommon abnormality
that occurs during embryonic development. It is a tangled collection of
malformed, thin-walled, dilated vessels without a capillary network. Normally the capillary network lowers the pressure between the
arterial and venous systems. In the absence of the capillary network, the
thin-walled veins are subjected to arterial pressure. The abnormal vessels
may eventually rupture, causing bleeding into the intracerebral tissue or
spaces.

162
Q

What is a vasospasm?

A

Vasospasm, a sudden and periodic constriction of a cerebral artery,
often follows SAH or bleeding from an aneurysm or AVM rupture. Blood flow to distal areas of the brain supplied by the damaged cerebral vessel
is markedly diminished. Reduced perfusion from vasospasm contributes to
secondary cerebral ischemia and infarction and further neurologic
dysfunction.

163
Q

What are the goals for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Preserve cognition, mobility, and quality of life.

164
Q

What are some Common Modifiable Risk Factors for Developing a Stroke?

A
  • Smoking
  • Substance use (particularly cocaine)
  • Obesity
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Oral contraceptive use
  • Heavy alcohol use
  • Use of phenylpropanolamine (PPA), found in antihistamine drugs
165
Q

What are some Cultural Considerations regarding stroke?

A

American Indian/Alaskan Native groups have the highest prevalence
of stroke. Black men and women have more strokes than white men and
women. Hispanic or Latino men have more strokes than non-Hispanic
men. About half of the excess stroke risk in blacks between ages 45 and
65 years is attributable to traditional risk factors such as elevated systolic
blood pressure and socioeconomic factors. These data suggest a critical
need to study the role that nontraditional risk factors play in stroke
development and severity in this group

166
Q

Why may it be necessary to take a “drug holiday” from Parkinson’s drugs?

A

They can grow a tolerance and some of the side effects are extreme.

167
Q

What is Nursing Safety Priority for a stroke?

A

In the ED, assess the stroke patient within 10 minutes of arrival. This
same standard applies to patients already hospitalized for other medical
conditions who have a stroke. The priority is assessment of ABCs
—airway, breathing, and circulation. Many hospitals have designated
stroke teams and centers that are expert in acute stroke assessment and
management.

168
Q

What are the five most common symptoms of stroke?

A
  • Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding others
  • Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg
  • Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes
  • Sudden dizziness, trouble walking, or loss of balance or coordination
  • Sudden severe headache with no known cause
169
Q

What are some good assessments to make when looking for cognitive changes with stroke?

A

• Denial of the illness
• Spatial and proprioceptive (awareness of body position in space)
dysfunction
• Impairment of memory, judgment, or problem-solving and decision-making abilities
• Decreased ability to concentrate and attend to tasks
Dysfunction in one or more of these areas may be severe depending on
the hemisphere involved

170
Q

What are the priority NANDA-I nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems for
patients with a stroke include?

A
  1. Inadequate perfusion to the brain related to interruption of arterial blood flow and a possible increase in ICP
  2. Impaired Swallowing related to neuromuscular impairment (NANDA-
    I)
  3. Impaired Physical Mobility and self-care deficit related to
    neuromuscular impairment or cognitive impairment (NANDA-I)
  4. Aphasia or dysarthria related to decreased circulation in the brain or
    facial muscle weakness
  5. Urinary and/or Bowel Incontinence related to reflex bladder and bowel
    (NANDA-I)
  6. Sensory perception deficits from altered neurologic reception,
    transmission, and perception
  7. Unilateral Neglect related to disturbed perceptual abilities or
    hemianopsia (NANDA-I
171
Q

What are the main interventions for an ischemic stroke?

A

the standard of practice is to start two IV lines with non-dextrose isotonic
saline (Hughes, 2011). Consider placing the patient in a supine position
with a low head-of-bed elevation to maximize cerebral perfusion. The
immediate primary role of the nurse is to manage the patient receiving
treatment and continuously assess for increasing intracranial pressure.

172
Q

What is the first line of defense for an ischemic stroke?

A

Intravenous (systemic) fibrinolytic therapy (also called thrombolytic
therapy) for an acute ischemic stroke dissolves the cerebral artery
occlusion to re-establish blood flow and prevent cerebral infarction.
Alteplase (Activase) is the only drug approved at this point for the
treatment of acute ischemic stroke.

173
Q

What are Nursing Interventions During and After IV Administration of
Alteplase?

A

• Perform a double check of the dose. Use a programmable pump to
deliver the initial dose of 0.9 mg/kg (maximum dose 90 mg) over 60
minutes with 10% of the dose given as a bolus over 1 minute. Do not
manually push this drug.
• Admit the patient to a critical care or specialized stroke unit.
• Perform neurologic assessments, including vital signs, every 10 to 15
minutes during infusion and every 30 minutes after that for at least 6
hours; monitor hourly for 24 hours after treatment. Be consistent
regarding the device used to obtain blood pressures because blood
pressures can vary when switching from a manual to a noninvasive
automatic to an intra-arterial device.
• If systolic blood pressure is 180 mm Hg or greater or diastolic is
105 mm Hg or greater, give antihypertensive drugs as prescribed.
• To prevent bleeding, do not place invasive tubes, such as nasogastric
(NG) tubes or indwelling urinary catheters, until the patient is stable.
• Discontinue the infusion if the patient reports severe headache or has
severe hypertension, bleeding, nausea, and/or vomiting; notify the health care provider immediately.
• Obtain a follow-up CT scan after treatment before starting antiplatelet
or anticoagulant drugs.

174
Q

What is a Nursing Safety Priority regarding stroke?

A

The best practice for all suspected and diagnosed stroke patients is to
maintain a NPO status until their swallowing ability is assessed. Before
the patient is given any liquids, food, or medication, he or she must be
screened for the ability to swallow. Follow agency guidelines for
screening or use an evidence-based bedside swallowing screening tool to
determine if dysphagia is present. If dysphagia is present, develop a
plan of care to prevent aspiration and support nutrition.

175
Q

What is drug therapy for stroke?

A
Thrombolytics 
Anticoagulants 
Lorazepam (antiepileptics)
CCB=Hemmorahge 
Still softeners
Analgesics 
Antianxiety drugs
176
Q

What is the Nursing Safety Priority for stroke?

A

Be sure to support the affected flaccid arm of the stroke patient, and
teach UAP to avoid pulling on it. Position the arm on a pillow while the
patient is sitting to prevent it from hanging freely, which could cause
shoulder subluxation. The physical or occupational therapist provides a
sling-like device to support the arm during ambulation.

177
Q

What Are the Best Practices for Teaching Patients and Their Families about stroke?

A

• Be flexible and adapt to the health and learning needs of the patient
(e.g., aphasia is/is not present).
• Use multiple types of education materials (written, audiovisual,
interactive strategies).
• Focus on key points, and be repetitive; as many as five or six repetitions
are associated with retention.
• Group meetings may be beneficial to patient understanding,
motivation, and quality of life.
• Use reading materials with a low literacy level, large font type, and
short (15 minute) learning sessions.
• Identify sources of emotional support, encourage social support, and
locate community education groups for caregivers to enhance their
well-being.

178
Q

What are “halo” signs?

A

Leakages out of anywhere:
Clear? 4x4 in half and half again. Take center corner and touch to fluid, if it is CSF it will look like a “halo” with yello like substance in the middle and serosangounous fluid surrounding it.

179
Q

The expected outcomes are that the patient does what for a stroke?

A

• Maintains blood pressure and blood sugar within a safe, prescribed
range
• Performs self-care and mobility activities independently, with or without
assistive devices
• Learns to adapt to sensory perception changes
• Adjusts and uses techniques to compensate for one-sided neglect
• Communicates effectively or develops strategies for effective
communication
• Has adequate nutrition and avoids aspiration
• Controls elimination of urine and stool

180
Q

What are the eight core measures associated with stroke patients?

A
  1. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis
  2. Discharge with antithrombotic therapy
  3. Anticoagulation therapy for atrial fibrillation/flutter
  4. Thrombolytic therapy (in the presence of a thrombotic stroke of <4
    hours from symptom onset)
  5. Antithrombotic therapy is evaluated by end of hospital day (e.g.,
    diagnostic testing for therapeutic range of values following thrombolytic
    or anticoagulant therapy)
  6. Discharged on statin medication
  7. Stroke education provided and documented
  8. Assessed for rehabilitation
181
Q

What is a Traumatic brain injury?

A

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is damage to the brain from an external
mechanical force and not caused by neurodegenerative or congenital
conditions. TBI can lead to temporary and permanent impairment of
cognitive, physical, and psychosocial functions.

182
Q

What is the difference between direct/indirect and acceleration/deceleration?

A

A force produced by a blow to the head is a direct injury, whereas a force
applied to another body part with a rebound effect to the brain is an
indirect injurY.
An acceleration injury is caused by an external force
contacting the head, suddenly placing the head in motion. A deceleration
injury occurs when the moving head is suddenly stopped or hits a
stationary object.

183
Q

What is a Primary brain injury?

A
Primary brain damage occurs at the time of injury and results from the
physical stress (force) within the tissue caused by blunt force.
184
Q

What are the difference between open and closed brain injuries?

A

An
open traumatic brain injury occurs when the skull is fractured or when it
is pierced by a penetrating object. The integrity of the brain and the dura
is violated, and there is exposure to environmental contaminants.
Damage may occur to the underlying vessels, dural sinus, brain, and
cranial nerves. In a closed traumatic brain injury, the integrity of the
skull is not violated.

185
Q

What is a Mild Traumatic Brain Injury?

A

The terms mild traumatic brain injury (MTBI) and concussion are used
synonymously. MTBI is characterized by a
blow to the head, transient confusion or feeling dazed or disoriented,
and one or more of these conditions: (1) loss of consciousness for up to
30 minutes, (2) loss of memory for events immediately before or after the
accident, and (3)

186
Q

What is a Moderate Traumatic Brain Injury.?

A

A moderate TBI is characterized by a period of loss of consciousness
(LOC) for 30 minutes to 6 hours and a GCS score of 9 to 12. Often but not
always, focal or diffuse brain injury can be seen with a diagnostic CT or
MRI scan. Post-traumatic amnesia (memory loss) may last up to 24 hours.
Moderate TBI may occur with either closed or open brain injury. A short
acute or critical care stay may be needed for close monitoring and to
prevent secondary injury from brain edema, intracranial bleeding, or
inadequate cerebral perfusion.

187
Q

What is a Severe Traumatic Brain Injury?

A

A severe TBI is defined by a GCS score of 3 to 8 and loss of consciousness
for longer than 6 hours. Focal and diffuse damage to the brain,
cerebrovascular vessels, and/or ventricles are common. Both open and
closed head injuries can cause severe TBI, and injury can be focal or
diffuse. When the damage is present in a localized area of the brain, it is
usually extensive. CT and MRI scans can capture images of tissue
damage quite early in the course of this illness. Patients with severe TBI
require management in critical care, including monitoring of
hemodynamics, neurologic status, and possibly, intracranial pressure
(ICP). Patients with severe TBI are also at high risk for secondary brain
injury from cerebral edema, hemorrhage, reduced perfusion, and the
biomolecular cascade.

188
Q

What is an epidural hematoma?

A

An epidural hematoma results from arterial bleeding into the space
between the dura and the inner skull (Fig. 45-8). It is often caused by a
fracture of the temporal bone, which houses the middle meningeal artery.
Patients with epidural hematomas have “lucid intervals” that last for
minutes during which time the patient is awake and talking. This follows
a momentary unconsciousness that occurs within minutes of the injury.

189
Q

What is a subdural hematoma?

A

A subdural hematoma (SDH) results from venous bleeding into the
space beneath the dura and above the arachnoid (see Fig. 45-8). It occurs
most often from a tearing of the bridging veins within the cerebral
hemispheres or from a laceration of brain tissue. Bleeding from this injury
occurs more slowly than from an epidural hematoma.

190
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Hydrocephalus is an abnormal increase in CSF volume. It may be caused
by impaired reabsorption of CSF at the arachnoid villi (from
subarachnoid hemorrhage or meningitis), called a communicating
hydrocephalus. It may also be caused by interference or blockage with
CSF outflow from the ventricular system (from cerebral edema, tumor, or
debris). The ventricles may dilate from the relative increase in CSF
volume. Ultimately, if not treated, this increase may lead to increased ICP.

191
Q

What is a Brain Herniation?

A

In the presence of increased ICP, the brain tissue may shift and herniate
downward.
It is clinically manifested by Cheyne-Stokes respirations, pinpoint and nonreactive pupils, and
potential hemodynamic instability. All herniation syndromes are
potentially life threatening, and the physician must be notified
immediately when they are suspected.

192
Q

What are important Nursing Focus on the Older Adult things to know about TBI?

A

• Brain injury is the fifth leading cause of death in older adults.
• The 65- to 75-year age-group has second highest incidence of brain
injury of all age-groups.
• Falls and motor vehicle crashes are the most common causes of brain
injury.
• Factors that contribute to high mortality are:
Falls causing subdural hematomas (closed head injuries), especially
chronic subdural hematomas
Poorly tolerated systemic stress, which is increased by admission to a
high-stimuli environment
Medical complications, such as hypotension, hypertension, and
cardiac problems
Decreased protective mechanisms, which make patients susceptible
to infections (especially pneumonia)
Decreased immunologic competence, which is further diminished by
brain injury

193
Q

What are the differences between alert, drowsy, lethargy, stuporous, and comatose?

A

alert is a normal response. Drowsy generally indicates arousal by voice. Lethargy indicates that voice and light touch are used to obtain a client response. Stuporous is a deeper level of unresponsiveness that responds to more vigorous touch or tactile stimulation. Comatose indicates no response to painful or noxious stimuli.

194
Q

What are the differences between an MRI and a CT?

A

The MRI scan provides better contrast between normal tissue and pathologic tissue

195
Q

what is nursing management with a PET scan?

A

Fluid intake should be increased after the test because this helps to remove the radioisotope more quickly. Caffeine should be avoided for 24 hours before the test. The client is NPO for 4 to 12 hours before the test, and insulin is not given to diabetic clients before a PET scan. Tobacco should be withheld for 24 hours before PET.