Exam 4 Flashcards

(159 cards)

1
Q

In regards to bone composition, hydroxyapatite is overlaid on a ____ scaffold

A

Collagen 1

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2
Q

What percentage of bone is inorganic, what portion is organic?

A

67% inorganic

33% organic

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3
Q

Name 5 noncollagenous proteins found in bone. (Note that these are also found in dentin)

A

Bone sialoprotein

Osteopontin

Osteocalcin

Osteonectin

Matrix extracellular phosphoglycoprotein

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4
Q

Name four physiological roles of bone

A

Structural

Calcium homeostasis

Reservoir for growth factors in tissue repair

Contains both hematopoietic and mesenchymal progenitor cell populations

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5
Q

Describe the macrostructure of bone

A

Outer layer of dense compact (cortical) bone with an inner cavity

Inner cavity contains marrow (red or yellow) and cancellous (trabecular) bone

Bone is highly vascular, with a network of blood vessels.

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6
Q

What are the 3 organizational units of the macrostructure of compact bone?

A

Circumferential: outer ring of bone tissue

Concentric lamellae: intact osteons

Interstitial lamellae: fill space between concentric lamellae: former concentric lamellae

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7
Q

Why are interstitial lamellae half-circle in shape?

A

The bones are constantly being remodeled. Half-circle osteons are osteons that have diminished and are beginning to be replaced.

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8
Q

Osteons are formed around ____ canals

A

Haversian

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9
Q

Osteons are the basic functional units of compact bone. They form cylinders running ____ to the long axis of bone. They are formed from ____ lamellae. They are build around a canal called a ___.

A

Parallel

Concentric

Haversian canal

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10
Q

____ canals connect Haversian canals, linking osteons.

A

Volkmann

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11
Q

Cancellous bone is spongy bone, much less densely arranged than compact bone. Where is this bone found? What are its functions?

A

Found at the ends of long bones, in apposition to joints and is associated with the marrow spaces

Functions to provide structural support for marrow tissues and it is the site of blood cell production, also supports mesenchymal and hematopoietic progenitor cell populations

Note that this bone type is highly vascularized.

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12
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

Connective tissue layer attached to the outer layer surface of bone by sharpey’s fibers.

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13
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum?

A

Outer fibrous layer and inner layer in apposition to the bone surface. The inner layer is both highly cellular and vascularized.

Note that the inner layer is involved in growth and repair.

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14
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

Loose connective tissue covering the inner surface of both cancellous and compact bone.

Separates the marrow from the bone. Poorly defined histologically.

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15
Q

What are the three different types of bone cells? Describe them.

A

Osteoblasts: bone forming cells with a mesenchymal origin (form a premineralized matrix)

Osteocytes: bone cells, which are actually encapsulated osteoblasts

Osteoclasts: cells which break down tissue. Hematopoietic in origin.

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16
Q

Describe the origin of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

Osteoblasts: mesenchymal origin

Osteoclasts: hematopoietic origin (they are kinda like bone macrophages)

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17
Q

Osteoblasts are ___-nucleated cells which synthesize ___ matrix. They differentiate in response to a cascade of growth factors and play a role in both bone formation and repair. Osteoblasts do not form complexes, rather they communicate with one another through ___

A

Mono

Osteoid (unmineralized collagen matrix)

Gap junctions

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18
Q

How is the osteoid production of osteoblasts similar to odontoblasts?

A

The produce and secrete collagen and non collagenous proteins in vesicles

Also note that they secrete growth factors in osteoid matrix

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19
Q

After bone formation, osteoblasts flatten, forming ____ cells

A

Bone lining

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20
Q

What are the cells that are osteoblasts which are embedded into the bone matrix and are considered the terminal differentiation of osteoblasts?

A

Osteocytes

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21
Q

True or false… osteocytes form interconnected lacunae in the bone tissue. They have cellular processes which interact with surrounding bone tissue: mechano-transduction, coordination of odonto/osteoclast activity and possibly work in conjunction with bone lining cells

A

True

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22
Q

True or false… osteoclasts are mono nucleated cells that result from fusion of monocytes

A

False. Although they do result from the fusion of monocytes, they are multi-nucleated cells

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23
Q

Osteoclasts are responsible for the resorption of bone and are activated in inflammation by ___ and ___

A

IL-1b

TNF-a

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24
Q

What is TRAP and what is it used for? What are TRAP positive cells?

A

Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

It is a histological marker used to identify osteoclasts

TRAP positive cells are osteoclasts

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25
Describe how osteoclasts resorb bone.
Osteoclasts attach to the surface of bone by integrin, cytoplasm adjacent to surface is rich in talin, actin, and viniculin (helps form a tight seal). This creates a 'ruffled border' in apposition to bone to form resorption pits (Howship's lacunae) Within Howship's lacunae, osteoclasts secrete hydrogen ions and matrix degrading enzymes to demineralize bone. The bone matrix undergoes transcytosis through the osteoclast to be released through the opposite side
26
What is lamina limitans?
It is the zone between Howship's lacunae and intact bone. (This is the surface where bone is being degraded by the stuff released from osteoclasts)
27
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are supplied by ___ cell populations, then differentiate in response to signaling cascades. Bone cell recruitment also results from trigging by ___, ___, and ____.
Progenitor Tissue damage Inflammation Repair signals
28
Bone formation is controlled by complex interactions between osteoblasts and osteoclasts through a balance of synthetic and resorptive signals. Osteoblasts regulate osteoclast function through the ____ system. Describe this system.
RANK-RANKL-OPG RANKL- receptor activated nuclear factor kb ligand: osteoblasts RANK - receptor activated nuclear factor kb: osteoclasts OPG - osteoprotegerin: produced by osteoblasts, binds RANKL If RANKL (osteoblasts) binds to RANK (osteoclasts), resorption occurs. If osteoblasts secrete OPG, it binds to RANKL to prevent binding of RANKL to RANK, thus preventing resorption.
29
In endochondral formation, bone is formed on a ___ cartilage pattern. It causes ___ cells to condense into ____. When collagen is secreted, it mineralizes and is broken down by ____, allowing penetration of vasculature.
Hyaline Mesenchymal Chondrocytes Chondroclasts
30
In endochondral formation, once vasculature is formed, ___ cells come which differentiate into ___.
Mesenchymal Osteoblasts
31
In endochondral formation, bone matrix surrounds remaining mineralized collagen, forming ____ which make up the ____
Mixed spicules Primary spongiosa
32
In endochondral ossification, osteoclasts gradually remove mineralized cartilage to develop the inner ____. Also, secondary growth centers form in the ___ of some long bones.
Marrow cavity Epiphyses
33
In intramembranous ossification, mesenchymal cells condense in ____, differentiating into ___ and forming an ossification center. ___ is secreted into the connective tissue matrix and is penetrated by ____, which results of rapid formation of mineralized woven bone. Woven bone is remodeled into mature ___ bone with a collar of cortical bone around it.
Fibrous connective tissue Osteoblasts Osteoid Blood vessels Trabecular
34
Sutural bone growth is effectively the fusion of skull plates. Sutures are ___ bands between the plates. Inner ___ layer, associated with the ___ ,meets with the outer ___ layer to join the sutures together. The advantage to sutures is that it gives flex to the skull as bone formation proceeds. (Ultimately the sutures are replaced with bone)
Fibrous connective tissue Cambian Periosteum Capsular
35
Bone is continually destroyed and reformed. Children turnover ~___% of their bone per year whereas adults turn over ___% of cortical and ___% trabecular per year
30-100 5 15
36
Most bone is deposited around the ____ and resorbed from the ____. This allows the marrow cavity to grow in size
Periosteum (outside) Endosteum (inside)
37
Describe the bone remodeling and repair of cortical bone
Primary osteons are replaced by secondary osteons which are replaced by tertiary osteons, allowing bone growth
38
What are the 4 general phases of tissue repair?
Hemostasis: clot formation Inflammation: infiltration of immune cells and initiation of repair Reparative phase (proliferation): migration of cells, formation of granulation tissue Wound contraction and scarring
39
What is hemostasis? What are its primary and secondary goals?
Hemostasis transition of blood from a liquid to a fibrillar gel Primary goal: stop the bleeding Secondary goal: initiation of healing
40
In hemostasis, what leads to the coagulation cascade? Clot unites edges of wound, and the ___ provides a scaffold for future cell migration and repair
Disruption of platelets Fibrin
41
The clot formed in the oral cavity is different than in other parts of the body. How?
It is softer and more easily detached
42
What is primary hemostasis?
Vascular constriction and initial platelet plug in a damaged blood vessel
43
How is primary hemostasis initiated?
Exposure of collagen in 'subendothelium' (normally separate from the lumen) to circulate Von Wilebrand Factor
44
What does Von willebrand factor do in primary hemostasis?
Von wilebrand factor causes platelet aggregation by interacting with platelet surface proteins Note that platelets can also bind collagen directly via GPVI and a2b2 integrin
45
Platelets activate and dump out tons of preformed cytoplasmic vesicles containing ___, ___, ___, and platelet agonists ___ and ___. ___ anchors platelets together
More Von willebrand factor Fibrinogen Coagulation factors V and XIII Serotonin ADP Fibrinogen
46
What does fibrinogen do?
Anchors platelets together
47
True or false... secondary hemostasis always occurs after primary hemostasis
False.. it may occur simultaneously with primary hemostasis or just after
48
Secondary hemostasis (blood coagulation) is a fairly complex cascade involving extrinsic and intrinsic pathways. Describe each of these pathways
Extrinsic: involved tissue factors which are. Not normally found in blood. factor VII and tissue factor interactions (found around(or on) fibroblasts), initiate the cascade. Intrinsic: involves factors found in the blood. initiated by damaged endothelium (collagen exposure)
49
The ultimate goal of secondary hemostasis is to convert ___ into ___ which in turn converts soluble ___ into insoluble ___. Many of the steps involved in secondary hemostasis involve ___.
Prothrombin into thrombin Fibrinogen into fibrin Calcium Fibrin cross-links to form a mesh, trapping red and white cells, resulting in a clot.
50
Which, the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation involves factor VIII?
Intrinsic
51
In the reparative phase of hemostasis, ____ of adjacent cells occurs (epithelium). This will allow epithelial cell migration, which is... Cell migration under fibrin clot occurs which creates a highly cellular ___ tissue
Mobilization Epithelial cell migration: formation of new basal lamina, redistribution of integrin receptors, and formation of new hemidesmosomes. Eventually this forms a thin cover over the wound Granulation
52
In the reparative phase, local and recruited ____proliferate in the wound. ___ production begins to fill the defect, forming a scaffold.
Fibroblasts Collagen
53
In the reparative phase, endothelial cells proliferate and angiogenesis occurs. This occurs due to what three signaling factors?
TGF-b VEGF FGF-2
54
What are myofibroblasts? What are they involved in?
They are specialized fibroblasts with increased actin and myosin that function to close the wound They align around wound, form cell junctions, and attach to connective tissue fibril around wound and draw wound edges together
55
True or false... generally, there is no scarring of oral mucosa
True. But no one really knows why
56
In periodontal disease bacteria induce inflammation at gingival margins, causing destruction of connective tissues. The formation of pocket epithelium occurs due to...
Apical migration of junctional epithelium
57
___ can arrest the spread of infection into periodontal tissues
Fibrosis
58
If the source of inflammation in periodontal disease is removed, the ___ stimulates reattachment of connective tissues
Fibrin clot
59
Pockets of about __mm or less can regain attachment
5
60
True or false... the repair mechanism of the PDL is basically the same as skin
True, however immediate remodeling of collagen by ligament fibroblasts = no scarring
61
In guided tissue regeneration, what is the purpose of using a membrane?
To prevent epithelial invasion, to allow connective tissue reattachment
62
What are the three primary zones of dental caries?
1) surface and body: surface zone re-mineralizes, body is the primary zone of demineralization 2) dark zone: zone of increasing demineralization 3) translucent zone: leading edge, caused by micro-pores which form in the enamel rod boundaries. Note that caries are dynamic: continual de-mineralization and re-mineralization, but a net loss of demineralization
63
Reactionary dentin is formed due to a ___ stimulus while reparative dentin is formed due to a ___ stimulus
Mild Strong
64
What is the dentin bridge?
Dentin formed between surviving dentin and restorative material, providing a tighter seal and preventing micro-leakage
65
What is the goal of tissue engineering? What are the 3 key components in tissue engineering?
Encourage the restoration of function and structure to a pre-injury state Cell source Material Bioactive component
66
Fibrous joins generally permit very little movement. Name there locations in which fibrous joints are found
Sutures (skull) Tooth socket (gomphosis) Syndesmosis: immovable connective tissue holding bones together (tibia and fibula)
67
Cartilaginous joints, permit very little movement. Name two types of cartilaginous joints
Primary cartilaginous joints (synchondroses): bone and cartilage in direct apposition (sternocostal junction) Secondary cartilaginous joints (symphysis): fibrous tissue internally in the joint
68
What are synovial joints?
Allow movement Consist of capsule filed with synovial fluid in a synovial membrane Movement of bones relative to one another facilitated by muscle, takes place within a capsule
69
What kind of a joint is the TMJ?
Synovial sliding-ginglymoid joint
70
The TMJ articulation is composed of the ____ of the mandible and the ____ of the ___ bone of the skull.
Condyle Glenoid fossa Temporal
71
The anterior boundary of the glenoid fossa is the ____ which allows the condyle to slide over in front of it when the jaw opens
Articulator eminence This allows the condyle to rotate and translate in various ways
72
The synovial cavity is divided into two compartments by the ____, forming an upper joint cavity adjacent to the ____, and a lower joint cavity adjacent to the ___
Articular disk Glenoid fossa Condyle
73
Why is the articular disk not considered a distinct structure?
It is effectively an extension of the synovial capsule. The disk runs between two bones, but then flares outwards in sheets, attaching to both the condyle and glenoid fossa, enveloping the joint.
74
The mandible forms by ___ ossification and is associated with ___
Intramembranous Meckel's cartilage
75
Meckel's cartilage forms the ___ directly and articulates with the ___. This actually forms a ____, before the development of the condyle and temporal joint. The articulation between the temporal bone forms the TMJ or ___
Malleus Incus Primary joint (fetus TMJ) Secondary joint
76
The articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered with ___ as opposed to ___
Fibrous connective tissue Hyaline cartilage
77
What is the lamina splendens?
The fibrous covering of the condyle. It is mostly avascular and is composed of type 1 cartilage with smattering of fibroblasts scattered around.
78
Which has a thicker fibrous layer on the surface, the glenoid fossa or articular eminence? Why?
The articular eminence is overlaid by a much thicker fibrous layer because the condyle slides over the articular eminence a lot, while the glenoid fossa simply allows the condyle to rest in place
79
True or false... while there is not cartilage associated with the articular surfaces of the joint proper, some is found deeper into the condyle and articular eminence. These layers of cartilage have a proliferative layer of chondroclasts which secrete ECM containing type 2 collagen
True
80
Once the chondroblasts are entombed, they form ____ which undergo partial ___ ossification, leaving only a bit of fibrocartilage. Typically the ___ ossifies before the ___
Hypertrophic condrocytes Endochondral Articular eminence Condyle
81
For the most part, the mandible is formed by ___ ossification, but the condyle is also formed by ___ ossification. Why is this significant?
Intramembranous Endochondral This is significant because it allows possible remodeling of the joint during growth to accommodate wear or various pathologies
82
True or false.. in the TMJ the hypertrophic zone of cartilage calcifies overtime to be replaced by bone
True
83
The joint capsule has thickened regions which branch out to form the ____ which is the most important for restricting ___ and ___ movement when the joint articulates.
Temporomandibular ligament Lateral Medial
84
The temporomandibular ligament restricts movement in what three planes?
Medial-lateral Superior-inferior Posteriorly
85
Name two other ligaments associated with limiting inferior movement of the TMJ during opening
Sphenomandibular ligament Stylomandibular ligament
86
True or false.. the articular disk is totally continuous with the joint capsule. It is simply an inward branch of it
True
87
The articular disk is a dense ___ structure, and forms a surface for the head of the condyle to slide along when the jaw opens. A ___ fiber network overlays fibroblasts cells
Fibrous Collagen
88
The articular disk is bound very tightly to the surface of the ___, matching the contour of its surface
Condyle
89
The articular disk is thicker ___ and ___, leaving the condyle to rest on the thinner ___ section when the jaw is closed
Anteriorly Posteriorly Middle
90
True or false... the inner portion of the articular disk is avascular and has no nerves
True
91
The joint capsule is lined by the ___ and contains a number of folds which form villi projecting into the joint cavity
Synovial membrane
92
What are the two layers of the synovial membrane?
Subintima: layer of loose connective tissue containing elastin fibers and supporting vasculature. It contains various cells including macrophages, adipocytes, fibroblasts, and mast cells. It is continous with the fibrous tissue of the capsule Intima: innermost layer. Contains several layers of synovial cells which are A cells (resemble macrophages) or B cells (resemble fibroblasts, producing proteins found in the synovial fluid)
93
What is synovial fluid?
Blood plasma containing extra proteins and proteoglycans
94
What are the four muscles of mastication?
Masseter Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Temporalis
95
True or false.. salivary glands can be found in the gingiva
False
96
Name three functions of oral mucosa
Protection: separates and protects deeper tissue and organs from oral environment Sensation: temperature, touch, pain, taste. Reflexes such as swallowing and gagging Secretion: saliva
97
The two layers that make up mucosa are the epithelium and lamina propria. What type of epithelium is found in oral mucosa? What is the tissue called that underlies the epithelium?
Stratified squamous epithelium Lamina propria
98
What four things does the oral mucosa line?
Oral cavity Palate Tongue Alveolar bone (It lines all oral surfaces except for the teeth)
99
What are the three variations of keratinaztion in the oral mucosa?
Nonkeratinized Orthokeratinized (no nuclei on surface layer) Parakeratinized (some nuclei on surface layer)
100
What are the two layers that make up the lamina propria?
Papillary Reticular
101
Complete lack of stratum granulosum indicates it is __-keratinized. A weak stratum granulosum indicates it is __-keratinized. A well defined granulosum indicates it is ___-keratinized
Non Para Ortho
102
Name three structures found in the oral mucosa
Prominent basal lamina separating epithelium and lamina propria Keratohyaline granules Virtual lack of langerhans cells (making the mucosa susceptible to potential allergies)
103
What is the function of the lamina propria? Describe its two layers.
Functions as mechanical support to the epithelium and carries blood vessels and nerves Papillary layer - directly under epithelium, loose CT (more cells) Reticular layer - dense CT fibrous layer located under papillary layer
104
The oral mucosa of the __- has a thinner lamina propria than the outer surface of the ___
Cheek Lip
105
The ___ mucosa has the thinnest epithelium of the oral cavity, making it great for drug delivery
Sublingual
106
___ mucosa has small rete pegs whereas the ____ has tall rete pegs
Alveolar Gingiva
107
Name 6 locations in which you will find lining oral mucosa (non-keratinized)
Lips Cheeks Floor of mouth Alveolar mucosa Soft palate Ventral tongue
108
Name two locations in which you will find masticatory mucosa (keratinized)
Gingiva Hard palate (Dorsal tongue is considered both masticatory and specialized mucosa)
109
What is the mucocutaneous junction? What are three zones associated with it?
A transition area between the skin and the oral mucosa Vermillion border - line separating vermillion zone and skin Vermillion zone - thin, keratinized epithelium. Long CT papillae. Numerous capillary loops in papillae Intermediate zone - between vermillion zone and labial mucosa. Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
110
True or false.. sulcular epithelium has well defined rete pegs and is keratinized
False. Sulcular epithelium lining the gingival sulcus is nonkeratinized, thinner, and lacks prominent rete pegs. This explains why it bleeds so easily
111
What are the boundaries of the attached gingiva?
Free gingival groove (coronally) to the mucogingival junction (apically)
112
Describe the tissue found in the col.
The col is a depression located in the center of the interdental papilla. It is nonkeratinized*** stratified squamous epithelium
113
True or false... when the gingiva is inflamed, the col appears to have a greater concavity
True
114
What is the structure called that is a ridge that runs through the midline of the hard palate?
Palatine raphe
115
Where are the fatty areas found in the hard palate?
Posterior lateral of the hard palate Also anterior lateral area
116
What is the mucoperiosteum?
Lamina propria attached directly to the underlying bone. No submucosa
117
True or false... rugae of the anterior hard palate can cross the median raphe.
False
118
The incisive papilla is made up of dense CT and is remnant of the _____
Nasopalatine ducts
119
Where are the minor salivary glands found in the hard palate?
Posterolateral
120
What are the four different papillae of the tongue? Describe them
Filiform - most numerous, no taste buds, cover entire dorsal tongue Fungiform - mushroom shaped, scattered over anterior tongue, taste buds found on dorsal surface of papillae Folate - located on posteriolateral border. Parallel ridges with furrows. Taste buds located within furrows. Circumvallate - largest in size. Located along sulcus terminalis. Surrounded by a trench (Von ebner's glands). Taste buds located on lateral surface of papilla
121
How many different types of sensory cells are found within taste buds?
4
122
What is the dentogingival junction and what are its two components?
Junction between attached gingiva and tooth Two components: junctional epithelium and epithelial attachement
123
What is the junctional epithelium?
Forms floor of gingival sulcus Extends apically along root to form a seal Derived from REE Unique characteristics
124
What is the epithelial attachment?
Its the "glue" Basal lamina-like material Enamel cuticle from protective ameloblasts Hemidesmosomes in junctional epithelium attach to this structure
125
What two locations of gingiva is non-keratinized?
Col Junctional epithelium
126
True or false... the inner lining of the gingival sulcus is structurally different than the junctional epithelium
True
127
True or false... rete pegs in the sulcus indicate health
False!! Healthy sulcus should NOT have rete pegs. Rete pegs indicate inflammation
128
How are cells of the sulcular epithelium joined together?
Desmosomes
129
True or false... the connective tissue supporting the junctional epithelium is different than that under gingiva and sulcular epithelium
True This difference allows junctional epithelium to maintain hemidesmosomes on both surfaces
130
Gingival and sulcular epithelium mature due to ___, ___ influences
Superficial, instructive
131
Junctional epithelium does not mature because of the ___, ___ influences
Deeper, permissive This allows hemidesmosomes to be maintained on BOTH surfaces of the epithelium
132
True or false... in the gingival epithelium, it is NOT supported by CT, thus does not contain inflammatory cells. However, the sulcular and JE IS supported by CT and contains inflammatory cells
True
133
The JE is unable to proliferate without ____ cells. Recruitment of these cells and proliferation results in __ migration of the epithelium to cause ____
Inflammatory Apical Periodontal pocket formation and recession of attachment level
134
Impetigo is typically caused by what two pathogens?
Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes
135
What pathogens cause tonsillitis and pharyngitis?
Majority caused by viruses Group a beta-hemolytic streptococci, influenza, Epstein Barr virus
136
What are the signs and symptoms of tonsillitis and pharyngitis ?
Sore throat Dysphagia Tonsillar hyperplasia Fever, headache, others.
137
What is the best way to diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis? What is its treatment? What are its sequelae (what could happen if you dont treat it)?
Throat culture Penicillin Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever (rheumatic heart disease and acute glomerulonephritis)
138
What causes scarlet fever? What are its oral features?
Disseminated Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection Oral features: first two days: white strawberry tongue. 4-5 days - red strawberry tongue with hyper plastic fungiform papillae
139
Diphtheria is caused by ____. ___ are the sole reservoir. It affects ___ tissues first. It causes tissue ___ and ___ complications due to a lethal exotoxin produced by the bacteria
Corynebacterium diphtheriae Humans Mucosal Necrosis Cardiac
140
What is a chanker?
Inoculation site of syphilis
141
True or false... syphilis ulcers are typically nonpainful
True
142
Syphilis is caused by ____ primarily through __ contact and from mother to fetus. It is 6x more common in ___ and ____.
Treponema pallidum (its a spirochete) Sexual Men and American americans
143
Chancres are associated with ___ syphilis and develop ___ days after inoculation.
Primary 3-90
144
What is gumma?
Characteristic; scattered foci of granulomatous inflammation (its a type of necrosis) Intraoral lesions usually affect the palate or tongue
145
Gonorrhea is caused by ____ due to ___ contact. What are its signs and symptoms?
Neisseria gonnorhoeae Sexual Purulent discharge, dysuria
146
What is a scrofula? What causes it?
Lymphadenopathy of the neck Usually a result of mycobacterium
147
Multibacillary leprosy can cause collapse of the ___
Bridge of the nose
148
Leprosy is caused by ___. It has __ infectivity.
Mycobacterium leprae Low
149
What are the first symptoms of leprosy? What are some symptoms as the disease progresses?
First symptoms: numbness and loss of temperature sensation As the disease progresses: the sensations of touch and pain and deep pressure are decreased or lost
150
What is a host for leprosy?
Armadillos This is why Texas is an endemic area
151
Actinomycosis is caused by ___. Colonization can occur in ___ patients. ___% of cases of actinomycosis are diagnosed in the ___ region. The treatment is ____
Actinomyces israelii Healthy patients 55 Cervicofacial Long-term, high dose antibiotics
152
Actinomycosis results in a ____ reaction of infection which may result in a discharge of ___ material. This represents colonies of bacteria termed ____
Suppurative Yellow Sulfur granules
153
What is the histopathology of actinomyces?
Club-shaped filaments that form a radiating pattern and are surrounded by neutrophils
154
Cat-scratch disease is caused by ____. It begins in the ___ and classically spreads to adjacent ___. It is the most common cause of chronic regional ___ in children. 80% of cases occur in patients younger than ___
Bartonella henselae Skin Lymph nodes Lymphadenopathy 21
155
Candidiasis is caused by ___. It is considered ___ because it exists in two forms: ___ form which is ___, and ___ form which causes ___
Candida albicans Dimorphic Yeast - innocuous Hypha - invasion of host tissue
156
What is by far the most common oral fungal infection in human? Up to ___% carry the organism in their mouth with health (rate ___ with age).
Candida albicans 50 Increases Note that mostly opportunistic pathogen, but infections may still develop in healthy patients
157
Aspergillosis noninvasive affects a normal host because it can cause an ___ reaction due to ___
Allergic Mass of fungal hyphae
158
Localized invasive aspergillosis can occur in a ___ host while extensive involvement with a ____ host
Normal healthy Immunocompromised
159
What is the second most common fungal infection to candidiasis? What are the two most common species?
Aspergillosis A. Fumigatus A. Flavus