Exam 4- Ch. 12,13,14 Flashcards
(118 cards)
1
Q
A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress
B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did
C. check the drug’s expiration date to ensure that it is still current
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication
A
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
2
Q
Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):
A. elixir
B. suspension
C. gel
D. solution
A
B. suspension
3
Q
Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:
A
ibuprofen
4
Q
After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):
A. untoward effect
B. therapeutic effect
C. unpredictable effect
D. side effect
A
D. side effect
5
Q
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.
A. peer-assisted
B. paramedic-administered
C. patient-assisted
D. EMT-administered
A
A. peer-assisted
6
Q
Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:
A
capsules
7
Q
The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:
A
adsorption
8
Q
Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error?
A. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated
B. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director
D. The EMT administers the correct drug but gives it by the wrong route.
A
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director
8
Q
Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone?
A. Slow respirations
B. Hypertension
C. Extreme agitation
D. Tachycardia
A
A. Slow respirations
8
Q
Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose?
A. Females
B. Pediatrics
C. Middle adults
D. Patients with asthma
A
B. Pediatrics
8
Q
What is the fastest route of administration?
A
Intravenous or Intraosseous
9
Q
Tylenol is an example of what?
A.Official name
B.Generic name
C.Trade name
D.Chemical name
A
C.Trade name
10
Q
You are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. What would anxiety be considered?
A. Indication
B. Intended effect
C. Side effect
D. Contraindication
A
A. Indication
11
Q
The process by which a medication works on the body is called what?
A
Pharmacodynamics
12
Q
Why should you not use an oral route to deliver medication in a patient with an altered LOC?
A. There is a potential for airway compromise
B. The patient will likely be combative so an oral route will be difficult
C. It takes too long for medicine to be delivered using the oral route
D. The medication will not work as intended in a patient with altered LOC
A
A. There is a potential for airway compromise
13
Q
A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:
A. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.
B. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.
C. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.
D. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.
A
C. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.
14
Q
Pharmacology is known as what?
A
The science of drugs
15
Q
A medication that causes stimulation of receptors is called an _______.
A
agonist
16
Q
Pharmacokinetics is…
A
actions of the body upon the medication
17
Q
The _____ is the point or period when the maximum clinical effect is achieved
A
peak
18
Q
What are adverse effects?
A
any actions of a medication other than the desired ones
19
Q
What are unintended effects?
A
undesirable but pose little risk to the patient
20
Q
What are untoward effects?
A
can be harmful to the patient
21
Q
The ______ name is the original chemical name of a medication
A
generic
22
A _____ name is the brand name that the manufacturer gives to a medication
trade
23
Enteral medications enter the body through the _________ system
digestive
24
_________ medications enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract
Parenteral
25
What does PR stand for?
per rectum
26
IO is what?
intraosseous; into the bone
27
What does it mean if a medication is given subcutaneously?
it is given under the skin
28
What does MAD stand for and what does it do?
Mucosal atomizer device; a specialized device where liquid medication is pushed through for intranasal use
29
What is the rate of absorption for SL?
rapid
30
What is the rate of absorption for PR?
rapid
31
What is the rate of absorption for PO?
slow
32
What routes of administration are immediate?
IV and IO
33
Inhalation and IN are both ________ routes and have a _____ rate.
parenteral; rapid
34
IM means ____________ and has a ________ absorption rate
Intramuscular; moderate
35
Subcutaneous and transcutaneous have a _____ absorption rate
slow
36
What is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand?
A. suspension
B. solution
C. homogenous mixture
D. capsule
B. solution
37
What is a suspension?
A mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve (ex. tylenol)
38
A medication that is only applied to the surface of the skin and only to the affected area is called a:
A. transcutaneous medication
B. lotion
C. topical medications
D. ointments
C. topical medications `
39
What is the difference between transcutaneous and subcutaneous?
Transcutaneous is through the skin and subcutaneous is under the skin
40
Brain damage is likely in...
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 2-4 minutes
C. 4-6 minutes
D. 6-10 minutes
D. 6-10 minutes
41
Brain damage is possible in...
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 2-4 minutes
C. 4-6 minutes
D. 6-10 minutes
C. 4-6 minutes
42
What do blood vessels do in septic shock? What does this do to the patients blood pressure?
The blood vessels dilate causing low blood pressure
43
Distributive shock typically causes a _____ blood pressure and a _____ heart rate.
low; high
44
What is the most important thing to look for when doing BVM ventilations?
Equal chest rise and fall
45
True or false: a solution separates
False; a solution does not separate, a suspension does
46
In decompensated shock, what do the patient's vitals do?
A. normal
B. Go up
C. Go down
D. Heart rate is up, blood pressure is down
C. Go down
47
Which is not a definitive sign of death?
A. Algor mortis
B. Putrefaction
C. Fixed and dilated pupils
D. Cyanosis
D. Cyanosis
48
Cardiogenic shock has to do with what part of the perfusion triangle?
The pump/heart
49
The _____, ________, and __________ are the 3 parts of the perfusion triangle
pump, container (blood vessels), and contents (blood)
50
What happens to the blood flow in obstructive shock?
The blood flow to and from the heart is obstructed causing decreased cardiac output
51
What happens to the blood flow in distributive shock?
The vasodilation leads to decreased blood flow and fluid leaks from the capillaries to surrounding tissues
52
Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of compensated shock?
A. Anxiety
B. Feeling of impending doom
C. Shallow, rapid breathing
D. Altered LOC
D. Altered LOC
53
Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of decompensated shock?
A. Falling BP
B. Irregular breathing
C. Nausea/vomiting
D. Ashen skin
C. Nausea/vomiting
54
What are three examples of obstructive shock?
Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism
55
What is a tension pneumothorax?
Accumulation of air in the pleural space under pressure, compressing the lungs and decreasing venous return to the heart; collapsed lung
56
What is a cardiac tamponade?
Abnormal amounts of fluid accumulate in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and leading to a decrease in cardiac output and shock
57
What does the paramedic do in the case of a tension pneumothorax?
Decompression needle
58
What is a pulmonary embolism?
A sudden blockage in your pulmonary arteries
59
What is a potential cause to neurogenic shock?
Damaged cervical spine
60
Hypovolemic shock is caused when?
Loss of blood or fluid
61
What are the four most common types of distributive shock?
Septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, and psychogenic
62
Syncope means what?
Fainting
63
Septic shock is affects what side of the perfusion triangle?
Container (blood vessels)
64
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. she has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance of survival?
A. intravenous fluid administration
B. high-flow oxygen administration
C. full immobilization of her spine
D. rapid transport to a trauma center
D. rapid transport to a trauma center
65
Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes:
A. psychogenic shock
B. vasovagal shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. psychogenic shock
D. psychogenic shock
66
What is typically the last measurable factor to change in shock?
A. heart rate
B. blood pressure
C. respirations
D. skin
B. blood pressure
67
A 70 year-old female was recently discharge from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm HG. her skin is hot and moist. You should be most suspicious that she is experiencing:
A. decompensated shock
B. a local infection
C. septic shock
D. pump failure
C. septic shock
68
All of the following conditions should make you suspect shocked, EXCEPT:
A. severe infection
B. anaphylaxis
C. ischemic stroke
D. Spinal injury
C. ischemic stroke
69
Capillary sphincters are:
A. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries
B. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system
C. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs
D. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion
A. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries
70
What is an edema?
Puffiness caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues
71
To protect vital organs, the body compensated by directing blood flow away from the organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as
A. the brain
B. the heart
C. the skin
D. the lungs
C. the skin
72
What is the first step to operating an AED
Turn it on
73
What should you do if your patient stops breathing, but still has a pulse?
Give rescue breaths (1 every 6 seconds)
74
Rescue breaths contain __% oxygen
17%
75
What is the compression:ventilation ratio in an adult patient?
30:2
76
How long should you stay off the chest during CPR?
<10 seconds
77
During CPR ventilations each breath should be delivered over how many seconds?
1 second
78
How do you check for responsiveness?
AVPU
79
What are the rhythms the AED looks and shocks for?
v-tach and v-fib
80
You have a patient who drowned and needs CPR. What should you do in regards to an AED?
A. Use it like normal
B. Dry patient off before using the AED on them
C. Get patient completely out of water and dry the chest off
D. Never use an AED on drowned patients
C. Get patient completely out of water and dry the chest off
81
If you have an advanced airway in place you should perform __________ CPR
continual
82
With an advanced airway in place during CPR 1 breath should be deliver every __-__ seconds for pediatrics and every __ seconds for adults
2-3 for peds
6 for adults
83
The EC method is used with what?
BVM ventilations
84
The normal adult can hold how many mL of air in their lungs?
500 mL
85
In 2-rescuer CPR, when should roles be switched?
Every 5 cycles or 2 minutes
86
What is ROSC?
Return of spontaneous circulation
87
What is the compression:ventilation ratio in pediatric CPR?
1-rescuer: 30:2
2- rescuer: 15:2
88
If you are performing CPR on a pregnant patient what should be done?
The belly should be pushed up and to the left so the baby allows for better circulation
89
What does CCF stand for?
Chest compression fraction; time that is spent doing compressions
90
What are the 2 techniques that can be used for infant CPR?
thumb-encircling and 2-finger
91
What depth should compressions reach for children/infant CPR?
1/3 depth of chest
92
If your patient is breathing adequately on their own and has no signs of injury to the spine, hip, or pelvis, what position should you lay them in?
A. Semi-fowler
B. Fowler
C. Recovery
D. Any of the above
C. Recovery
93
If you suspect a spinal injury how should you open up the airway?
Jaw-thrust
94
The stomach being filled with air during ventilations is called what?
Gastric distention
95
What is Active compression-decompression CPR?
A. A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band or backboard
B. A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard
C. A valve device placed between the ET tube and a BVM, designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase
D. A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position
D. A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position
96
What is an impedance threshold device (ITD)?
A. A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band or backboard
B. A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard
C. A valve device placed between the ET tube and a BVM, designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase
D. A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position
C. A valve device placed between the ET tube and a BVM, designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase
97
What is a load distributing band?
A. A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band or backboard
B. A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard
C. A valve device placed between the ET tube and a BVM, designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase
D. A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position
A. A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band or backboard
98
What is a mechanical piston device?
A. A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band or backboard
B. A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard
C. A valve device placed between the ET tube and a BVM, designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase
D. A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position
B. A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard (Lucas)
99
What is ischemia?
A lack of oxygen (especially heart muscles)
100
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:-
A. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated
B. start CPR and transport immediately
C. begin CPR until an AED is available
D. determine if he has a valid living will.
C. begin CPR until an AED is available
101
You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should
a. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives
b. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.
c. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1.
d. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions
b. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.
102
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
A. severe chest trauma.
B. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.
C. respiratory arrest.
103
How deep should chest compressions go on an adult patient?
At least 2 inches
104
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
A. wrap the towel with pressure bandage
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
D. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
105
Which of the following statements regarding medications is FALSE?
A. Many medications are known by different names.
B. Some medications affect more than one body system.
C. Over-the-counter drugs must be prescribed by a physician.
D. EMTs should ask about any herbal remedies or vitamins that the patient may be
taking.
C. Over-the-counter drugs must be prescribed by a physician.
106
You are managing a 62-year-old woman who complains of crushing chest pain.
Her blood pressure is 84/64 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. Medical
control advises you to assist her in taking her prescribed nitroglycerin. After
receiving this order, you should:
A. reassess the patient’s heart rate and then assist with the nitroglycerin.
B. repeat the patient’s blood pressure to the physician and confirm the order.
C. wait 10 minutes, reassess the blood pressure, and then give the nitroglycerin.
D. administer the nitroglycerin to the patient and then reassess her blood pressure.
B. repeat the patient’s blood pressure to the physician and confirm the order.
107
Activated charcoal is indicated for patients who have ingested certain drugs
and toxins because it:
A. acts as a direct reversal agent for most medications.
B. induces vomiting before the chemical can be digested.
C. detoxifies the drug before it can cause harm to the patient.
D. binds to chemicals in the stomach and delays absorption.
D. binds to chemicals in the stomach and delays absorption
108
Epinephrine is given to patients with anaphylactic shock because of its
effects of:
A. bronchodilation and vasodilation.
B. bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
C. vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.
D. bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction.
B. bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
109
The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they
reach the bloodstream is called:
A. adsorption.
B. onset of action.
C. absorption.
D. transformation.
C. absorption.
110
The term “shock” is MOST accurately defined as:
A. a decreased supply of oxygen to the brain.
B. cardiovascular collapse leading to inadequate perfusion.
C. decreased circulation of blood within the venous circulation.
D. decreased function of the respiratory system leading to hypoxia.
B. cardiovascular collapse leading to inadequate perfusion.
111
Anaphylactic shock is typically associated with:
A. urticaria.
B. bradycardia.
C. localized welts.
D. a severe headache.
A. urticaria.
112
A 60-year-old woman presents with a BP of 80/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of
110 beats/min, mottled skin, and a temperature of 103.9°F. She is MOST
likely experiencing:
A. septic shock.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. profound heart failure.
D. a severe viral infection.
A. septic shock.
113
A patient with neurogenic shock would be LEAST likely to present with:
A. tachypnea.
B. hypotension.
C. tachycardia.
D. altered mentation.
C. tachycardia.
114
Which of the following sequences of events describes the AHA chain of
survival?
A. Early access, integrated post-arrest care, early advanced care, early CPR, early
defibrillation, recovery
B. Early advanced care, early defibrillation, integrated post-arrest care, early CPR,
early access
C. Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated
post-arrest care, recovery
D: Early access, early riser, early CPR, early advanced care
C. Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated
post-arrest care, recovery
115
How long should the pulse check take?
At least 5 minutes, but no more than 10
