Exam 4/ Final Flashcards

1
Q

How do cells become cancerous?

A

Cancer begins when normal cells replicate in an uncontrolled manner. Cancer is more common in the older population due to their long life filled with replicative stress, toxins, infections, radiation, and more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between a benign and malignant tumor?

A

A benign tumor has not left its original location of replication. These are easy to treat. Malignant tumors have broken from their original location and have spread. Hard to treat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an ‘in situ’ lesion?

A

When cells replicate in an uncontrolled manner, they form ‘in situ’ lesions that can be removed before they become invasive. These are common in the mouth, GIT, skin, and breasts. These lesions are the precursor for invasive carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cancer is defined by what two things?

A
  1. Gain of proliferation signals
  2. Loss of cell death pathways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are cancer and EGFR related?

A

EGFR can undergo genetic changes (in the lungs), allowing it to be amplified. When the gene is amplified, more receptors are produced, which allows cell growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the main target of cancer chemotherapy?

A

Different phases of the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What protein is secreted in cells during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

A

Ki-67 protein is turned on during S-phase. It can be stained and will bind brown dye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does High S-Phase Fraction mean?

A

This means that several cells are staining brown, identifying Ki-67. It can help indicate tumor severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what stage of life does your body have the largest number of cells in the S-phase?

A

We have a high proportion of cells in S-phase when we are sick, injuries, and during pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How were the first chemotherapy medications originally discovered?

A

It was found that mustard gas given to soldiers caused them to suffer from leukopenia. This caused their white blood cells to die, and they died from infection. It was discovered that mustard gas alkylates heme in red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the anti-neoplastic alkylating agent discussed during class?

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide?

A

This drug attaches a chemical group to DNA which stalls the replication fork causing DNA breakage. The cell notices the broken DNA, which sends damage signalling causing apoptosis of the cancer cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What portion of the cell cycle is the drug cyclophosphamide targeting?

A

The S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the significance of ATM kinase and protein p53?

A

DNA integrity is monitored by protein p53. This gives the cell the opportunity to stop replicating DNA that is damaged. When DNA signals damage, ATM kinase phosphorylates protein p53 causing it to go into the nucleus, acting as a transcription factor. The cell will now produce proteins that go to the mitochondria where channels are produced and proteins begin to eat the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would happen in a tumor with a p53 mutation?

A

With a p53 mutation, alkylating drugs would have less action since it relies on the activation of protein p53.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do all cancer drugs cause immune suppression?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Do all cancer drugs induce nausea and vomiting?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common side effects of alkylating agents?

A

Alkylating agents are toxic to bone marrow. This is because there is constant cell proliferation in bone marrow and alkylating agents target the S phase of the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cyclophosphamide is additionally used after an organ transplant. Why?

A

It suppresses the immune system giving the body a chance to accept the organ and not attack it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of cyclophosphamide?

A

Injected Pro-drug that is activated by P450 proteins in the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does cyclophosphamide conversion in the liver allow it to be a more specific cancer drug?

A

Makes it more effective but not more specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If someone was taking a P450 inhibitor and cyclophosphamide, what would likely happen?

A

The drug would not be activated well in the liver making the drug less effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is another drug discussed in class that targets DNA?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MOA of methotrexate?

A

Methotrexate resembles folic acid and inhibits the dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) therefore blocking the synthesis of tetrahydrofolate (THF). It inhibits the production of nucleotides, making cells run out of the material they need to replicate DNA. It causes the cell to undergo apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a unique thing that happens to methotrexate in the cell?

A

In the cell, methotrexate is cross-linked to polyglutamate derivatives. These derivatives are very active against DHFR, the target enzyme for this drug. The cross-linked version stays in the cell but the parent compound is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an antibiotic that can be used as an anti-neoplastic drug?

A

Doxorubicin. A product of the soil microbe Streptomyces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What portion of the cell cycle does doxorubicin target?

A

G2 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the MOA of doxorubicin against cancer?

A

This drug binds to DNA, where it inhibits the topoisomerase II enzyme. This is the enzyme in the human body that reduces torsional stress during DNA unwinding. This causes the DNA to break into unuseable fragments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is FACS?

A

This is a measurement of DNA content versus the number of cells in a specific phase of the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would a FACS look like after the administration of doxorubicin?

A

???

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Doxorubicin works _________ and ________ replication.

A

During; after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sarah is a 47-year-old female presenting with advanced-stage breast cancer that has a high S-phase fraction and has metastasized to the lymph nodes. What are her treatment options?

A

This is an unfortunate situation. A treatment option includes adjuvant TAC therapy after surgery to remove the primary tumor. TAC therapy includes Taxotere (docetaxel), Adriamycin (doxorubicin), and Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the four phases of the cell cycle, and what happens in each?

A

G1 phase- cell increases in size, and cellular contents are doubled.

S phase- DNA replication

G2 phase- cell grows more, and organelles develop in preparation for cell division.

M phase- mitosis followed by cytokinesis. Formation of two identical daughter cells. (there is no nucleus here while ER and mitochondria are divided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do alkylating agents kill cells in the M phase of the cell cycle?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the point of using TAC therapy?

A

TAC therapy is used to attack cancer cells in all different phases of the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How were the class of drugs called Taxols discovered?

A

Taxol was isolated from the bark of the western yew tree. It was found that it was really good at killing cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the taxol drug discussed in class?

A

Paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How was paclitaxel tested?

A

In order to test this drug, researchers used xenografts. Xenografts are when human cancer cells are introduced into a mouse. Mice are then made to be immune-compromised so their own body does not attack human cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a phase 1 trial?

A

Phase 1 trials are about preventing toxicity, and testing is done on healthy individuals. This portion of the trial is not about the outcome of the drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a phase 2 trial?

A

Phase 2 trial asks about efficacy, dosing, effects, and different responses based on BMI, genetics, sex differences, etc. There are no placebos given in phase 2 trials. Given to sick individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a phase 3 trial?

A

Phase 3 trials can use placebos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the MOA of paclitaxel?

A

During mitosis, tubulin must polymerize, and the microtubules must be disassembled for mitosis to proceed. Paclitaxel promotes tubulin polymerization and blocks the disassembly of microtubules leaving the cell stuck in mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What would a FACS look like after the administration of paclitaxel?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the common side effects of anti-mitotic drugs like paclitaxel?

A

These drugs induce common symptoms of chemotherapy. Additionally, they can trigger neuropathy that presents as weakness, numbness, and tingling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a graphical representation of chemotherapy treatment against non-resistant cancer?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the graphical representation of chemotherapy treatment against resistance cancer?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What would be one reason for cancer becoming resistant?

A

If cancer cells express a large number of p-glycoproteins, doxorubicin cannot be used to treat cancer. This protein will efflux the drug out of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the 5 main ways that we target cancer with drug therapy?

A
  1. Chemotherapy
  2. Kinase receptors
  3. Nuclear receptors
  4. Immune targeting
  5. Others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is EGFR involved in cancer proliferation?

A

Epidermal growth factor (EGF) binds to the tyrosine-kinase receptor called EGFR. EGF binding to its receptor increases proliferation, decreases cell death and makes cells move. Cetuximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds the extracellular domain on EGFR, preventing EGF from binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What drugs are used when cancer is being stimulated by EGFR?

A

Cetuximab and chemotherapy together induces apoptosis more effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a typical cancer that cetuximab is used for?

A

Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a specific anti-TNF antibody used to combat cancer?

A

Adalimumab (Humira) is an antibody that binds to alpha-TNF and neutralises it. With TNFR being neutralized, the transcription of many genes in inflammation, survival, and apoptosis is halted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why is TNF-directed therapy an improvement over methotrexate?

A

TNF-directed therapy is much more specific than methotrexate. Methotrexate stops the production of nucleotides for all cells in the body while TNF therapy specifically binds TNF and stops its action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Why does cancer still replicate even after EGFR is inhibited?

A

MET is another tyrosine kinase receptor-like EGFR. It can provide growth signals once EGFR is disabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begin?

A

Some chromosomes have the ability to break more than others, specifically chromosomes 9 and 22. The break between these two chromosomes creates a perfect fusion forming a new fusion protein called Bcr-Abl. Bcr and Abl are genes. The new 9-22 fusion creates the new signalling protein called Bcr-Abl. Abl is an intracellular tyrosine kinase that is now signalling out of control. Now together, Bcr-Abl protein promotes growth and prevents cell death. This causes chronic myeloid (bone marrow) leukemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the risk factors for chronic myeloid leukemia?

A

Age, male, and DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can Bcr-Abl be stopped by?

A

A kinase inhibitor called Imatinib.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the drug Imatinib used for?

A

This drug is a kinase inhibitor that blocks Bcr-Abl intracellular tyrosine kinase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the drug Tamoxifen used for?

A

This type 1 nuclear receptor steroid receptor antagonist binds and blocks the estrogen receptor. This prevents estrogen from going into the nucleus to act on protein expression. Tamoxifen is typically used in estrogen-dependent breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are cancer cell checkpoints?

A

When cancer initially breaks out of its original location, immune cells are sent out to destroy them. Cancer cells actually have an immune checkpoint on them that basically disguises their identity. This stops the immune system from recognizing cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

A

This is a type of drug that stops cancer cells from becoming invisible to the immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the immune checkpoint inhibitor discussed in class?

A

Nivolumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the basic physiology of stomach acid secretions?

A

Parietal cells within the lining of the stomach secrete stomach acid. Before being triggered, they are just chilling there with their mitochondria and proton pumps. It has several important receptors triggering its release of H+ ions, like muscarinic and histamine (H2) receptors. Some sort of outside signalling will trigger the vagus nerve to produce acetylcholine (ACh) that will bind to the muscarinic receptor. ACh also binds to histamine receptors which trigger them to release histamine that will bind to the H2 receptor in parietal cells. When histamine binds to the H2 receptor, the parietal cell totally changes shape. New canaliculus acid channels are formed and proton pumps will translocate to line those channels. Now the proton pumps pump H+ ions into the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CASE STUDY: 72-year-old woman experiences acid indigestion after a meal. She has taken antacids frequently for 30 years. She now has acute pain beneath the sternum and blood streaked-stools. Antiacids are no longer effective. She needs more powerful therapy. What would that entail?

A

We could give her omeprazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is special about the proton pump in the parietal cells?

A

They are ATPase pumps that require a lot of energy. This is why parietal cells have a lot of mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)?

A

This is a type of drug that eventually blocks the proton-pumps from releasing H+ ions into the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the specific PPI discussed during class?

A

Omeprazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the unique characteristics of PPIs?

A

PPIs need an acidic environment to be activated but are not absorbed from the stomach. Additionally, PPIs do not work instantly, and concentration needs to build up. This is why PPIs must be taken BEFORE a meal. It is also an irreversible drug that binds to the proton pump and permanently inhibits it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What type of drug is Omeprazole?

A

This is a proton-pump inhibitor. It is a weak base that is absorbed in the intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of omeprazole?

A

Packaged into acid-resistant formulation so it can be better absorbed in intestines (unstable in low pH). It is taken into circulation, where it accumulates in parietal cells due to its love for the proton pump and the acidic state of the parietal cell. The drug is inactive until parietal cells begin secreting H+ ions, where it then undergoes a chemical change. This change allows omeprazole to cross-link to the proton pump and inhibit its actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of volume of distribution does omeprazole have?

A

A low Vd of 0.3 kg/L means it does not readily enter peripheral tissues and likes to stay in circulation. A low Vd means it also has a short half-life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

If PPIs bind irreversibly to proton pumps, why do the drugs only last 24-48 hours?

A

The turnover rate of proton pumps is really high, just like the rest of the things in the stomach. Once the proton pump is degraded again, the medication is no longer viable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the MOA of omeprazole?

A

Irreversibly binds and cross-links the proton-pump stopping its H+/K+ secretions into the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are some of the consequences of raising the pH of the stomach?

A

The body cannot take up nutrients as readily. Hypergastremia is also likely, which can cause cancer. Gastric bacterial overgrowth of C. Diff can also occur with PPI use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CASE STUDY: The 72-year-old woman returned 2 weeks later and said the PPI was not working. After eating, her stomach still hurt, so she decided to start taking antacids in the evening. What happened?

A

Since PPIs need an acidic environment to be activated, taking an antiacid will not allow the drug to be activated which would stop it from producing its proper effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are Helicobacter pylori bacteria?

A

This is a type of bacteria that can cause peptic ulcers. It can be treated with antibiotics combined with a PPI. Antibiotics commonly used are metronidazole, clarithromycin, or amoxicillin. Metronidazole is used because it is activated in anaerobic environments. Once the drug is reduced to its active toxic radical, it will attack the bacterial H. pylori DNA. This interferes with replication and causes DNA fragmentation. Clarithromycin targets the 50s subunit of bacterial RNA, and amoxicillin targets the PBP preventing cell wall formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

CASE STUDY: Erika is a 24-year-old woman who is flying on a vacation in Montana. The trip will require a flight in a small airplane. She is worried about motion sickness as she sometimes gets carsick, even under normal highway conditions. What type of therapy might she consider?

A

Dramamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How do nausea and vomiting work on a basic level?

A

It appears that vomiting associated with pregnancy or motion sickness functions through a histamine H1 receptor and muscarinic cholinergic receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is Dramamine (Diphenhydramine)

A

This is an H1 receptor inverse agonist. Additionally, it has anticholinergic effects (inhibits muscarinic acetylcholine receptors). Dramamine is packaged with 8-chlorotheophylline which acts like a stimulant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CASE STUDY: 5 year old has a poor diet of chicken nuggets, fries, and cookies. He remains constipated for days at a time and even has experienced nausea as a result. What is the treatment?

A

Miralax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of drug is Miralax?

A

This is an osmotic agent. Other osmotic agents include non-digestible sugars and milk of magnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the MOA of Miralax?

A

Miralax is polyethylene glycol. It is a non-digestible fiber that is poorly absorbed by the GIT. These substances also pull in water to the GIT causing a peristaltic effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

CASE STUDY: Patricia is a 34-year-old woman who travelled to Mexico, drank unbottled water, and ate from street vendors. She has now been experiencing diarrhea for 12 hours. What are her treatment options?

A

Imodium (Loperamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the MOA of loperamide (Imodium)?

A

This drug binds to opioid receptors in the gut. By doing this, it reduces peristalsis and increases intestinal transit time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Does Loperamide (Imodium) cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

It gets into the brain at the correct doses and is immediately effluxed by p-glycoproteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What would happen to the body if someone was on an additional drug inhibiting p-glycoproteins while taking Imodium?

A

Imodium would be able to cross the blood-brain barrier and stay there. It would cause constipation similar to what opioid users experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The circulatory system is composed of what two components?

A
  1. Systemic circulation- moves blood from the heart to the rest of the tissues. It then returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
  2. Pulmonary circulation- moves blood between the heart and the lungs. It transports deoxygenated blood to the lungs, where it gets oxygenated and then goes back to the heart.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

It is the pressure exerted by the blood against the blood vessel walls. It is needed to ensure steady blood perfusion to the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the two main components of blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output (heart rate x stroke volume) and peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood ejected from the heart in each pump from the left ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the ranges for blood pressure stages?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is considered normal blood pressure?

A

Less than 120/ <80 (AND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is considered elevated/ pre-hypertensive blood pressure

A

120-129/ <80 (AND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is considered stage 1 hypertension?

A

130-139/ 80-89 (OR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is considered stage 2 hypertension?

A

140 </ 90< (OR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis where emergency care is needed?

A

180 </ 120 (AND/OR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is primary/essential hypertension?

A

This is when patients have no specific cause for the hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is secondary hypertension?

A

This is when patients have a specific cause of hypertension. Could be caused by renal disease or primary aldosteronism. Usually occurring issues in kidneys, arteries, heart, or endocrine system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

This is the pressure that blood is exerting against the artery walls when the heart is beating (contraction) and pumping blood out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

This is the pressure that blood exerts against the artery walls when the heart is at rest (relaxation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Blood pressure can change all the time based on the most random things. How many consistent measurements of hypertension need to be collected before it can be diagnosed?

A

Three different elevated readings are needed to be diagnosed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are hypertension’s general signs and symptoms, even though it is typically asymptomatic?

A

Headaches in the morning, ringing in ears, unexplained dizziness, spontaneous nosebleeds, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, irregular heart beat, and flushing of the face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Is elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure worse?

A

Having hight diastolic pressure is worse because even when the heart is relaxed, pressure is still to high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the rates of hypertension in males and females before menopause?

A

1 in 4 males
1 in 5 females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the WHO rule of 1/3s?

A

1/3 of all adults suffer from hypertension. 1/3 of those adults do not know they have hypertension. 1/3 of adults treating their hypertension cannot keep it under 140/90.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are some of the different causes of hypertension?

A

Genetics and family history, age and gender, obesity, dietary habits, physical inactivity, drug-induced (NSAIDs, cyclosporine, hormonal contraceptives, nicotine, smoking), and psychosocial stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the complications associated with hypertension?

A

CVD, CBD, renal disease, and retinopathy

108
Q

Why are men more likely to get hypertension than pre-menopausal women?

A

Testosterone is known to increase RAAS, while estrogen does the opposite. The goal of RAAS is to control long-term blood pressure change.

109
Q

There are short-term and long-term ways the body regulates blood pressure. What are the short-term methods?

A

Regulating cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Cardiac output is regulated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. (Part of the autonomic nervous system, which is part of the peripheral nervous system). Peripheral resistance is regulated by baroreceptor and chemoreceptors reflexes.

110
Q

What substrate stimulates the alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Catecholamines (epinephrine, NE, dopamine) stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart and alpha-adrenergic receptors in the vessels. When these receptors are stimulated, blood pressure will increase.

111
Q

What are the long-term methods of regulating blood pressure in the body?

A

Regulating blood volume through the RAAS and anti-diuretic hormone (AHD)/ vasopressin.

112
Q

What are the 4 drug targets for hypertension?

A
  1. Target sodium reabsoprtion in the kidneys
  2. Target RAAS by blocking angiotensin II to stop vasoconstriction.
  3. Beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart
  4. Alpha-adrenergic receptors in vessels
113
Q

What are the 3 drug classes used to treat hypertension?

A
  1. Diuretics (3 types)
  2. Drugs that interfere with RAAS (4 types)
  3. Drugs that reduce CO or PR (2 types)`
114
Q

What are the 3 diuretics talked about in class?

A
  1. Thiazide diuretics
  2. Loop diuretics
  3. K-sparing diuretics
115
Q

Where do diuretics work?

A

They work in different spots in the kidney.

116
Q

What are the two main types of thiazide diuretics?

A

Chlorothiazide and Hydrochlorothiazide

117
Q

What is the MOA of diuretics?

A

All diuretics work in the nephrons of the kidneys (at different spots) and inhibit sodium reabsoprtion. This then increases urinary sodium and water excretion.

118
Q

Where do loop diuretics work in the nephron?

A

Loop diuretics work on the loop of Hendley, where around 25% of sodium reabsorption occurs.

119
Q

What is the loop diuretic discussed in class?

A

Furosemide

120
Q

Where do thiazide diuretics work in the nephron?

A

Thiazide diuretics work on the distal convoluted tubule where 50% of sodium is typically absorbed.

121
Q

Where do K+-sparing diuretics work in the nephron?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics target the collecting ducts where 1-2% of sodium is typically reabsorbed.

122
Q

What are the 3 K+-sparing diuretics discussed in class?

A

Spironolactone, Amiloride, and Triamterene

123
Q

What is the efficacy of the different diuretics?

A

Loops diuretics > Thiazide diuretics > K+ sparing diuretics

124
Q

What type of diuretic is used to treat low or moderate hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretics

125
Q

What are the main adverse effects of diuretics?

A

Possible kidney damage, hypovolemia (too low BP), electrolyte imbalance, dizziness, and hypokalemia (K+ more important than Na+)

126
Q

What are the main therapeutic considerations for diuretics?

A

First-line treatment for low or moderate hypertension due to its relative safety and efficacy.

127
Q

What is the weakest diuretic?

A

K+-sparing diuretics

128
Q

What are the 4 types of drugs that interfere with RAAS?

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
  3. Aldosterone antagonists
  4. Direct renin inhibitor
129
Q

What is the RAAS?

A

The kidney secretes renin. Renin functions to convert angiotensinogen (secreted by the liver) to angiotensin 1 (inactive). Then the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) from the lung converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2. Angiotensin 2 is a vasoactive peptide causing vasoconstriction. Angiotensin 2 works short-term to increase blood pressure. Angiotensin 2 stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone. Aldosterone promotes water reabsoprtion.

130
Q

Who is the main player of the RAAS?

A

Angiotensin 2

131
Q

What are the two types of classes of drugs used to target the RAAS?

A
  1. Angiotensin-receptor blocks (ARBs)
    AND
  2. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEi)

(these drugs increase blood potassium, so they are typically paired with diuretics)

132
Q

What are the 2 ACE inhibitors discussed during class?

A

Captopril and Enalapril

133
Q

What is the site of action for ACE inhibitors?

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE). This is the enzyme from the lung that converts inactive angiotensin 1 to active angiotensin 2.

134
Q

What is the MOA for ACE inhibitors?

A

ACE inhibitors inhibit the ACE enzyme. This stops the conversion of ang 1 to active ang 2. Without ang 2, there is less vasoconstriction and a decrease in aldosterone, which stops water reabsoprtion in the kidneys. This causes a decrease in blood pressure.

135
Q

When are ACE inhibitors typically used?

A

They are used for hypertension, heart failure, and hypertensive patients with RENAL FAILURE.

136
Q

What are the common side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Fatigue, hypotension, dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia (can cause cardiac arrest).

137
Q

What is the site of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Act on the angiotensin 2 receptor.

138
Q

What is the MOA of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

They block the angiotensin 2 receptor, which blocks angiotensin 2 from binding. This lack of binding causes vasorelaxation, which decreases blood pressure.

139
Q

What are angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) used for?

A

Hypertension, heart failure, and post MI

140
Q

What were the three angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) discussed in class?

A

Valsartan, Losartan, and Irbesartan

141
Q

What are the common side effects of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Dizziness, headache, faintness upon rising, vomiting, coughing (less common than ACE), and hyperkalemia.

142
Q

What are the two types of drug classes used to reduce CO or PR in reducing hypertension?

A
  1. Sympathetic nervous system depressants (alpha and beta blockers)
  2. Direct vasodilators (calcium channels blockers and nitrates)
143
Q

What are the main differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?

A

The sympathetic nervous system is activated by neurotransmitters epinephrine and NE, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, breathing rate, and pupil size. The receptors we are discussing here are alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors. Parasympathetic is your rest and digest peaceful state.

144
Q

Where are the different types of alpha-adrenergic receptors located?

A

Alpha-1 is located in smooth muscle cells, specifically, here we are interested in the vessels. Its activation will cause vasoconstriction, increased PR, and an increase in blood pressure.

145
Q

Where are the different beta-adrenergic receptors located?

A

Beta-1 adrenergic receptors are located in the heart. Beta 2 is in smooth muscle, and beta 3 is in adipose tissue. We are concerned with beta-1 in the heart. The activation of beta-1 in the heart increases heart rate, myocardial contractility, and renin secretion.

146
Q

What do beta-blockers alter?

A

Cardiac output

147
Q

What is the site of action for beta-blockers?

A

Mainly in the heart, but propanolol would cause vasoconstriction of bronchials.

148
Q

What is the MOA of beta-blockers?

A

Beta-blockers block the beta-adrenergic receptor from being activated by E or NE. With no stimulation, the heart rate will decrease, which decreases cardiac output, which decreases blood pressure.

149
Q

What is the main use of beta-blockers?

A

Useful in treating hypertension with pre-existing conditions like previous MI or angina pectoris (chest pain).

150
Q

What are the common side effects of beta-blockers?

A

Can cause bradycardia, fatigue, impotence, and cold extremities.

151
Q

What types of conditions are beta-blockers never prescribed to?

A

Those with asthma, diabetes, and bradycardia.

152
Q

What are alpha 1 blockers altering in the body?

A

Peripheal resistance of vessels.

153
Q

What are the 3 alpha-1 blockers discussed during class?

A

Prazosin, Terazosin, and Dexazosin

154
Q

What is the site of action of alpha-1 blockers?

A

Mainly the blood vessels.

155
Q

What is the MOA of alpha-1 blockers?

A

Block the alpha-1 adrenergic receptor in smooth muscle. Without stimulation by E or NE, vascular muscular relaxation will occur, which reduces peripheral resistance decreasing blood pressure.

156
Q

What are common side effects of alpha-1 blockers?

A

Nausea, drowsiness, postural hypertension, and 1st dose syncope (rapid fall in BP from sitting to standing).

157
Q

When can alpha-1 blockers never be prescribed?

A

Those will hypersensitivity to these drugs.

158
Q

When would alpha-1 blockers be used?

A

Useful in diabetes, asthma, and mild to moderate hypertension. Often paired with a diuretic.

159
Q

Why can calcium channel blockers be used to reduce CO and/or PR?

A

Calcium is required for muscles in the vessels to contract and vasoconstrict. When calcium channels are blocked, muscle can’t contract and vasodilation occurs, decreasing blood pressure.

160
Q

What are the two cardioselective calcium channel blockers discussed in class?

A

Deltiazem and Verpamil

161
Q

What are the two vasoselective calcium channel blockers discussed during class?

A

Nifidipine and Amlodipine

162
Q

What is the site of action of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

A

They act on vascular smooth muscle (heart or vessel depending on drug)

163
Q

What is the MOA of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

A

They block the calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle. This causes vascular muscle relaxation. Vasodilation occurs as well as reduced cardiac muscle contraction. Overall decreases peripheral resistance.

164
Q

What are the therapeutic considerations for prescribing calcium channel blockers?

A

Prescribed for angina, arrhythmia, and hypertension.

165
Q

What are the common side effects of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

A

Flushing, headaches, dizziness, nausea, heart palpitations (action potentials changing), and bradycardia.

166
Q

When would calcium channel blockers not be prescribed?

A

Cannot be prescribed for myocardial infarctions and heart failure.

167
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitors and diuretics

168
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with myocardial infarction?

A

ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers

169
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with renal insufficiency?

A

ACE inhibitors

170
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with angina?

A

Beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers

171
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with asthma?

A

Alpha-1 blockers & Calcium channel blockers (NO BETA BLOCKERS)

172
Q

What type of antihypertensive drug can be given to those with diabetes?

A

ACE inhibitor (NO BETA BLOCKERS)

173
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A

Blood contains 55% plasma, 4% WBC (leukocytes), platelets (thrombocytes), and 41% RBC (erythrocyte).

174
Q

What is coagulation?

A

This is the process involving platelets, coagulation factors, and fibrinolytic systems to change the state from liquid to gel/solid form. Coagulation can be initiated by (1) extrinsic stimulation (tissue damage) or (2) intrinsic stimulation (injury to endothelial lining of blood vessel)

175
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

An abnormal clot that forms in the vessel and remains there.

176
Q

What is an emboli?

A

A clot that travels from the site where it was formed to another location in the body.

177
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

This is when a thrombus is blocking an artery or vessel.

178
Q

What is an embolism?

A

An embolism is a thrombus that dislocates and then blocks an artery or vessel in the lung.

179
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Blood clot develops in the veins. Can be found in the thigh, lower leg, pelvis, and arm

180
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A

Blockage in one of the lung arteries.

181
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low platelet count. Normal platelet count is 150k to 450k/ mL of blood.

182
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Abnormal high count of platelets.

183
Q

What are the 4 stages of blood coagulation?

A
  1. Constriction of blood vessel- injury stimulation to restrict additional blood loss.
  2. Formation of temporary platelet plug- Collagen from exposed blood vessels activates platelets in the blood flowing past injury. The platelets then aggregate together to form a temporary plug, stopping bleeding.
  3. Activation of the coagulation cascade- Platelets change shape from round to spiny, which further stimulates proteins from the platelets like ADP and TXA2. These proteins further enhance platelet aggregation.
  4. Formation of fibrin plug/final clot- Further platelet aggregation cascade brings in final material called fibrin to form the final clot.
184
Q

What are the 3 coagulation pathways?

A

A. Factor X- an enzyme produced in the liver that requires vitamin K for its synthesis. Needs to be activated
B. Factor II/ Prothrombin- a protein produced by the liver. Activated factor X activates prothrombin to thrombin.
C. Fibrinogen- Glycoprotein completely made in the liver that is circulating in the blood. During injury, it is converted to active fibrin by thrombin. Together with platelets, they plug the wound site.

185
Q

What are the 3 drug classes acting on coagulation pathways?

A

A. Antiplatelets
B. Anticoagulants
C. Fibrinolytic agents (thrombolytics)

186
Q

What are antiplatelets/ blood thinners?

A

These are drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce the chance of blood clotting. Used preventatively for those at high risk for MI and stroke.

187
Q

What are the common antiplatelets/ blood thinners discussed in class?

A

Aspirin and Clopidogrel

188
Q

What is the MOA of antiplatelet aspirin?

A

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX-1), which is required to make the precursors of thromboxane within platelets. Inhibition reduces thromboxane synthesis, which is needed for platelet aggregation. Aspirin is 150 times more potent of an inhibitor for COX-1 than COX-2 (inflammation one). That is why a baby aspirin dose of 80-100 mg is given as an antiplatelet. Larger doses would begin to inhibit inflammation.

189
Q

What is the MOA of the antiplatelet drug Clopidogrel?

A

Inhibits the binding of ADP to its platelet receptors. Without this binding, the platelets cannot change into a spiny shape which inhibits the aggregation of more platelets and the release of thromboxane A2.

190
Q

What are the main therapeutic considerations for the use of antiplatelets/ blood thinners?

A

Used in patients with high risk of MI and stroke.

191
Q

What are the common side effects of antiplatelets/ blood thinners?

A

Bruise easily, longer bleeding times, upset stomach, heavy menstruation, and long nose bleed.

192
Q

What is Abciximab?

A

This is a drug that inhibits platelet aggregation. It does this by binding the glycoprotein receptor on human platelets and inhibits the binding of fibrinogen, therefore, inhibiting platelet aggregation.

193
Q

What are anticoagulant drugs?

A

These drugs are known as vitamin K antagonists.

194
Q

What is the oral anticoagulant drug discussed in class?

A

Warfarin

195
Q

What is the indirect parenteral anticoagulant discussed in class?

A

Heparin

196
Q

What are the two direct parenteral anticoagulants discussed in class?

A

Hirudin and Lepirudin

197
Q

What is the MOA of Warfarin?

A

The oxidized form of vitamin K is reduced to become active by an enzyme called vitamin K epoxide reductase. The active form of vitamin K will activate the inactive clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin inhibits the function of the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase in the liver. This leads to the depletion of reduced forms of vitamin K that should be activating clotting factors. Thus, this inhibits the synthesis of active clotting factors.

198
Q

Does warfarin work fast or slow?

A

It works slowly because it has no effect on already synthesized clotting factors, only the ones that will eventually be activated by vitamin K.

199
Q

What are the main therapeutic considerations of warfarin?

A

Used in all thrombosis related events like DVT or PE after a heparin treatment.

200
Q

What are the common side effects of warfarin?

A

Severe bleeding is possible due to a narrow therapeutic window, adverse reactions with alcohol, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen, has numerous reactions with vitamin K-containing foods.

201
Q

How long does it typically take for a patient to see the benefits of warfarin?

A

It can take 2-3 days to see a benefit, while prothrombin time (PT) is also monitored. A longer PT means the drug is working.

202
Q

What are the factors that contribute to different dosing requirements for warfarin?

A
  1. Vitamin K absorption and intake
  2. Warfarin clearance
  3. Genetic polymorphisms
203
Q

What is the MOA of the indirect thrombin inhibitor, Heparin?

A

This drug indirectly inhibits thrombin activity by increasing the activity of antithrombin. Antithrombin is an endogenous anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin and factor X release, therefore, blocking the coagulation cascade.

204
Q

Why is heparin given IV?

A

Heparin is not absorbed in the gut, so needs to enter directly into circulation. Not given intramuscularly either!

205
Q

What are the main therapeutic considerations for heparin?

A

Has rapid onset of action and is therefore used to initiate immediate anticoagulation in PE, DVT, or MI.

206
Q

What are the common side effects of heparin?

A

Bleeding, allergic reactions, long-term use is associated with osteoporosis and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.

207
Q

What are the two direct thrombin inhibitors discussed in class?

A

Hirudin and Lepirudin

208
Q

What is the MOA of direct thrombin inhibitors?

A

Directly bind to thrombin and inhibit its actions. This stops the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. This stops final clot from being produced.

209
Q

What is the difference between indirect thrombin inhibitors (heparin) and direct thrombin inhibitors (hirudin and lepirudin)?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors do not cause thrombocytopenia like heparin does in some users. Both drugs work fast.

210
Q

What are fibrolytic agents/ thrombolytics?

A

A protein present in the blood called plasminogen (fibrinolysin) is inactive until it is converted to plasmin by a plasminogen activator. Plasmin lysis fibrin clots.

211
Q

What is the fibrolytic agent/ thrombolytic discussed in class?

A

Streptokinase

212
Q

What is the MOA of streptokinase?

A

This thrombolytic drug activates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin which lyses the clot.

213
Q

When would streptokinase be used?

A

Given after a clot has already formed. Can be given 3 hours after stroke and 12-24 hours after heart attack. The sooner the better though.

214
Q

What are the adverse effects of thrombolytics like streptokinase?

A

Major bleeding

215
Q

What is the reversal agent for a parenteral antagonist like heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

216
Q

What is the reversal agent for vitamin K antagonists like warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

217
Q

What is the reversal agent for an antiplatelet agents like aspirin or clopidogrel?

A

Activated platelets

218
Q

What is the reversal agent for fibrinolytic agents like streptokinase?

A

Aminocaproic acid

219
Q

An oncologist is considering two tumors of the same type that came from different patients. Tumor A has an S phase fraction of 38%, while tumor B has an S phase fraction of 12%. What can the oncologist conclude from this finding?
A. Tumor A is less likely to stain positively (brown) for the marker Ki-67 than tumor B.
B. Tumor A will have a smaller need for dNTPs than tumor B.
C. Tumor A would respond less well to chemotherapy than tumor B.
D. Tumor A would have more DNA replication forks than tumor B.

A

D. Tumor A would have more DNA replication forks than Tumor B.

220
Q

A subset of genes are often mutated in cancer. Specifically, some tumors make a normal (wild-type) version of the p53 protein, while other tumors express an inactive, mutated form of p53. How would you expect tumors making a mutated form of p53 to be different from those expressing wild-type p53 with regard to the response of cancer cells to standard chemotherapy?
A. Chemotherapy responses would be the same whether p53 was wild-type or mutated.
B. In tumors expressing mutated p53, chemotherapy would directly damage the DNA more.
C. In tumors expressing mutated p53, less cytochrome c would be in the cytoplasm after chemotherapy.
D. In tumors expressing mutated p53, more cytochrome c would be in the cytoplasm after chemotherapy

A

C. In tumors expressing mutated p53, less cytochrome c would be in the cytoplasm after chemotherapy. If p53 is missing, cancer cells will not die.

221
Q

Cyclophosphamide is a cancer chemotherapy agent that is highly toxic. What is the best explanation for immune suppression caused by cyclophosphamide?
A. Cancer makes people very tired, and their immune cells are dying anyway
B. Immune cells are killed by cyclophosphamide when the immune cells proliferate
C. Immune cells are sensitive to cyclophosphamide because they are unable to grow
D. Immune cells have an internal resistance mechanism to cyclophosphamide

A

B. Immune cells are killed by cyclophosphamide when the immune cells proliferate.

222
Q

If a tumor contained a high fraction of cells in S phase, which of the following drug mechanisms would target that population of cells?
A. Inhibiting entry into the cell cycle
B. Inhibiting topoisomerase 2
C. Disrupting microtubule depolymerization
D. Inhibiting cytochrome P450 proteins

A

B. Inhibiting topoisomerase 2

223
Q

Some important early-stage testing of cancer drugs (and other kinds of drugs) is in mouse xenografts. How does one make a mouse xenograft?
A. Grow a colony of mice and select those that form tumors
B. Give the mice a carcinogen and select ones in which tumors form
C. Inject mice with mouse-derived cancer cells, which form a tumor
D. Inject mice with cells from another species, like humans

A

D. Inject mice with cells from another species like humans

224
Q

Which of the following best represents the side effects of paclitaxel?
A. Paclitaxel causes nervous system pain (neuropathy) by altering signaling
B. Paclitaxel causes few side effects because most cells do not use the protein that it inhibits
C. Paclitaxel is used to treat arthritis and other inflammatory diseases
D. Paclitaxel is a pro-drug, so it does not work in people with liver damage

A

A. Paclitaxel causes nervous system pain (not really by altering signal though)

225
Q

A drug company has developed a new product that has promise for helping people to quit smoking. It works well when administered to rats. You want to see if people are able to tolerate it without experiencing serious side effects, and you recruit 3 people for a control group and 7 people for an experimental group. It causes side effects, so you decide to return to the rats and test lower doses. What is this type of rat experiment called?
A. Pre-clinical testing
B. A phase 1 clinical trial
C. A phase 2 clinical trial
D. Phase 3 market research

A

A. Pre-clinical testing

226
Q

A patient with lymphoma is treated with a classic regimen for the disease that includes doxorubicin and paclitaxel. It works well and the cancer is gone for 4 years. Unfortunately, at that point, the tumor begins growing again and does not respond to the same treatment. What is a likely reason that the treatment does not work this time? What is a protein that might have changed to produce this effect?

A

The treatment is likely not working due to its development of drug resistance. A protein like p-glycoprotein that effluxes drugs like doxorubicin could produce this effect.

227
Q

Estrogen receptor is produced (expressed) by breast cancer cells. If you were to treat breast cancer cells with an estrogen receptor inhibitor, what would be the result?
A. The receptor would no longer phosphorylate proteins
B. The receptor would remain inert in the cytoplasm
C. The receptor would be unable to transport ions across a membrane
D. The receptor would remain bound to inhibitory G proteins

A

B. The receptor would remain inert in the cytoplasm.

228
Q
  1. In lung cancer, combining an EGFR inhibitor with chemotherapy can improve the effectiveness of the chemotherapy. What is the reason for this effect?
    A. An EGFR inhibitor turns off a survival signal, increasing cell killing
    B. An EGFR inhibitor makes the cells grow, increasing cell killing
    C. EGFR is a DNA repair protein, so inhibiting EGFR causes DNA damage
    D. EGFR pumps drugs out of the cell, so inhibiting it decreases drug efflux
A

A. An EGFR inhibitor turns off a survival signal, increasing cell killing.

229
Q

Describe the limitations of taking antacids to resolve acid indigestion.

A

Antiacids have a short duration of action around (30-60 min), while a PPI works for 24-48 hours.

230
Q

If you worked for a company that developed a high affinity partial agonist for the H2 histamine receptor, what would be the likely effects of it (a) without eating, and (b) after a meal?

A

A. Modest increase in acid production
B. No further elevation in stomach acid

231
Q

Some patients experience nausea after some medical procedures. Sometimes antihistamines are used to relieve that response. Do you think that diphenhydramine/Benadryl or loratadine/Claritin would be more effective for relieving those symptoms? Why?

A

Diphenhydramine is indicated for H1 receptors involved in nausea and vomiting. Claritin works on H2 receptors which are not associated with nausea and vomiting.

232
Q

What is the role of metronidazole in a treatment regimen for peptic ulcer disease?
A. To deplete nucleotides in all types of bacteria
B. To damage DNA in anaerobic bacteria
C. To damage DNA in aerobic bacteria
D. To block acid release into the stomach while the tissue heals

A

B. To damage DNA in anaerobic bacteria

233
Q

In combination therapy for peptic ulcer disease, what is the function of clarithromycin?
A. Damaging DNA
B. Inhibiting protein synthesis
C. Inhibiting proteoglycan cross-linking
D. Inhibiting the histamine H2 receptor

A

B. Inhibit protein synthesis

234
Q

Proton pump inhibitors are taken orally in pill form, but somehow find their way to cells in the stomach where they inhibit their target. Describe the path that a proton pump inhibitor takes to get to its site of action and inhibit its target protein. Feel free to add diagrams if that would help.

A

PPI, like omeprazole, is taken orally in an acid-resistant formulation as it is unstable in that environment and needs to be absorbed in the GIT. Once the drug is absorbed, it makes its way through the body, where it eventually ends up in parietal cells in the stomach due to its love for acidic proton pumps. Once in parietal cells, proton pumps must start actively producing H+ ions in order to activate omeprazole. Once activated, the drug cross-links the proton pump and irreversibly inhibits it.

235
Q

What is a tyrosine kinase receptor?

A

Span the plasma membrane. Has two distinct domains; the extracellular domain for ligand binding and the intracellular kinase domain for the enzymatic reaction.

236
Q

How does ligand binding work with steroid receptors?

A

In the resting state, the steroid receptor is bound by a chaperone in the cytoplasm. Ligand passes through the cell membrane and into the cytoplasm, where it binds the receptor. The new ligand/receptor complex separates from the chaperone and moves into the nuclear membrane. It will then bind to the specific sequence of DNA to act as a transcription factor.

237
Q

How does estrogen binding to its steroid receptor work?

A

Estrogen binds as all steroids do to steroid receptors. Estrogen and its receptor acting as a transcription factor can turn many genes off and on.

238
Q

What are G-protein coupled receptors?

A

These receptors span the cell membrane. It has an outside part that ligands bind to that converts it to the ‘on’ state, where the alpha subunit releases GDP and GTP replaces it.

239
Q

What are partial agonists?

A

These drugs bind and activate a receptor but only have partial efficacy at the receptor.

240
Q

What are the dose-response curves for a full agonist, partial agonist, antagonist, and inverse agonist?

A

Full agonist is the full curve
Partial agonist is partial curve
Antagonist is a straight line
inverse agonist is negative curve

241
Q

What is the volume of distribution?

A

This is the dose of a drug needed to achieve a given concentration. However, it is not a measurement of volume. It reflects the localization of the drug in the plasma versus tissues and free versus bound.

242
Q

When the plasma concentration of the drug is __________, the volume of distribution will be __________. When the plasma concentration is HIGH, the volume of distribution will be LOW.

A

LOW; HIGH

243
Q

Why would lower protein binding and increased membrane binding increase the volume of distribution (Vd)?

A

Lower protein binding means it is not floating around in circulation as much and wants to bind to its protein of activation. This allows the drug to leave circulation more readily and enter the peripheral tissues leading to a higher Vd.

244
Q

On a basic level, what is the goal of drug metabolism?

A

To turn the lipophilic drugs we start with into hydrophilic drugs so the kidneys can excrete it.

245
Q

What are the two phases of drug/prodrug metabolism?

A

Phase 1- small chemical groups added
Phase 2- large chemical groups added

246
Q

What are some examples of Phase 1 metabolism enzymes and reactions?

A

Oxidation by P-450 enzymes, reduction, and hydrolysis.

247
Q

What are some examples of Phase 2 metabolism enzymes and reactions?

A

Addition of glucoronidate, sulfates, alkylates, glutathione, and more.

248
Q

Hydrophilic drugs are typically excreted via the kidneys. Hydrophobic drugs are excreted via the liver. When a drug is non-polar, the _______ may modify the drug to become polarized so it can excreted by the _________.

A

Liver: Kidneys

249
Q

What is clearance?

A

The volume of plasma from which a drug is cleared in a unit of time (mL/min). Clearance is heavily dependent on a drug’s volume of distribution and half-life.

250
Q

What is the equation for clearance?

A
251
Q

If a drug had a high volume of distribution, why would it have a longer half-life?

A

A higher volume of distribution means it leave circulation and enters the peripheral more readily. It then needs to come back into circulation for it to be cleared. This takes time so a longer half-life is needed.

252
Q

What are JAK kinases?

A

When cytokines bind to their receptor, kinase binds to the receptor inside the cell. Janus Kinases have two kinase domains. Since cytokine receptors have no activity, they rely on JAK kinases to relay their signal once cytokine is bound.

253
Q

How is the loading dose calculated?

A
254
Q

Lipophilic (fat-loving) drugs tend to cross membranes and _______ the circulation. While less lipophilic drugs tend to _________ in circulation.

A

Leave; stay

255
Q

What type of proteins do acidic drugs and hydrophobic drugs typically bind to?

A

Albumin

256
Q

What types of protein do basic drugs typically bind to?

A

Acid glycoproteins

257
Q

What is a therapeutic index?

A

The is the LD50/ED50. A high therapeutic index is a safer drug.

258
Q

If affinity decreases, Kd __________.
If affinity increases, Kd __________.

A

Increases: Decreases

259
Q

What is Kd?

A

The unique concentration of a drug will occupy 50% of the total receptor population.

260
Q

In the graph above, A represents maximum activity of a target protein, and B represents the same effect in the presence of an inhibitor. Based on the mechanism of the drugs listed below, which one is best represented by curve B?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Methotrexate
D. Omeprazole

A

D. Omeprazole

261
Q

Which of the following options is effective and practical for increasing bulk to relieve typical constipation in a child?
A. Aloe
B. Linaclotide
C. Mineraloil
D. Polyethylene glycol

A

D. Polyethylene Glycol

262
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of diuretics?

A

You give HHED (hypovolemia, hypokalemia, electrolyte imbalance, dizziness) to the D (diuretics).

263
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

If you want an ACE, you will need FADHH (fatigue, angioedema, dry cough, hypotension, hyperkalemia)

264
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Don’t Fucking Hide Vape (DFHV: dizziness, fainting, headache, vomiting) or I will hit you with my AR (17).

265
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of beta-1 blockers?

A

B-1 blockers make you BIFc (bradycardia, impotence, fatigue, cold extremities)

266
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of alpha-1 blockers?

A

JUST 1ST DOSE SYNCOPE

267
Q

What is the mnemonic for common side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

HAA! (hypertension, angina, arrhythmia) Mckayala on a CCB has bpd (bradycardia, palpitations, dizziness)