Exam 4 - Lec 52-53 Antipsychotics Watt Flashcards

1
Q

based on mech of LSD and mescaline

a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis

A

b. serotonin NT hypothesis

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2
Q

based on phencyclidine and ketamine

a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis

A

c. glutamate NT hypothesis

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3
Q

at what dose will risperidone cause EPS side effects in most patients?

a. 0.5 mg
b. 1 mg
c. 2 mg
d. 6 mg
e. 10 mg

A

d. 6 mg

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4
Q

rating scale of tardive dyskinesia

A

AIMS (abnormal invol movement scale)

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5
Q

which VMAT inhibitor is for TD and Huntington’s chorea?

a. tetrabenazine
b. valbenazine
c. deutetrabenazine

A

c. deutetrabenazine

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6
Q

EPS is due to ____ antagonism

A

D2

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7
Q

what syndrome is associated with EPS sx with fever, impaired cognition, and muscle rigidity?

A

NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

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8
Q

Tx of NMS

A

restore dopamine balance (3 drug options: DA agonists, diazepam, or dantrolene)

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9
Q

how long does it take antipsychotics to have max efficacy for tx of psychosis?

A

6 weeks to 6 months

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10
Q

pimozide use

a. psychosis
b. Tourette’s tics
c. Huntington’s chorea
d. NMS

A

b. Tourette’s tics

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11
Q

_______ and _______ are noncompetitive inhibs of NMDA receptors and exacerbate psychosis and cognition deficits

A

phencyclidine; ketamine

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12
Q

why are D2 receptors a more effective drug target than D1 receptors for schizophrenia?

A

there is a perfect correlation between binding potency and clinical effectiveness for D2 (ability of drugs to bind to D2 is predictable)

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13
Q

loss of accommodation, dry mouth, difficulty urinating, constipation

a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade
b. alpha adrenoreceptor blockade
c. dopamine receptor blockade
d. supersensitivity of dopamine receptors
e. histamine receptor blockade

A

a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade

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14
Q

typical antipsychotics have more movement problems, inc EPS and TD due to ?

A

strong D2 block

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15
Q

1st antipsychotic

A

chlorpromazine

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16
Q

importance of R2 in phenothiazine nucleus

A

important for potency

17
Q

R10 of phenothiazine nucleus

a. important for potency
b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)

A

b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)

18
Q

aliphatic phenothiazines (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

a. chlorpromazine

19
Q

aliphatic phenothiazines: used for H1 antag properties (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

b. promethazine

20
Q

piperidine phenothiazine (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

c. thioridazine

21
Q

piperazine phenothiazines (3)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

22
Q

drug that is a butyrophenone

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone

A

h. haloperidol

23
Q

1st antipsychotic, antihistamine SE

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

a. chlorpromazine

24
Q

antihistamine, antiemetic

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

b. promethazine

25
Q

many SE: anticholinergic, sedation, sexual dysfunction, CV

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

c. thioridazine

26
Q

modest EPS (2)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

g. thiothixene
i. molindone

27
Q

CATIE studies: combination with anticholinergic

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

f. perphenazine

28
Q

antiemetic only

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

e. prochlorperazine

29
Q

EPS (not moderate EPS; 2 of them)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

d. fluphenazine
h. haloperidol

30
Q

Tourett’s disease, suppress motor and vocal tics

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

j. pimozide

31
Q

T or F: atypicals have more EPS and less metabolic problems than typicals

A

F (less EPS, more metabolic problems)

32
Q

drug with agranulocytosis as SE

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

a. clozapine

33
Q

weight gain, risk of diabetes

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

b. olanzapine

34
Q

metabolite w/ antidepressant activity; hypotension, sedation

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

c. quetiapine

35
Q

5HT2A/D2 receptor antagonist

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

d. risperidone

36
Q

5HT2A/D2, alpha 1 affinity; prolongs QT interval

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

e. ziprasidone

37
Q

5HT2A/D2, reduced metabolic effects, rapid titration

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

f. lurasidone

38
Q

high 5HT2A/D2 affinity, partial agonist activity

a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole

A

g. aripiprazole

39
Q
A