Exam 5 Flashcards

(147 cards)

1
Q

Any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is function by explosion is known as a?

A

Explosive

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2
Q

What is the sudden and violent escape of gases from a central point accompanied by high temperature, violent shock and loud noise?

A

An explosion

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3
Q

What are the 3 basic types of explosions?

A
  1. Mechanical
  2. Chemical
  3. Nuclear
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4
Q

What chemical explosion happens when gasses move at subsonic speeds?

A

Low Explosives

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5
Q

Low explosives do what and at what speed?

A

Deflagrate at less than 3,300 fps

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6
Q

What type of explosion is initiated by heat and shock, instantaneously decompose and gases travel at supersonic speeds?

A

High Explosives

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7
Q

High explosives do what? and at what speed?

A

Detonate more than 3,300- 30,000fps

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8
Q

What is the ability of a high explosive to rip, tear, or break materials in close proximity ?

A

Brisance

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9
Q

What is the first step of an explosive train?

A

Initiation

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10
Q

What is an ordered combination of explosives necessary to achieve an explosion?

A

Explosive train

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11
Q

What is the imposition of heat and/or shock in sufficient to start chemical break up?

A

Initiation

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12
Q

Low explosives typically only need what to deflagrate?

A

a flame

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13
Q

high explosives need what to detonate?

A

Heat plus shock

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14
Q

What is either the incomplete consumption of the explosive or complete consumption, but at a lower than optimum velocity, usually because of deteriorated explosives or human error?

A

Low order detonation

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15
Q

What is the high order detonations that result in the initiation of one explosive from the shockwave of another detonation in close proximity?

A

Sympathetic detonation

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16
Q

What is directly related to the functioning velocity of an explosive?

A

Velocity of Detonation

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17
Q

What are the 3 effects of an explosion?

A
  1. Thermal
  2. Blast Pressure
  3. Fragmentation/Shrapnel
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18
Q

What is the instantaneous rise in atmospheric pressure following a blast?

A

Overpressure

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19
Q

what positive blast pressure moves outward from the origin of the explosion, displaces, compresses and heats the surrounding air creating a vacuum behind the incident wave?

A

Negative Blast Pressure

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20
Q

What occurs when the blast pressure wave strikes an immovable object in its path?

A

Shielding

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21
Q

What occurs when the blast pressure is able to escape a confined space?

A

Venting

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22
Q

Pieces of the bomb casing, container, steel fragments is

A

Primary Frag

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23
Q

as the blast breaks and then propels environmental objects outward you have?

A

Secondary Frag

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24
Q

What is added to a devices to increase lethality?

A

Shrapnel

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25
Propellant such as black powder, smokeless powder and pyrotechnics such as flash powder and time fuse are what type of explosives?
Low Explosives
26
What type of explosive is flame sensitive and require confinement in order to explode?
Low Explosive
27
Safety/time fuse has what core?
Black Powder
28
What type of explosives are extremely sensitive to initiation by friction, shock, static, heat or a combination of these?
High Explosives
29
Secondary explosives require what?
help of a primary explosive in order to function
30
what is the most commonly known commercial secondary high explosive?
Dynamite
31
What should you do if you see crystallized dynamite?
Do not move or touch it
32
What is the standard by which most other explosives are measured?
TNT
33
TNT has a power (Relative explosive) rating of what?
1.0
34
What are the explosive components of shocktube?
HMX and aluminum powder
35
C-4 has a detonation velocity of how many feet per second?
26,400
36
What is any material or mixture, consisting of a fuel and oxidizer, intended for blasting not otherwise defined as an explosive?
Blasting Agents
37
Blasting agents require what to detonate in an explosive train?
booster
38
What are made with readily available components or precursor chemicals ( fuels and oxidizers)?
Home-made explosives
39
To protect interstate and foreign commerce against interference and interruption by reducing the hazard to persons and property arising from misuse and unsafe or insecure storage of explosive materials is
the congressional mandate that gave ATF the ability to enforce federal explosive laws and regulations
40
What are the 6 objectives of the ATF explosives program?
1. Reduce violent crime 2. Assist Federal, local and state officers 3. Advance public safety 4. Deny the acquisition of explosives to prohibited persons 5. Remove hazards to the public caused by improper use/storage of explosives 6. Provide investigative and technical assistance to inter-agency to combat terrorism
41
What Titles give ATF statutory authority for explosives and bombing investigations?
1. Title XI of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 2. Title II of the Gun Control Act of 1968 3. Title 28 USC section 599A
42
What directs that ATF is responsible for enforcing the criminal and regulatory violations of the Federal explosive laws?
Title 28 USC section 599A
43
What Agencies are involved in explosives enforcement?
1. DOJ (ATF and FBI) 2. USPS 3. DOT 4. EPA 5. CPSC 6. Stale/local fire marshall 7. state/local police
44
Lead agency determination is derived from what 3 elements?
1. the law 2. jurisdiction 3. special agreements
45
Terrorism is presumed when the target is
1. mass transit/ infrastructure 2. critical infrastructure 3. Gov't facilities 4. densely populated areas 5. explosives involving chemical, biological, radiological or nuclear agents
46
What are the 5 specific non-terrorism crimes where FBI would initially assert lead jurisdiction?
1. Bank robbery 2. Civil rights violations 3. Extortion 4. Federal kidnappings/hostage 5. Assault/ killing of Fed officer
47
Are ATF agents authorized to defer explosives jurisdiction to another agency without supervisory consultation?
No
48
Conflicts over Investigative/Jurisdictions will be resolved at what level?
field office or division level (RAC/ASAC)
49
I-Note notification must be submitted by
close of business day or if after hours 7am the following day
50
ATF JSOC must be notified within how many minutes of the agents arrival on scene?
30 min
51
Who is allowed to render explosives safe?
ATF EEO's and CES/Bomb techs
52
What should be the driving force of your legal basis for explosive investigations?
Elements of crime
53
Once explosives are safely recovered what must be done?
they must be traced to determine if they were reported stolen
54
How should all suspect devices be treated until proven otherwise?
as if it is a live bomb
55
What is commonly referred to as the Explosive Control Act?
Title XI Organized Crime Control Act of 1970
56
What was the purpose of Title XI ?
1. Protect interstate and foreign commerce against interference of explosives 2. assist the state in regulating explosive distribution within their borders
57
What was NOT the purpose of Title XI?
to place unnecessary restrictions on law-abiding citizens with respect to acquisition, possession, storage or use of explosives for legitimate reasons
58
What law is commonly referred as the Black Powder amendment? Who does it apply too?
18 USC 845 (a) 5, purchasers only
59
What act amended 844(i) and other criminal offense sections of Chapter 40 to include the words "Fire" and "Explosive"
Anti-Arson Act of 1982
60
What is 844(k) ?
Theft of explosives that have moved in interstate commerce
61
what is 844(l)?
Theft of explosives from Federal licensees/permittees
62
What is 844(n)?
Conspiracy to commit an Arson or Explosives crime
63
what is 844(o)?
Unlawfully transferring explosive materials
64
"Limit permit" allows the holder to
obtain explosives intrastate no more than 6 times per year
65
What are the 3 types of explosive licensees?
1. Dealer 2. Importer 3. Manufacturer
66
T or F? non-licensee/non-permittees are allowed to obtain and receive explosive materials?
False
67
a licensee/ permittee (user) may
receive explosive materials in his own state or foreign commerce as many times as they need
68
What are the exceptions to most explosive laws?
1. Gov't 2. Military 3. Small arms ammunition 4. Black Powder 5. DOT 6. Display fireworks by federally recognized Indian tribe or tribal agency
69
What are the 5 criteria you must meet in order to apply for a explosives license?
1. Not Prohibited 2. No willful violations 3. Have premises intended to conduct business 4. Has proper storage magazines 5. Has certified knowledge of state/local law
70
How often are explosive licensee/permittee's inspected?
there is no requirement for compliance inspections, but must be inspected at least once every 3 years
71
Can industry operations investigators assist during a SW? Can they seize explosives?
Yes they can assist | No only special agents can seize explosives
72
what is 842(a)(1)?
engaging in the business without a license
73
What is 842(a)(3)(A)?
transport/ship/receive explosives without a license
74
what is 842(a)(3)(B)?
distribution of explosives to a person without a license
75
what is 842(f)?
licensee/permittee failing to keep required records
76
Is there interstate commerce as an element in any of the crimes related to illegal manufacture, dealing in, or distribution of explosives by non-licensees?
No
77
what is transport/receipt of explosives to kill, injure, damage or destroy?
844(d)
78
what is 844(f)?
Arson or explosives against federal property
79
what is 844(i)?
arson or explosives against property in interstate commerce
80
what is 844(h)?
using explosives to commit another federal felony
81
What is 844(m)?
conspiracy to commit 844(h)
82
what is 844(n)?
conspiracy to commit any other 844 offense
83
what is 842(p)?
teaching the making or use of explosives/DD or WMD
84
what is 2332a?
use of WMD
85
what is 844(e)?
bomb threats using mail, telephone
86
what is 26 USC 5861 (c,d,f,i,or k)
makes it criminal offense to manufacture, posses, or transfer a DD not registered in the NFRTR
87
what is 924(c)?
explosive to commit federal COV/DTC
88
What is 844(k)?
stealing explosives that moved in interstate commerce
89
what is 844(l)?
stealing explosives from licensee/permittee
90
What is false information to obtain explosives or explosive license, permit or relief
842(a)(2)?
91
what is 842(h)?
Possession of stolen explosives
92
what is 842(j)?
unlawful storage of explosives
93
what is 842(i)?
possessing/receiving/transporting explosives by a prohibited person
94
What are the 2 basic types of firing systems for explosives?
1. Non-electric | 2. Electric
95
Non-electric priming systems and materials consist of?
1. Safety/time fuse 2. Blasting caps 3. Crimpers 4. Fuse ignitor
96
Crimpers have a fuse cutter for?
The right angle cutting of a fuse
97
What is the most common commercial blasting cap?
A number 8
98
What are used to short circuit the cap when not in use to guard against potentially harmful static electricity and stray radio frequency?
Shunting devices
99
What is required for testing the firing reel and blasting cap for continuity and shorts?
Galvanometer/ blaster ohmmeter
100
What is used to insulate bare wire connections?
Electrical tape
101
Who is responsible for all personnel safety and overall range operations?
Range officer
102
Who is responsible to the range officer for explosives safety operations and the identification of hazards ?
Range safety officer
103
What is the primary consideration in all explosive operations and is everyone’s responsibility ?
Safety
104
Who is responsible for storing and distributing explosives and cleanup?
Explosive control officer
105
an explosive device, placed or delivered, fabricated from common or available materials, in an improvised manner, designed and intended to kill, destroy, disfigure, distract or harass is a?
Improvised Explosive Device
106
What are some common sources for information used by bombers?
1. U.S. Army Technical Manuals and Military IED educations Publications 2. Underground Press (Anarchist Cookbook, Deadly Brew) 3. The Internet
107
What are the different types of IED initiation systems?
1. Non-Electric or mechanical 2. Chemical Reaction 3. Electric/ Electronic
108
What is SPICES?
``` Switch Power Initiator Container/Confinement Explosive Sharpnel ```
109
What are the 3 methods of operation of an IED?
1. Command Operated 2. Victim Operated 3. Time Operated
110
What are the 2 types of switches often used in an IED?
1. Firing Switch | 2. Safe/Arm Switch
111
What are the 2 types of initiators for IEDs?
1. Low-explosives initiators | 2. Primary High-Explosives initiators
112
What are some examples of Low-explosive initiators on an IED?
1. Hobby Fuse 2. Ammunition Primers 3. Improvised or Commercial Ignitors
113
What are objects such as nails, ball bearings, glass, etc. added to an IED?
Shrapnel
114
If evacuation is required from a building due to an IED you should instruct occupants to..
remove personal belongings such as backpacks and purses
115
What are 3 things all explosives produce?
1. Heat 2. Shockwave 3. Loud noise
116
What do you need in order to have an explosive?
Fuel + an oxidizer
117
What homemade explosive can be used as a primary and a secondary explosive ?
TATP
118
What are the 3 main objectives of a post blast scene investigation?
1. Determine accidental or criminal 2. Preserve and fully document scene 3. Develop investigative leads that identify the persons and/or factors responsible for the explosion
119
What are the 4 major reason to document a post blast scene?
1. Provide a systematic process 2. Document and preserve evidence for criminal proceedings 3. Tells the story that judge/jury can visualize and follow 4. Provide proof of the elements necessary for prosecution
120
The evidence technician, the photographer and the schematic artist do what for evidence reconstruction?
Document Collect And preserve evidence
121
What is imperative amongst the evidence tech, photographer and schematic artist?
Communication
122
What are the 3 methods for a post blast scene?
1. Secure 2. Survey 3. Search
123
What is the 1 1/2 times rule?
Add half of the overall distance plus the overall distance to your last piece of debris found. Last piece found at 300’ and 150’ that for your perimeter (450’ total)
124
What are the 3 zones of a post blast scene?
1. Hot 2. Warm 3. Cold
125
What zone of a post blast scene should media be in?
Cold
126
What zone of a post blast scene should your CP be in?
Warm
127
How should post blast zones be searched?
Outer first work towards blast seat
128
What is the biggest threat of a post blast scene?
Secondary devices
129
Each interview should be conducted using what to record information?
A lead sheet
130
Who should be identified and interviewed first at a post blast scene?
First responders and witnesses
131
Who are the primary assets for ATF field divisions for explosive identification, transport and safe handling and storage?
CES
132
Who can make determinations regarding the identity of suspected explosive materials?
EEO’s
133
What sets ATF apart from all other Federal agencies?
EEO’s ability to provide device determinations
134
If an explosion happens at a fedex center who has jurisdiction and why?
Feds 844(i)
135
Can a suspect be charged if they only have components in their house?
Yes but you must prove they were intended to be used as a weapon
136
What type of blast pressure can bring evidence back into the blast area?
Negative blast pressure
137
What type of search is done at a blast scene?
A systematic search
138
What is the most important part of a successful prosecution?
Proper evidence collection and packaging
139
Who are the 3 key members of the evidence collection team?
1. Photographer 2. Schematic artist 3. Evidence tech
140
What color is the inside of det cord? Time/safety fuse? Shock tube?
1. White 2. Black 3. Clear
141
What is the legal limit for black powder?
50lbs
142
What is the legal limit for smokeless powders?
Unlimited
143
What must be established upon arriving to a blast scene?
Security and integrity
144
What cannot be bought over the counter and must be stored in a magazine as a high explosive?
Flash powder
145
Who can approve of the disposal of and explosive or device for safety?
SAC / (RAC if emergency) or AUSA
146
How long does a licensee have to notify ATF after discovering theft of explosives?
24hrs
147
What federal laws do EEO’s use to make a device determination ?
Title XI of the organized crime control act of 1970 | Title II of the GCA of 1968