Exam 5 Flashcards
(203 cards)
1
Q
Transferring electrons between proteins in the mitochondrial membrane is a type of ______________
A
Redox reaction
2
Q
Pathogenic staphylococci can be differentiated by plating on blood agar plates. What allows you to tell them apart?
A
The extent of hemolysis
3
Q
Which of the following might a pathogen use to attach to host cells?
A
pili or fimbriae
4
Q
Ocean viruses contribute to carbon cycling by _________ ocean bacteria and algae
A
lysing
5
Q
Which of the following ‘fix’ carbon and increase biomass?
A
a corn field
6
Q
_____ phage genes code for protein that take over host functions. _____ phage genes include structure components of the virus
A
Early, late
7
Q
a community of bacteria which coordinate their activities to colonize a surface is called
A
biofilm
8
Q
lactose intolerance in humans is due to the lack of an _____ necessary to split a _____
A
Enzyme, disaccharide
9
Q
True or False: vaccination was invented by a British doctor in 18th century London
A
False
10
Q
A streak plate is used to isolate single colonies from a mixture of bacteria. The equivalent technique when working with viruses is called
A
Plaque assay
11
Q
True or false: living genetically modified humans walk the Earth
A
True
12
Q
all of the following are natural polymers except: cellulose, glucose, chitin, glycogen
A
Glucose
13
Q
True or false: most bacteria from environmental samples can be cultured in a lab
A
False
14
Q
True or false: animal viruses are capable of lysogeny
A
True
15
Q
All life can be sorted into three domains. The best evidence of this comes from
A
rRNA sequence analysis
16
Q
which of the following is an emerging disease in our area: influenza, malaria, lyme
A
No correct answer
17
Q
according to our present understanding, mitochondiral and chloroplasts are of _____ origin
A
bacterial
18
Q
In bacteria and mitochondria, a concentration of protons builds on one side of a _____. These protons can only travel through a channel in a protein called an _____, which functions as a “turbine” to make _____
A
Membrane, ATPase, ATP
19
Q
You have streaked to single colonies, a sample from a dead animal. The results show several different types of colonies. This result indicated a _____ and _________ clearly indicate a cause of the animal’s death
A
Mixed population, does not
20
Q
True or false: smallpox has killed hundred of millions of people since there have been humans
A
True
21
Q
True or false: Smallpox infections no longer occur on earth due to vaccination
A
True
22
Q
True or false: endospore production is a bacterial response to rapid environmental change
A
True
23
Q
recent increases in Whooping cough are due to: anti-vaxxers, weakened vaccine immunity, changes in the bacteria
A
All of the above
24
Q
True or false: enveloped viruses code for their own envelope
A
False
25
True or false: You were doing a Gram staining and forgot to counter stain with safranin. This would prevent you from identifying a gram positive bacteria.
False
26
One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _________
Viruses use host processes to multiply
27
Cellular respiration requires ___________ which is used to collect/neutralize _____________ in the mitochondria
oxygen, electrons
28
Human pathogenic bacteria are ___________
mesophiles
29
Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane, a portion of which is toxic to humans and causes fever. This molecule is made of _____
sugar and lipid
30
True or false: ATP synthase 'run backwards' and will consume ATP
True
31
Magnetosomes are _____ structures used by some bacteria to _____
Iron, escape oxygen
32
The Calvin cycle is the process which plants use to _____ and _____
Fix CO2, build biomass
33
Suppose you treat an exponentially growing culture of bacteria with a potential antimicrobial compound. Over the next few hours, cell doubling stops (untreated, control culture continues doubling) but the cells remain metabolically active. This antimicrobial compound is _____
Bacteriostatic
34
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to minimum _____
amount of a chemical required to kill all the microorganisms
35
Electrons captured from the breaking of glucose in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are carried to the _____ by _____.
Mitochondria, NADH
36
True or false: Persistent HPV infection requires viral integration in superficial/surface epithelia layers
False
37
Where in a liquid culture would you find an anaerobic bacterium?
at the bottom of the tube
38
Hydrothermal vent tube worms contain _____ bacteria (symbiotes), which in turn obtain _____ from the worms’ blood stream
chemolithotrophic, oxygen
39
Pasteurization is now a common procedure to ensure food safety. Pasteur’s flasks disproved _____
'bad' air causes diseases
40
What microorganisms use inorganic compounds like hydrogen sulfide as their energy source
Chemolithotrophs
41
This protein is made by bacteriophage and humans
lysozyme
42
Lysogenic bacteria exposed to UV light will: accumulate DNA damage, die, accumulate maturing bacteriophage
all are correct
43
Glycolysis is a series of _____ leading to _____ molecules
Enzymatic reactions, three carbon
44
True or false: Tamiflu prevents influenza virus from binding to host cells
False
45
These microorganisms use light as their energy source
Phototrophs
46
The terms “run” and “tumble” are used to describe _____
Movement of bacteria
47
True or false: water is a waste product of cellular respiration
True
48
Robert Koch is best known for a set of rules he created, now commonly known as Koch’s postulates. What is the purpose of Koch’s postulates
They help to determine if a particular infectious agent causes a specific disease
49
Three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: light, organic molecules and _____
inorganic molecules
50
Sugars are used by living systems for
energy storage and building materials
51
True or false: enveloped viruses contain genes for their own plasma membrane
False
52
True or false: horizontal/lateral gene transfer is largely responsible for human genetic diversity
False
53
True or false: some bacteria owe their virulence to a viral prophage integration
True
54
sRNAs (short RNAs), viroids, and CRISPR all work by a similar mechanism. They all rely on _________ to destroy or change a target sequence
base pairing
55
True or false: The sum total of an organism or cell's protein content is termed its genome
False
56
True or false: the sum total of the information stored in a cell or organism's DNA is called its proteome
False
57
Colistin is a charged antibiotic molecule that can cause kidney damage. Some colistin resistance has been shown to?
change the charge on the cell surface
58
True or false: some viral prophage are able to measure the number of host cells outside the individual cell they are in
True
59
Which of the following methods of gene transfer has the potential to transfer more unique regions of the bacterial chromosome?
Generalized transduction
60
The 'transforming factor' in Griffith's (blue/red bacteria, mouse dead/live) experiment was ultimately found to be a gene for?
a sugar coat
61
In the experiment that established that DNA replication occurs semi-conservatively, newly synthesized strands could be distinguished from parental strands by?
Density
62
Some bacteriophage use a protein called Tip to control entry into the lytic cycle. Qtip expression is regulated through a protein that is a _____________
transcription factor and receptor
63
Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as _____
Conjugative
64
When testing antibiotic resistance using “paper disc test”, you find the clearing around the disc is larger in the presence of EDTA. You conclude the bacteria is _____.
Using a metalloprotease to inactivate the antibiotic
65
Some bacteria use pili to capture _______ from the environment. Expression of pili genes and membrane pore complex genes are linked to ________?
DNA, available food sources
66
The Penicillin family of antibiotics bind to the active site of _____
Enzymes that form peptide crosslinks
67
When _____ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon
cAMP/cAMP response protein (CRP)
68
Cipro is a _____ antibiotic. This is because it _____.
Broad spectrum, prevents DNA unwinding
69
Gene X makes a protein that binds to DNA. A mutation of gene X causes an increase in the expression of gene Y. We can conclude that _____
Gene X is a negative regulator of gene Y
70
A b-lactamase/penicillinase provides resistance to penicillin by _____.
modifying the penicillin-binding protein involved in cell wall synthesis and destroying the ring structure of penicillin
71
The acronym ORF stands for _____
Open reading frame
72
To be activated a quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an _____
Auto inducer
73
True or false: a phage particle can be infectious even if all its DNA has been replaced by bacterial DNA
True
74
Operons _____.
Allow coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes
75
Bacterial heat shock response requires expression of many proteins including _____, which prevent misfolding/denaturation. Coordinate expression of these different genes is controlled by _____
Chaperons, a unique sigma factor
76
Competence refers to the ability of bacterial population to _____
Be transformed by foreign DNA
77
True or false: In prokaryotes all RNA contains coded information for amino acid sequence
False
78
Insertion sequences are the simplest mobile genetic element. They code for a single protein. What does this protein do?
It can cut & reseal DNA strands
79
What do exposure to Cipro, Covid-19, and the Lyme’s disease bacteria have in common?
All are associated with post treatment disease/ symptoms
80
The promoter site of an operon is the site at which _____ initiates
RNA polymerase
81
In a gel-shift assay, free DNA runs _____ than protein::DNA complexes
Faster
82
In the absence of lactose, the lac _____ will _____
operator, be bound by repressor
83
Two populations of bacteria have recently acquired resistance to Mitchomycin. Population 1 did so in three generations (60 minutes). Population 2 acquired this resistance over the course of several months. The most likely mechanism for resistance in Population 1 is?
Horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid
84
Which of the following would cause a stringent response in a bacterial population: antibiotic treatment, rapid change in available nutrients, rapid increase in temperature
All are correct
85
True or false: heat maps are a way of representing changes in gene expression
True
86
The first enzyme in a metabolic pathway has a second binding pocket for a product many steps down the metabolic pathway. This is likely an example of _____
Allosteric regulation
87
You have cloned the promoter from your favorite retinal gene upstream (in front of) GFP (green fluorescent protein) and then made a transgenic fish. What would you expect to see when the fish grow up?
Only the eyes of the fish glow green
88
Certain bacteria, when under stress produce transducing particle-like gene transfer agents (GTAs). These particles contain _____ pieces of bacterial DNA and the portion of the population that produces GTAs is determined _____.
Random, stochastically
89
Calico cats have three colors of fur. This is due to inactivation of _____ and ultimately is controlled by _____.
One X chromosome, a guide RNA
90
CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats) is: a bacterial defense mechanism, used to edit many different genomes, a type of immunological memory
All are correct
91
What are sigma factors responsible for?
Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences
92
Which of the following are quorum-sensing phenomena: squid light organ, gut enterotoxin release, competence/transformability
All are correct
93
Adding the amino acid Arginine to a bacterial culture _____
Represses the synthesis of the enzymes required for the production of arginine
94
What do Texiobactin and Vancomycin have in common?
Both are relatively resistance proof and both inhibit the linking of cell wall to plasma membrane
95
True or false: RNA sequencing does not sequence RNA directly
True
96
True or false: RNA sequencing is a method for genomic analysis
False
97
Prokaryotic genes as an _____ are transcribed as _____
Operon, a polycistron
98
"Gene chips" contain ____________ for a large set of genes. ___________ are fluorescently labeled and are hybridized to the chip to measure changes in ______________?
single-strand DNAs, mRNAs, gene expression
99
A DNA/genomic mutation removes the RBS from the 5' UTR (untranslated region) of your favorite gene. This gene would be?
transcribed but not translated
100
HIV has an RNA genome and can persist in human cells as a lysogen. What is the first step in this process?
Converting RNA to DNA
101
Purposely infecting bacteria with Transposons is a type of ____________
mutational screen
102
Which of the following does not lead to more antibiotic resistance bacteria: antibiotics in animal feed, false positive Strep throat (antibody) tests, over prescription, taking the entire prescription
Taking the entire prescription
103
DNA replication happens in a ___________ manner, using information from the _______ strand as _________ to synthesize the new strand
semi conservative, parental, template
104
What do BCG treatmeant, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common?
All suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer
105
True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream
False
106
Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____
bacterial, escape immune detection
107
Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.
Colon cancer
108
Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?
DNA
109
True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza
True
110
Cholera toxin is?
an enterotoxin
111
True or false: Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region
False
112
True or false: There is an antibody for every allergen
True
113
HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____
Stimulate antibody & cytotoxic T cell production
114
Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of a co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by _____
MHC, TCR, & antigen
115
True or false: there is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter
False
116
True or false: the Tuberculosis skin test is a type of immediate inflammatory response
False
117
True or false: a ring that causes a rash in your finger involves Mast cell activation
True
118
The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____
Memory cells
119
Antibodies present in a newborn are considered _____
Naturally acquired passive immunity
120
Thymic education refers to the process by which _____ are selected for their ability to recognize _____ properly
T cells, foreign antigen
121
The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____
cytokine, brain
122
After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become _____
Antibodies
123
The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions
Endotoxin
124
Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.
Lysosome, reactive oxygen species
125
One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____
double stranded RNA, commit suicide
126
True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants
True
127
Akkermansia munciphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____
Mucus
128
Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?
Endotoxin
129
Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions
neurotoxin, vesicle fusion
130
GALT is part of the ________ which is responsible for defending against and _______ pathogens from outside the body
lymphatic system, sampling
131
The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin
2025 influenza proteins
132
Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water
A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water
133
Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus
Cytotoxic T cells
134
Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells
Increasing the flow of ions out of
135
The human microbiome contains all _____
Organisms present in & on the body
136
True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface
True
137
True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics
False
138
Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection: florescent antibody staining, selective culture media, agglutination
All are correct
139
Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV & others)
They produce a more complex banding pattern
140
True or false: Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated
False
141
The complement system is considered part of the ______ immune system because it is activated by _________
Innate, any bacteria
142
True or false: Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests
False
143
PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an _______ based treatment which can ______ the number of T cells attacking a tumor
antibody, increase
144
Opsonins _____________
Increase phagocytosis
145
Irritable Bowl Disease (IBD) is an overreaction of the immune system to ____________
gut microbiota
146
Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane
All are correct
147
Natural killer cells ______________
Kill cells that lack MHC molecules
148
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which: affects antibody production, results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells, affects T cell production
Affects antibody production & affects T cell production
149
True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement
False
150
The variable region of an antibody is _________. The constant region signals _________ by changing shape.
A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound
151
The control line in a rapid test tells you ____________
You have added enough sample
152
Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, ‘presenter’ molecules/antigen holders
Markers of self and presenter molecules
153
The ‘older’, _________ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The ________ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections
Innate, adaptive
154
True or false: wounds that release pus are a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells
True
155
True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure
False
156
True or false: ‘Cytokine storms’ can be caused by certain bacterial infections and/or cancer treatment
True
157
Small mutations in the genes for the H and N proteins (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase) lead to changes in the infectivity of the influenza virus. This is also known as
genetic DRIFT
158
True or false: Smallpox is an endemic disease in parts of Africa
False
159
Identify the acute infection: HIV, HPV, Norovirus, Lyme's (Burgdorferi)
Norovirus
160
True or false: for any disease prevalence will be less than incidence
False
161
The onset of an epidemic began with a sharp rise in the number of cases reported over a few days. This indicates that the mode of transmission is?
a common source
162
The two leading Covid vaccines both contain ________ "packaged" in ___________
mRNA, lipid
163
A disease that is present in unusually high numbers throughout the world is called a __________
pandemic
164
Which of the following is an emerging disease in New England: influenza, cholera, West Nile virus
West Nile virus
165
HIV is a _________ with a _________ genome. An enzyme called ________ copies its genome into ________ which is then integrated into the infected cell's DNA
retrovirus, RNA, reverse transcriptase, DNA
166
True or false: the majority of sexually active people will be exposed to HPV
True
167
True or false: HPV infections led to cancer when the virus integrates into superficial epithelial cells
False
168
Paxlovid is a protease inhibitor, its mechanism of action is similar to certain HIV treatments. The effect of these drugs is?
prevent viral maturation
169
True or false: man has created synthetic DNA
True
170
True or false: Synthetic DNA molecules have escaped into the environment
True
171
What was the breakthrough advancement that led to the success of mRNA vaccines?
advances in backbone stability
172
The Flu vaccine is not always effective in preventing severe disease. This can be due to?
Variants that arise after production starts
173
Whooping cough outbreaks across the country have been associated with non-medical exemptions. Another factor that has been associated with increased whooping cough incidence is ___________
acellular vaccines
174
A certain bacterium has as its reservoir a rodent only found in the Southwest United States. Each year, a few human cases of the disease caused by this bacterium are reported in Arizona and New Mexico. This disease can be categorized as _____________
endemic
175
True or false: Some tick bites have been shown to cause a delayed allergic reaction to a mammalian carbohydrate
True
176
Identify the viral infection that is transmitted by aerosol droplets: influenza, HPV, West Nile virus, Lyme disease
Influenza
177
Heart disease and cancer are the leading cause of death worldwide in the 21st century. Up until the mid-twentieth century, the top three causes of death were all due to?
infectious diseases
178
The main habitat (reservoir) of Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, is?
soil
179
Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are both caused by __________
bacterial parasites
180
The original Whooping cough vaccine used in the US was more effective than the one currently being used. Which of the following explains why: original vaccine was a subunit vaccine, current vaccine is whole agent vaccine, original vaccine induced more memory cells
original vaccine induced more memory cells
181
True or false: over 300,000 people die every year worldwide due to under-treated Strep throat
True
182
True or false: PreP is a form of antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection, that when taken daily, reduces viral load to the point where the person cannot transmit the virus
True
183
Novel Chicken Virus 7 has a high mortality rate (~80%). What kind of evidence would be the most concerning in terms of pandemic risk?
Poultry worker family deaths
184
True or false: HPV vaccination can still be effective after having sex
True
185
True or false: cancer progression requires prophage integration into a stem cell
True
186
True or false: a test for anti-Covid-19 antibodies on the day of infection would be negative
True
187
When herd immunity against a particular pathogen has been reached in a population, _______ people are protected
all
188
True or false: infectious diseases are the cause of about 15% of all deaths worldwide
True
189
Which of the following are established reservoirs for Influenza: domesticated turkeys, wild turkeys, pigs
all are correct
190
True or false: vaccines are available for all sexually transmitted diseases
False
191
True or false: if not treated completely with antibiotics, Group A Streptococci can cause severe post-infection diseases
True
192
True or false: vaccination is a type of artificial passive immunization
False
193
SARS-COVID-19 has become an endemic disease worldwide. Which of the following is the best evidence for this fact
large "waves" of new infections are absent
194
What accounts for the chance of genetic shift leading to the next flu pandemic?
it has a segmented genome
195
True or false: upper respiratory tract pathogens are generally more deadly than lower respiratory pathogens
False
196
PLWH (people living with HIV) are at greater risk for _____________ than the average population
opportunistic infections
197
True or false: in the US ~15,000 liver cancer deaths caused by chronic Hepatitis Virus C ('HepC') occur each year
True
198
True or false: HepC treatment can cost $25,000-95,000 USD even with insurance
True
199
The 'a' in DTaP vaccine refers to?
the type of vaccine
200
What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common
Both inhibit the viral protease
201
Why are most domesticated turkeys recently being raised indoors
To prevent viral infection
202
True or false: During the Phase III trials for the Covid mRNA vaccine, the majority of side effects were reported in the vaccine arm of the trial
False
203
AIDs patients world-wide ultimately die from __________
secondary infections
