Exam 5

Question 1

What is the primary purpose of VEGF?

Answer 1

It promotes angiogenesis, increases vascular permeability, and stimulates endothelial cell migration and proliferation

Question 2

Describe the TNM method of cancer staging

Answer 2

T=tumor, Tis=carcinoma in situ, T4 directly invades other organs/structures
N=node involvment, N0=no node involvement, N1 or N’greater than’2 means few or multiple nodes involved by tumor
M=Metastsis, M0=metastsis absent, M1=metastsis present

Question 3

In regards to HPV oncoproteins, E6 affects____ and E7 affects ____

Answer 3

E6 affects p53, and E7 affects pRb (also know HPV can cause cervical and oral cancer)

Question 4

MYC is a growth _____ oncogene. p53 is a growth _____ suppressor gene

Answer 4

MYC is a growth promoting oncogene. p53 is a growth inhibiting suppressor gene

Question 5

(T/F) an oncogene is a proto-oncogene that has been mutated

Answer 5

true

Question 6

Match the following:

1) pathogenesis
2) etiology
3) functional consequences

a) mechanism of development
b) signs and symptoms
c) cause

Answer 6

1) pathogenesis — a) mechanism of development
2) etiology — c) cause
3) functional consequences — b) signs and symptoms

Question 7

Which one of the following choices describes a device that tests patients to help predict response to medications based on the proteins CYP2D6 and CYP2C19

a) ARMS PCR
b) gene therapy (ex vivo)
c) microarray technology
d) amplichip

Answer 7

d) amplichip

a) ARMS PCR–used to look for specific point mutations in family members
b) gene therapy (ex vivo)-perfomed on cells, not genes that are removed from the pt, manipulated, and returned
c) microarray technology-compares genes expressed in 2 populations of cells or tissues

Question 8

Match the following:

1) totipotent
2) pluripotent
3) multipotent

a) from adult
b) from zygote
c) from blastocyst

Answer 8

1) totipotent—b) from zygote
2) pluripotent—c) from blastocyst
3) multipotent—a) from adult

Question 9

What is unique about aquiring retinoblastoma (when retinal cells become tumors)

Answer 9

It requires 2 events. 1st needs one copy of Rb gene mutant in germline, then the 2nd copy of Rb gene in retinal cell becomes mutated in childhood

Question 10

Match the following type 2 restriction endonucleases with their functions:

1) EcoRi
2) HaeIII

a) produces sticky overhangs
b) produces blunt cuts

Answer 10

1) EcoRi—a) produces sticky overhangs

2) HaeIII—b) produces blunt cuts

Question 11

Dolly the sheep was cloned via __________

Answer 11

Whole somatic cell nuclear cloning

Question 12

cDNA synthesis uses _______to make DNA copies from RNA

Answer 12

reverse transcriptase (a retroviral enzyme)

Question 13

Match the following proteins that are required for Cdk/cyclin regulation to their classification:

1) ubiquitin ligases
2) transcriptional factors
3) tumor suppressors
4) inhibitor proteins
5) kinases
6) phosphotases

a) SCF, APC
b) CAK, Wee1
c) Cdc25
d) Jun, Fos, Myc, E2F
e) p21
f) p53,pRb

Answer 13

1) ubiquitin ligases–a) SCF, APC
2) transcriptional factors–d) Jun, Fos, Myc, E2F
3) tumor suppressors–f) p53,pRb
4) inhibitor proteins–e) p21
5) kinases–b) CAK, Wee1
6) phosphotases–c) Cdc25

Question 14

In meiosis, which is the MOST error prone step?

a) Meiosis 2 telophase 2
b) Meiosis 1 anaphase 1
c) Meiosis 1 prophase 1
d) meiosis 2 prophase 2

Answer 14

b) Meiosis 1 anaphase 1 (this is when they are coming apart and there is an increased risk for non-disjunction)

Question 15

What are the outcomes of non-disjunction in Meiosis 1 vs meiosis 2?

Answer 15

Meiosis 1: non-disjunction: 2 trisomy and 2 monosomy

Meiosis 2: 1 trisomy, 1 monosomy, 2 normals

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT true?

a) Euploid is an extra full set of chromosomes due to polyspermy (triploidy, tetraploidy)
b) Aneuploid is an extra single chromosome due to non-disjunction (trisomy)
c) A tetrad is a pair of duplicated homologues (2 pair of sister chromatids)
d) All cases of monosomy is lethal

Answer 16

d) All cases of monosomy is lethal. False, the only case that is non-lethal is in Turner’s syndrome (one X)

Question 17

Which one of the following is NOT true?

a) hypothalamus releases GnRH
b) pituitary releases FSH and LH
c) the ovaries and testes release estrogen and testosterone
d) all of the above are true

Answer 17

d) all of the above are true

Question 18

(T/F) Dicteotene stage is when oocytes are arrested at diplotene stage until ovulation

Answer 18

true

Question 19

Match the following congenital defects:

1) Cri du chat
2) fragile X syndrome
3) DiGeorge syndrome
4) Downs syndrome (trisomy 21)

a) x-linked disorder caused by a repeat
b) absence of thyroids and/or parathyroids due to a loss of signal in chromosome 22
c) a partial monosomy deletion
d) 1% are mosaics, 4% contain robertsons translocations, increased risk if HCG is high

Answer 19

1) Cri du chat–c) a partial monosomy deletion
2) fragile X syndrome–a) x-linked disorder caused by a repeat
3) DiGeorge syndrome–b) absence of thyroids and/or parathyroids due to a loss of signal in chromosome 22
4) Downs syndrome (trisomy 21)–d) 1% are mosaics, 4% contain robertsons translocations, increased risk if HCG is high

Question 20

(T/F) Multifactoral disorders are disorders that run in families in which there is no single gene or chromosomal abnormality responsible. It does NOT follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance

Answer 20

true

Question 21

Which one of the following is NOT true regarding maternal hypocholesteremia?

a) it causes holoprosencephaly
b) the sonic hedgehog (SHH) protein used in cell signaling is defective
c) there are 2 types (syndromic and non-syndromic)
d) all of the above are true

Answer 21

c) there are 2 types (syndromic and non-syndromic) this describes a condition called craniosynostosis

Question 22

What is the 1st sign of gastrulation?

a) the primitive streak
b) the bilaminar disc
c) yolk sac
d) neural crest

Answer 22

a) the primitive streak. Gastrulation is the start of morphogenesis.

Question 23

Match the following weeks of development with the following events:

1) week 1
2) week2
3) week 3
4) weeks 4 thru 8

a) migration, zygote, morula, blastocyst formation
b) a time for the greatest vulnerable for birth defects
c) development of bilaminar germ disc, 2 layers of trophoblast form a “blob” that produces HCG
d) development of trilaminar germ disc,, by the end of this week you have all 3 germ layers

Answer 23

1) week 1—a) migration, zygote, morula, blastocyst formation
2) week2—c) development of bilaminar germ disc, 2 layers of trophoblast form a “blob” that produces HCG the week of 2’s
3) week 3—d) development of trilaminar germ disc,, by the end of this week you have all 3 germ layers the week of 3’s
4) weeks 4 thru 8—b) a time for the greatest vulnerable for birth defects the 1st trimester

Question 24

Which one of the following is NOT true?

a) the Epiblast gives rise to the ectoderm. They proliferate at the caudal end forming the primitive streak. They are on top.
b) The hypoblast become the endoderm and is on bottom
c) the amniotic cavity is on top
d) the umbilical vesicle is on bottom
e) all of the above are correct

Answer 24

e) all of the above are correct

Question 25

Which one of the follwoing is not true? a) embryonic age starts at fertilization b) gestational age starts at first day of last menstrual period c) neural-ectoderm forms the optic nerve and retina d) The optic cup is the 1st part of the forming eye

Answer 25

d) The optic cup is the 1st part of the forming eye...false...the optic GROOVE is the 1st part of the forming eye

Question 26

Which one of the following is NOT true? a) Neural crest gives rise to the PNS and schwann cells b) neural tube gives rise to the CNS and oligodendrocytes c) BMP's give rise to sensory neurons on the dorsal side d) SHH's give rise to motor neurons on the ventral side e) all of the above are correct

Answer 26

e) all of the above are correct the concentration gradient between BMP and SHH is responsible for forming the sensory and motor nerons in the spinal chord *

Question 27

Which one of the following is NOT correct? a) the telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral hemispheres and the lateral ventricles b) the metencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct c) the diencephalon gives rise to the thalami and 3rd ventricle d) the myencephalon gives rise to the medulla and lower part of the the 4th ventricle

Answer 27

b) the metencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct...false....the metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and upper portion of the 4th ventricle **the mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct**

Question 28

Which one of the folloowing is NOT true? a) there are 8 rhombomeres of the hindbrain b) rhombomeres are placed between the 2 rows of somites c) HOX genes are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 7 d) Somites are bilaterally aired blocks of paraxial mesoderm that form along the head-to-tail axis of the developing embryo in segmented animals

Answer 28

c) HOX genes are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 7...false...they are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 3

Question 29

Match the following arches with the following cranial nerves: 1) arch 1 2) arch 2 3) arch 3 4) arch 4 a) CN10 b) CN9 c) CN5 d) CN7

Answer 29

1) arch 1--CN5 2) arch 2--CN7 3) arch 3--CN9 4) arch 4--CN10

Question 30

Match the following arches with the following: 1) arch 1 2) arch 2 3) arch 3 4) arch 4 a) artery becomes part of the carotid artery, forms lower part of hyoid bone and greater horns of hyoid. Pouch becomes inferior parathyroid glands and thymus. b) artery becomes part of aorta, forms crico-thyroid/levator veli/palatine, thyroid and cricoid cartilage. Pouch becomes superior parathyroid gland, ultimo-branchial body. c) artery disappears, forms the muscles of mastication. Pouch becomes tympanic membrane and eustacian tube. groove forms external auditory meatus d) artery disappears, forms muscles of facial expression. Pouch contributes to tonsils.

Answer 30

1) arch 1-(CN5)-c) artery disappears, forms the muscles of mastication. Pouch becomes tympanic membrane and eustacian tube. groove forms external auditory meatus 2) arch 2-(CN7)-d) artery disappears, forms muscles of facial expression. Pouch contributes to tonsils. 3) arch 3-(CN9)-a) artery becomes part of the carotid artery, form lower part of hyoid bone and greater horns of hyoid. Pouch becomes inferior parathyroid glands and thymus. 4) arch 4-(CN10)-b) artery becomes part of aorta, forms crico-thyroid/levator veli/palatine, thyroid and cricoid cartilage. Pouch becomes superior parathyroid gland, ultimo-branchial body.

Question 31

Which one of the following is NOT true? a) the posterior wall of the lens vesicle forms the lens fibers, while the anetrior portion becomes the anterior lens epithelium b) the optic cup is the precursor to the retina and the optic stalk is the precursor to the optic nerve c) the lens placode is the precursor to the lens d) The optic nerve is surrounded by 3 sheaths that are not continuous with the meninges of the brain

Answer 31

d) The optic nerve is surrounded by 3 sheaths that are not continuous with the meninges of the brain--false--they are continuous with the brain

Question 32

The eyes are derived from 4 sources. Which one is NOT one of those sources? a) neuroectoderm of forebrain b) surface ectoderm of head c) mesoderm between the previous layers d) neural tube cells e) neural crest cells

Answer 32

d) neural tube cells (neural tube is the primitive spinal cord)

Question 33

(T/F) myelination of the axons within the optic nerves begins in the late fetal period

Answer 33

true

Question 34

Which of the following sheath blends with the sclera? a) arachnoid b) dura c) pia d) none of the above

Answer 34

b) dura.....the outer dural sheath blends with the sclera, the intermediate sheath from the arachnoid is thin, the inner sheath from the pia mater is vascular and closely invests with the optic nerve and central arterial and venous vessels of the retina as far as the optic disc

Question 35

(T/F) The inner layer of the optic cup has thickened to form the primordial neural retina and the outer layer is heavily pigmented and is the primordium of the pigmented layer of the retina

Answer 35

true